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08:06
@MaryStar we have 4 e. Thus, instead of writing only "10 choose 3" you should write also "4 choose 3" plus "10 choose 3".
Could you explain to me the part that we have to subtract? @YOUSEFY
> the union of a countable set of countable sets is itself countable. So ℵ 1 {\displaystyle \aleph _{1}} \aleph _{1} cannot be written as the sum of a countable set of countable cardinal numbers, and is regular.
Hmm interesting
That naively sounds like if AC fails, there exists countable cardinalities $S$ such that S+S+... =uncountable
@Secret Right. Or rather, in the absense of AC it is consistent with ZF that such sets exist
or in other words, in cases where AC fails, cardinal sum can allow reaching from a lower level of infinity to the next higher one using only the lower levels of infinities
which is impossible if AC is true since $\aleph_1$ will be regular
Though for the countable one here, countable choice suffices, and that is a version considered a lot weaker than full choice
08:22
I think I will find ZF+countable choice (CC) pretty interesting once I get my head around what cofinality is
> Without the axiom of choice, there would be cardinal numbers which were not well-orderable. Moreover, the cardinal sum of an arbitrary collection could not be defined. Therefore only the aleph numbers can meaningfully be called regular or singular cardinals.
hmm, need to be careful...
> Sets with cardinality ℶ 2 {\displaystyle \beth _{2}} \beth _{2} include:
> The set of all functions from Rm to Rn
Hmm, so that means the set of all mxn matrices has cardinality $\beth_2$
(to be proved or find counterexample: The underlying set of the general linear group over the reals $GL_n(\Bbb{R})$ has cardinality $\beth_2$)
08:40
@Secret No, that group has same cardinality as the reals
An mxn matrix is a linear map from $\Bbb{R}^m$ to $\Bbb{R^n}$?
no, R^n --> R^m
o wait, forgot the nonlinear maps...
08:46
Ok, so we know that $\mathcal{C}(\Bbb{R})$ has cardinality $\beth_1$ because it must be continuous at rational points and there are only countably many rationals. Now to figure out why the set of all linear maps between two finite dimensional vector spaces also have cardinality continuum. I wonder:
The set of all invertible functions $f: \Bbb{R}\to \Bbb{R}$ have cardinality $\beth_1$ as well :?
let me think...
An $n\times m$ matrix is determined by $nm$ real numbers, so there is a nice surjection $\mathcal{P}^{\text{fin}}(\Bbb R)\to\text{Hom}(\Bbb R^n,\Bbb R^m)$
Ah right so all power sets of reals of finite support will form a bijection with the mxn matrices
which there are continuumly many of them
I think $[\Bbb R]^{<\omega}$ is the standard notation for the set of finite subsets?
In that case, I am not very sure what $\mathcal{P}^{\text{fin}}$ means
the same thing, I've seen both before
08:54
ok
As for invertible, not necessary continuous functions in $\Bbb{R}^{\Bbb{R}}$, given each point in the domain, its image is unique, so these functions necessary form a bijection from the reals to some subsets of the reals (if the functions themselves are also surjective, then they form a bijection from the reals to itself), and the number of bijections in $\Bbb{R}^{\Bbb{R}}$ is... (computing...)
should be equinumerous to the number of permutations of the reals which is $2^{\mathfrak{c}}=\beth_2$
@MaryStar It should be something like: $\frac{10!}{2!\cdot 2!\cdot 1!\cdot 1!\cdot 4!}-{ \binom{4}{3} * \binom{10}{3}$. Sorry it should be multiplicative rule instead of addition rule.
Or in other words, the symmetric group over the reals has cardinality $\beth_2$
Hmm...
$S_{\Bbb{R}} = \{\sigma|\forall r,s \in \Bbb{R},\sigma (r) = \sigma (s)\}$?
There, Marie Curie proposal submitted. Now to let it lie for a day and see if I realize something that should have been added (I can still update it until the deadline on Thursday).
09:12
$S_{\Bbb{R}} = \{\sigma | \forall r \in \Bbb{R}, s \in A \subseteq \Bbb{R}, \sigma (r)=\sigma (s) \implies r=s\}$
seemed to be it
Proof:
So... for each $\sigma(r)$ there are continuumly many possible images, and there are continuumly many possible $r$. Therefore in total there are $\mathfrak{c} \cdot \mathfrak{c} \cdots = \mathfrak{c}^{\mathfrak{c}} = 2^{\mathfrak{c}}=\beth_2$ many $\sigma$
Of course a more foolproof proof will be simply showing that $S_{\mathbb{R}}$ bijects with the powerset of reals, but I have no idea how to start the proof without somehow counting the number of possible $\sigma$ s
and unlike a countable set, I don't have sequences to enumerate the elements and use some kind of induction proof
09:29
How would you guys prove that $|S_{\Bbb{R}}|=\beth_2$?
09:59
Are you hair, @LeakyNun ?
10:30
@Secret you need the function to be surjective
@AlexKChen I think they're feet.
10:47
@Secret The cardinality of the bijective functions from $X$ to $X$ is $|X^X|$. For $X=\Bbb N$, see this and this. For arbitrary $X$, see this.
@LeakyNun Well, for infinite $X$
11:14
right
Why isn't the indefinite integral of $\ln (t+1)$ equal to $(t+1) \ln(t+1) - (t+1) +c$? I mean, isn't $\int \ln (x) dx = x \ln x - x + c$?
11:40
The only reason I can think of is the +1 get absorbed into the c
actually no
When you integrate by parts, the second term is very different than compared to the case of $\ln x$
because the second term is $-\int \frac{t}{t+1}dt$
and that changes things
@user193319 who said it isn't?
$$\int ln x dx = x \ln x - \int \frac{x}{x} dx = x \ln x - x + C$$

$$\int (x+1) dx = x \ln (x+1) -\int \frac{x}{x+1}dx=x\ln (x+1) -\int 1-\frac{1}{x+1}dx =(x+1)\ln (x+1) - x + C$$
just let x=t+1
and reduce the problem to a solved case
Yes, inverse chain rule works for this problem
huh, inverse chain rule
11:55
32
Q: Is there a chain rule for integration?

ergonI know the chain rule for derivatives. The way as I apply it, is to get rid of specific 'bits' of a complex equation in stages, i.e I will derive the $5$th root first in the equation $(2x+3)^5$ and continue with the rest. I wonder if there is something similar with integration. I tried to integr...

Special case of integration by substitution
i.e. change of variable so that the integral becomes $\int f'(x)g(f(x))dx = G(f(x)) + C$
right
@Secret have we tried finding out the cardinality of continuous real functions?
We do roughly 3 months ago. Alessandro and steamy root was also there. The proof hinge on the continuity need to hold at rationals and there are onnly countably many rationals
right
ponder at this function $\Bbb Q \to \Bbb Q$:
$$f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x^2<2 \\ 0 &x^2>2 \end{cases}$$
Convince yourself that it is continuous
under the subspace topology?
right
aka the usual topology on $\Bbb Q$
metric, order, etc.
12:04
@Secret If I was, I can't guarantee I paid any attention to it :P
then proceed to ask more bizarre questions
It's ok, I have uncountably too many rambles for people to keep track of
Though the argument is rather simple, indeed using the rationals
since they form a countable dense subset of the reals
there's just one problem with this question...
I have yet to read the chapters on the notion of continuity in topology
Doesn't matter
Just use the epsilon-delta
12:15
I'm trying to get a feeling for the distinction between locally symmetric and globally symmetric Riemannian manifolds. So I'm wondering, is there an example of a locally symmetric manifold which is isometrically embedded in $\mathbb{R}^3$ and is not globally symmetric?
In probability theory and intertemporal portfolio choice, the Kelly criterion, Kelly strategy, Kelly formula, or Kelly bet, is a formula used to determine the optimal size of a series of bets. In most gambling scenarios, and some investing scenarios under some simplifying assumptions, the Kelly strategy will do better than any essentially different strategy in the long run (that is, over a span of time in which the observed fraction of bets that are successful equals the probability that any given bet will be successful). It was described by J. L. Kelly, Jr, a researcher at Bell Labs, in 1956....
0
Q: Question related to kelly fractions

sashasI have been studying about Kelly fractions. Background I have wealth $W$. There is a game which I win with probability $p$ and lose with $1-p$. If I win the game then I get back whatever I invested plus $o$ times whatever I invested. If I lose I lose what I invested and get nothing. What is t...

any help is appreciated
thank you
I decided to post it as a question now: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2426530/…
12:30
$\lim_{x\to a^+} x^2 = \{ 0, a^2 < 2 ; 1, a^2 > 2 =\lim_{x\to a^-}x^2$
in fact, the only point where the upper and lower limits don't coincide is $x=\sqrt{2} \not\in \Bbb{Q}$ thus it is continuous in $\Bbb{Q}$
user307388
How can I cover the torus $\mathbb R^2 / \mathbb Z^2$ with charts?
@Secret you can view it that way...
new puzzle: partition the rationals into two dense (sub)sets
any dedekind cut at an irrational will partition the rationals into two sets
which are dense subsets of the rationals
but they are not dense
How is $\Bbb{Q} \cap \{x|x < \sqrt{2}\}$ and $\Bbb{Q} \cap \{x|x > \sqrt{2}\}$ not dense?
12:45
2 is not a limit point of the former
-2 is not a limit point of the latter
I think he means the union?
he doesn't
Though, to be correct, you have to specify dense in what set
A set on its own is not dense or not. It's dense or not in something else
hmm...
in the rationals :)
12:50
How about:
the subset of rationals with odd numerators and even denominators, and the subset of rationals with even numerators and odd denominators?
rip 1/3
......
is the set of prime fractions dense?
i.e. both numerators and denominators being prime
what is prime fraction?
i would say yes
Then partition Q into rationals made of prime numerators and denominators, and its complement (either or both numeroator and denominator being composite)
You'll want to throw a minus sign in there somewhere, though.
user307388
12:54
Thanks for your answers.
ah yes, including negative numbers for each set
It's not too hard to prove the fractions p/q are dense in [0,1]
but I seriously think there's a more "even" partition of the rationals, but I am not terribly good with the structure of rationals
I don't think your idea of odd and even things was bad.
It just wasn't a partition.
There should be 4 distinct (insert word) of rationals, namely even/even, even/odd, odd/even, odd/odd
but the problem are things like these:
4/2=6/3=8/4
these screwed the partition
12:59
even/even always simplifies to something else.
Not meaning to interrupt, but is anyone in here familiar with the Euler-Maclaurin formula?
Not me.
Simpleart: A little bit, what do you want to know about it?
If my error term is correct
6
A: How to accelerate the convergence of $1 + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \ldots$?

Simply Beautiful ArtBy the Euler-Maclaurin formula, $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n^2}=\sum_{n=1}^{a-1}\frac1{n^2}+\underbrace{\int_a^\infty\frac1{x^2}~\mathrm dx}_{=1/a}+\frac1{2\times a^2}+\sum_{k=1}^p\frac{B_{2k}}{2ka^{2k}}+R_p$$ $$|R_p|\le\frac{2 (2p)!}{(6a)^{2p}}$$ Choosing large enough $a$ will result in very f...

I tried a = 5 and p = 7, which should give me something like 1.7 times 10^-11 error
but its off by 2/1000
13:13
:-/ maybe my calculator's being weird
I cannot seemed to derive the last two terms using the formula...
You mean the part with the Bernoulli numbers?
yup
It should come down to finding the nth derivative of 1/x^2
SHHOOOOT
Welp, that's my mistake
I took the nth derivative of 1/x
2
Q: Show that the ring of all rational numbers, which when written in simplest form has an odd denominator, is a principal ideal domain.

Nick ThomasShow that the ring of all rational numbers $m/n$ with $n$ an odd integer is a principal ideal domain. We haven't really discussed principal ideal domains. I've heard that this is easy, but I just lack the basic knowledge of what a principal ideal domain is.

13:17
@SimplyBeautifulArt Here's a fun facet of the Euler-Maclaurin formula.
Steamy and Leaky: PID might provide the relevant partition
Test:
$\Bbb{Q} = \{\frac{p}{q} \in \Bbb{Q}, \gcd(p,q)=1\} \cup \{\frac{p}{q} \in \Bbb{Q}, \gcd(p,q)\neq 1\}$
One way to interpret Euler-Maclaurin is that it tells you not only that the sum $\sum_{n=a}^b f(x)$ serves as a trapezoidal approximation of the integral $\int_a^b f(x)\,dx$, but a series of smaller and smaller corrections to this approximation.
and that these corrections are in terms of how $f(x)$ and its derivatives behave at one endpoint versus another.
Unrelated side note: The sum $\sum_{n=1}^{k} \frac{H_n^p}{n^q}$ can be computed in closed form entirely in terms of generalised harmonic number except it is quite tedious when done directly. More details in the Mathworks room
@Secret I'd personally be happy to know the leading-order behavior of that sum when $k$ is large.
(That's not in the sense of 'i want to know it for my own stuff' but "I'd be satisfied with knowing that much.")
user307388
The rotation group $SO(3)$ is a 3-manifold?
13:25
@Semiclassical well ofc
Let me double check my workings first... (so far I have $\sum H_n$ and $\sum H_n^2$ computed, but I have not checked whether they equal to the known values of $\sum H_n^2$). It does seemed computing the infintie sum by starting with the partial sum and take limits seemed to be the safest bet but I need to be sure
okay. Now consider a special case of that: Suppose $f(x)$ is a function of $x$ such that $f$ and its first $k$ derivatives at one endpoint matches the other endpoint.
then you can show that the error term signified by those corrections is of order $O(1/n^k)$. (maybe k+1, maybe k-1. i don't actually remember the precise detail)
user307388
It seems that I have been ignored by almost all users here.
NB: To be announced later: In light of the recent dangerous signal of Ted is starting to lose tolerance to filter my rambles, and hence a potential risk of him falling off the timeline, and that after 4 years of observation, my rambles seemed to be produced in a rate steady enough to keep any new rooms alive. Mathworks room is set up to handle that so that Ted will not fall off the timeline
and interested users (we knew it is nonempty) can still read my rambles
Now suppose that $f$ is a periodic and analytic function of $x$, such that $f$ and all of its derivatives match at the endpoints. Then all Euler-Maclaurin error terms vanish. @SimplyBeautifulArt
Does it follow that the sum is exactly the same as the integral?
13:30
@MathAminPhysics .
In mathematics, the special orthogonal group in three dimensions, otherwise known as the rotation group SO(3), is a naturally occurring example of a manifold. The various charts on SO(3) set up rival coordinate systems: in this case there cannot be said to be a preferred set of parameters describing a rotation. There are three degrees of freedom, so that the dimension of SO(3) is three. In numerous applications one or other coordinate system is used, and the question arises how to convert from a given system to another. == The space of rotations == In geometry the rotation group is the group of...
Yes it is a 3-manifold
some details on how to understand its structure here
I am unable to say anything else as I have almost no background on diff geom
@Semiclassical No idea
On what interval?
user307388
@Secret Thanks. It seems that you have not ignored me yet.
@MathAminPhysics it's homeomorphic to $\Bbb P^3(\Bbb R)$
some finite interval. If one wants to make this as simple as possible, one would probably take the interval to be $[0,2\pi]$ and the function to be something like $f(2\pi k/n)$ where $f(x)$ is $2\pi$-periodic.
(the usual statement of Euler-Maclaurin is geared towards the sum form more than the integral.)
Euler-Maclaurin in that case would take the following form:
user307388
@AlessandroCodenotti Thanks. Why?
13:36
There is an intuitive explanation on wiki, in the "topology" section
$$\sum_{k=1}^n f(2\pi k/n)=\int_{0}^n f(2\pi x/n)\,dx +\frac{f(2\pi)-f(0)}{2}+\sum_{k=1}^{\lfloor p/2\rfloor} \frac{B{2k}}{(2k)!}(f^{(2k-1)}(2\pi)-f^{(2k-1)}(0))+R$$
dangit
phew
which we can reorganize to
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(2\pi k/n)-\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi} f(x)\,dx=\frac{f(2\pi)-f(0)}{2}+\sum_{k=1}^{\lfloor p/2\rfloor} \frac{B{2k}}{(2k)!}(f^{(2k-1)}(2\pi)-f^{(2k-1)}(0))+R$$
Uh
Shouldn't there be a 1/n on the RHS?
(>_<)
yes.
too late to change it now, alas.
I am disappoint.
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(2\pi k/n)-\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi} f(x)\,dx=\frac1n\left[\frac{f(2\pi)-f(0)}{2}+\sum_{k=1}^{\lfloor p/2\rfloor} \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}(f^{(2k-1)}(2\pi)-f^{(2k-1)}(0))+R\right]$$
anyhoo. if $f(2\pi)\neq f(0)$, then the leading term at large $n$ on the RHS is the 1/n term.
so if $f$ fails to be periodic, then the error goes as 1/n.
if f is periodic but f' is not, then the error will be 1/n^2. and so forth.
now suppose that $f(x)$ is $2\pi$-periodic and analytic for all $x$. Then $f$ and all its derivatives will match at $x=2\pi$ versus $x=0$. Hence every term in the above sum would seem to vanish!
Well, except for that $R$. And that's actually the escape clause here.
The above reasoning is enough to conclude that R should decrease with $n$ faster than any $n^{-k}$, though.
Since if it didn't, then it should show up in the Euler-Maclaurin terms.
13:48
Mhm... and that itself would be good enough for me
Lol, I'm trying to calculate $\pi$ by hand rn
And this kind of thing can actually show up in the real world. Suppose you were doing a complete elliptic integral.
so, for instance, $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sqrt{1-m \sin^2 x}\,dx$. up to a factor of four that's just the integral from 0 to 2pi, and then the punchline is that the integrand is periodic and analytic.
Hence the error from an $n$-point trapezoidal approximation goes down faster than any $1/n^k$. In fact, the error goes like $a^{-n}$ for some $a>1$.
Oh, that reminds me
(the precise $a$ depends on which m you're doing.)
Since the integrand is even, you can make it 1/2 times the integral from $-\pi/2$ to $+\pi/2$
13:52
And I heard applying trapezoidal rule to such an integral converges fairly fast
Right. That's pretty much this.
It'll decrease geometrically with $n$ rather than algebraically.
The best way to analyze the error in that case is actually to think of $f(x)$ in terms of its Fourier series
That's cool. thanks @Semiclassical
the integral over [0,2\pi] then filters out all Fourier coefficients besides the zeroth one
whereas the filters out all Fourier coefficients except $a_0,a_n,a_{2n},$ etc
hence you end up only caring about $a_n$ to get the error.
and that'll fall pretty fast.
i came across this in a review article in one point and thought it was cool.
(and actually used it to motivate my own research, lol)
13:57
Mmm, I should learn Fourier analysis soon
yeah, it's good stuff
what I always find neat is the following: If you've got a $2\pi$-periodic function with Fourier series $\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty c_k e^{i k \theta}$
then the change of variables $z=e^{i\theta}$ turns that into $\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty c_k z^k$, which is just a Laurent series. So Fourier analysis on a finite interval is just a different presentation of Laurent series on the unit circle.
How many places of $\pi$ should I attempt by hand?
dunno. I've never really caught the $\pi$ bug.
Lol, I'm just bored
3.141592…903
@GabrielRomon Uh... Riemann sums?
Oh, no
:-/ no idea atm
it checks out numerically
I don't think it's related to equidistribution
Oh hm yeah so you essentially want to prove that the integers mod pi are evenly distributed or something I guess
'cause you're saying that the average value of $|\sin k|$, $k\in\Bbb Z$ equals the average value of $|\sin k|$, $k\in[0,1]$
Oh wait
I think that's a dupe
But brain is fuzzy on where I saw it
A duplicate question?
14:07
Probably
Approach0 has no hits though
Seems like one could use Euler-Maclaurin, appropriately enouhh
Lets do a probability question!
There are two bags $A$ and $B$
Morning everyone
@AkivaWeinberger you think $|\sin(1)|,\ldots, |\sin(n)|$ are evenly distributed in the intervals $[\left|\sin(\frac{i}{n})\right|[, \left|\sin(\frac{i+1}{n})\right|[$ ?
14:13
Bag $A$ contains $n$ white and $2$ black balls and $B$ contains $2$ white and $n$ black balls , now one of te two bags is chosen at random and $2$ balls are drawn from it without replacement .If both the balls drawn are white and Probability that $A$ was used to draw is $\frac{6}{7}$ , then what should be the value of $n$ ?
i want bag B
You have it!
@GabrielRomon No, I think $1\!\mod\pi$, $2\!\mod\pi$, $\dots$, $n\!\mod\pi$ end up evenly distributed in $[0,\pi]$
Helllooooo
Morning dodgy
Dodsy*
i guess Dodsy could be dodgey?
14:24
@Faust you don't like discreet math ?
i like graph theory?
all the other discreet math i have done is counting something im not intrested in counting
thats boring
why cant people in discrete math count somthing useful or intresting?
Anonymous
Does anyone know a book which describes the conditions for differentiability of multivariable functions?
Discreet math would put me to sleep as well
or at least tell us of tings u can count that are intresting
But I don't mind discrete math
14:26
but grpah theory is intresting
@Faust lmfao
^^
my calc teacher today told us that he wants us to love graphing functions by friday
O.o
>_>
14:27
there easy to graph...
Well then you must learn to like Desmos :)
no desmos allowed.
This was a pun on discreet vs discrete but nevermind
whats a Desmos?
like graphing software
14:29
ah i dont use that
there are lots of surprising techniques in combinatorics
you just do it by hand?
yeah i can draw pretty much any function by hand
multiple defined funtions of t is hard sometimes
like f(t) +g(t) +h(t) can be hard to draw
Hello @MaryStar, how did you come up with math.stackexchange.com/questions/357030/… ?
14:30
it helps to be able to futz with cords to move around the idea whqat ur drawing
yeah he wants us to be able to see functions without even graphing them, i think.
but you will never be able to do diff geo if you cant draw basically all the elementry funtions and combonations
imo anyay
I believe the question was $\{x \in \mathbb{R} : \frac{x^2 + 3x}{x^2-1} \geqslant 1\}$
jesus haha
14:34
its missing a bunch fo the bictures i drew of the bifurcations in 3 dimensions :\
was a random project i did
well it as no roots in that range yes?
so u know its positive
as x gets big its acts like a straight line going up
with a slope of 3
@Dodsy where I'd start on that is to note that x^2 shows up in both num and denom
@Semiclassical why do you use english so much better than i?
So if I subtract one from both sides then the x^2 in the numerator goes away
shrug
Are you a native English speaker?
@Semiclassical he first noted that $x \neq \pm 1$
yeah...
look at my picture
14:38
@Faust have you taken the GRE yet ?
Hmm. Dunno what to tell you then @Faust
where u think i from china?
@Dodsy sure, those aren't in the domain of the LHS
@GabrielRomon no i didnt even know what that was till a couple days ago im in canada
Could have been somewhere in Europe
14:39
@Faust there's a ton of fancy words to know for the verbal section
hmm i guess that make sense i have blood form all over europe
I mean, Faust makes me think of Germany more than Canada :)
@Faust You could well be any Western European, so it would be a bit presumptous to suppose you are a native English speaker purely from your picture
yeah most Germans speak better english than me anyway
Also, yeah, Faust would indicate German affinity :P
14:41
@GabrielRomon even for a math student?
@Semiclassical and x cannot be equal to zero or when you divide x on both sides of the inequality you could be dividing by zero.
so there's two cases
@Semiclassical how common would you say are the words "sycophant" and "mawkish" ?
one were x is greater than zero
and one when x is less than zero.
@dodsy anyways, if you subtract 1 from both sides you get (1+3x)/(x^2-1) >= 0
oh that's interesting :P
14:42
@Faust yeah, top programs will take that into consideration, though they might focus more on the quant part
i Graduated high school with 92% physics 88% biology 99% Chem 94% math and 52% in English
Yep. For one, you can immediately read off that you have equality only when 1+3x=0
when i arrived at university i scored so poorly on the english placement test
it said i was supposed to take a ESL course
@Semiclassical sorry, back up just a tad, when did $x^2 + 3x$ become $1+3x$
but becuase my highschool was here in canada i couldnt register for it
14:44
(x^2+3x)/(x^2-1)-1 = ?
oh oh can i guess?
:)
that would be $1 + 3x$ :P
14:45
Yep, in the numerator
over 1
?
Now I'm confused
Denominator in what I wrote above is not 1
14:47
$\frac{x^2+3x}{x^2-1)-1}=\frac{x^2+3x}{x^2-2}=\frac{1+3x}{-2}$ ?
is that it
That is not at all what I wrote.
(A/B)-1 = ?
no dodsy
I'm subtracting 1 from the entire fraction
whats $ \frac{1}{3}-1 \neq \frac{1}{2}$
I see.
okay so continue.
what's your next step
we have
(1+3x)/(x^2-1) >= 0
really it's your formatting that confused me there, semi.
14:51
Right. The only way for that fraction to be zero is when x=-1/3
right, yes.
so i got it backwards
So all we need worry about is > i.e. When is that fraction positive
And for that to be true, both numerator and denominator must have same sign
So, when is x^2-1 positive and when is it negative?
they should add a draw picture button into chat
Here's where the cases your instructor gave are handy
14:54
Are we talking about when parts of the graph are in the first quadrant?
?
anyways the answer as a disjoint union is $(1,\infty)\cup(-1,\frac{-1}{3}]$
wow
$\mathbb{SEMICLASSICAL}$
15:13
Say, does anyone happen to know if $\frac{d^k}{dx^k}\frac1{(x^N-1)^n}$ looks nice?
@SimplyBeautifulArt wolframalpha knows
Does it?
Oh, it does
Wow
how does it look like?
15:21
rip
:P
Trying to do a series thingy
@SimplyBeautifulArt do you mind disclosing the full question
$$x=\sum_{n=1}^Nr^n$$
Trying to write $r$ as a series of $x$
15:44
@Blue No but I can tell you if you want.
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Q: What is the proper way to ask a "find the domain" question?

Paul WrightA function is not really a function unless it's defined everywhere on its domain. So consider these three questions: Let $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be the square root function $f(x) = \sqrt{x}$. What is its domain? Let $f: [0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be the square root funct...

"Let $f:X \to \Bbb R$ be the square root function $f(x) = \sqrt{x}$, where $X \subseteq \Bbb R$. Find the union of all $X$ that makes the function well-defined." is obviously the proper way.
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Could you come over the the other room?

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