Let $L$ be a linear operator expressed in a vector space with a countable basis set and $a$ be a convergent countable sequence. Then $L$ has the following property:
The subspace $S$ is spanned by any $B(x,r) \subset S \subset V$ ?
thus it has no choice but to be V itself?
Hmm...
How about this:
In a normed space, $z \in V$ can always be rescaled because it can be converted into a unit vector. This result in any $z$ to lie within some $S$ where $B(x,r) \subset S$ for any $B \subset V$. Since we can start with picking a $z \in V -S$, it then follows that $V-S$ is empty
Another thing I noticed is that any $z \in V$ will end up be $\in S$, thus $S$ cannot be proper if it contains balls
@Daminark Btw, since the above theorem holds for any normed space, moving back to $\Bbb{R}^3$ with the eucledian norm, and picking a plane passing through the origin (thus a 2 dimensional subspace) does it mean that every point on this plane is the boundary in the topological sense?
Ah, now it makes sense, because back in the times I am a layman (or at least back in linear algebra 1st year undergrad), all the points inside the plane will be intuitively like the interior to me
Let $X = \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb{N}}X_n$, where $X_n$ is defined as above the span of the hamel basis. Since by BCT $X \subset V$, is there a name for the space $V-X$?
One thing I am interested is how going from countable to uncountable will allow the space to reach $V-X$
I am trying to understand the hamel basis in countable normed space. Since in such space, each vector has countably many components, then since a countable union of finite dimensional sets is countable, then it may seemed that countably many suitably chosen balls that spans 2 or 3 dimensions each should be able to fill in the whole space, but it does not as the property that the only subspace that has an interior is the whole space itself, and thus by BCT they cannot union to fill in the whole
space
So the question is then what do the missing points in $V-X$ look like, such that it takes uncountably many balls to reach them
sequence spaces $\ell^p$ ($\in \Bbb{N} \cup \{\infty\}$) seemed to be the most simple and one of the most ubiquitous example of a countable banach space, thus I think we can start with that as an example
Other Banach spaces with a Schauder basis have a coordinatization of the similar sort but thinking about linear operators through that tends to be clunky
I guess unless you're in L^p and doing Fourier but I dunno about that so I'll refrain from opening that can of worms
Right, so the question narrows down to that we knew the hamel basis of a sequence space is also uncountable based on the BCT proof we just went through. In order to understand how so in a more "geometric" point of view, I need to know what the points $\ell^p -X$ look like
The following is my initial thought on how I think I can span this space with countably many finite dimensional balls that seemed make sense, but is wrong because it does not agree with the BCT proof
Let $\{X_n\}$ be a collection of finite dimensional subspaces of $\ell^p$ indexed by the natural numbers
The components of each $a\in \ell^p$ can likewise be given as $a_i$ for $i \in \Bbb{N}$
For $e_i$ basis vectors in each $X_n$: Let $X_1 = \text{span}(e_1,e_2,e_3)$ Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_4,e_5,e_6)$ Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_7,e_8,e_9)$ ... Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_n,e_{n+1},e_{n+2}), n \in \Bbb{N}$
Thus $X = \bigcup_{n\in \Bbb{N}} X_n$
Yet by BCT, $X \subset \ell^p$, therefore what do the missing elements look like?
In this paper on the history of functional analysis, the author mentions the following example of an infinite system of linear equations in an infinite number of variables $c_i = A_{ij} x_j$:
\begin{align*}
\begin{array}{ccccccccc}
1 & = & x_1 & + & x_2 & + & x_3 & + & \dots \\
1 & = & & &...
what kind of linear algebra do I need, it does not look very linear algebra like (other than $\int$ is a linear operator, but that's functional analysis)?
Hmm... if the question is $\int P(x)dx$ where $P(x)$ is a polynomial, then it is easy to see that $\int$ will have a finite matrix representation thus it can be multiplied to the matrix representation of $P(x)$ to solve for its integral.
So that means, we need some finite dimensional vector space that has $x \ln x$ as an element
and take its basis
Alternately, we can always use taylor series on $\ln x$ and solve it as a power series, but that's cheating because it is technically speaking an approximation
$\int^{(k)} g(x) dx$ is a polynomial for any $k \in \Bbb{N}$
If $g(x) = \ln x$, then:
$\int \ln x dx= x\ln x -x$ $\int^{(2)} \ln x dx = P(x) \ln x +Q(x)$ ... $\int^{(k)} \ln x dx$ is a linear combination of a polynomial times a ln x + a polynomial
That means...:
given a function $h(x) \in S$
If $$\int^{(k)} h(x) dx \in S, \forall k \in \Bbb{N}$$
and $g(x) \in S$ , then $\int g(x) dx$ can be solved via matrix representation of $\int$
In symbolic computation (or computer algebra), at the intersection of mathematics and computer science, the Risch algorithm is an algorithm for indefinite integration. It is used in some computer algebra systems to find antiderivatives. It is named after the American mathematician Robert Henry Risch, a specialist in computer algebra who developed it in 1968.
The algorithm transforms the problem of integration into a problem in algebra. It is based on the form of the function being integrated and on methods for integrating rational functions, radicals, logarithms, and exponential functions. Risch...
O wait, that might be the generalisation of the Rische algorithm I am seeking for
Let $G$ be a group of order $4$ then either $ G \cong C_4$ or $G \cong C_2 \times C_2$
the proof my lecture gave goes as follows:
Let $x \in G$ then by Lagrange $\text{ord}(x)$ divides $|G| =4 $ so w ehave either
1) $\exists x \in G$ with $x^4 = 1$
or 2) $\forall x \in G, x^2 = 1$
He then go...
Consider a gambling process $(X_n)_{n∈\mathbb{N}}$ on the state space $S = {0, 1, . . . , N}$, with probability
$p$, resp. $q$, of moving up, resp. down, at each time step. For $x = 0, 1, . . . , N$, let $τ_x$
denote the first hitting time, $τ_x := \inf\{n ≥ 0 : X_n = x\}$
Let $p_x := P(τ_{x+1} <...
Right, so the question narrows down to that we knew the hamel basis of a sequence space is also uncountable based on the BCT proof we just went through. In order to understand how so in a more "geometric" point of view, I need to know what the points $\ell^p -X$ look like The following is my initial thought on how I think I can span this space with countably many finite dimensional balls that seemed make sense, but is wrong because it does not agree with the BCT proof Let $\{X_n\}$ be a collection of finite dimensional subspaces of $\ell^p$ indexed by the natural numbers
Let $s(n)$ be a finite sequence of natural numbers such that for all $n$ such that $n+1$ is in the domain of $s$ we have $2s(n+1)=s(n)$ if $n$ is even and $s(n+1)=3s(n)+1$ if $n$ is odd. Then Collatz says "for all $k$ there is such an $s$ and an $n$ with $s(0)=k$ and $s(n)$=1$
How would exponentiation be defined in Peano arithmetic? Unless $n$ is fixed natural number, $x^n$ seems to be hard to define.
Edit 2: So, what would be the way to define $x^n+y^n = z^n$ using $\Sigma_1^0$ formula?
Edit: OK, I say Peano arithmetic has addition and multiplication stuffs. This a...
@AlessandroCodenotti The post mentioned in general topology chat room might be related to this. (At least to some extent. To be honest, I am now less sure than when I typed my first response to you.)
But it might be worth having a look if you are still interested in that problem.
@MartinSleziak thanks, I didn't notice you posted it in another room! I've only dealt with (upper) semicontinuity once so I'm not really familiar with it, I'll get back to this problem after I'm done with my exam tomorrow though