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1:04 AM
Hi all! can someone points me where i can find a reference for the fact that the kernel of a nowhere zero differential 1 form $\alpha$ on a manifold $M$ is a subbundle of $TM$?
 
If I remember seeing that in a textbook, it would certainly be as an exercise.
 
 
1 hour later…
2:43 AM
@Wildcard you can't control wt ppl believe :P
@AkivaWeinberger hmm... because it's even?
 
3:26 AM
@LeakyNun Theorem: You can't control what people believe. Proof: Belief + Proof = Truth. But, Proof - Control = Faith. Therefore, Truth + Belief = Rightness, so Belief = Nothing in absence of Truth, and Control + Belief = Dogma. Q.E.D.
:P
:D
 
dahell
 
LOL
On a more serious note, I'd appreciate it if someone could review my symbolic proof here:
6
A: Hat guessing game

WildcardThe key to this is that the ACTUAL sum of all the hats (mod 100) must be one of the numbers from 0 to 99. Whichever number it is, that player will have guessed his/her hat color correctly. A corollary: no one else will have guessed correctly. Only the person whose player number matches the act...

I'm sure of my math, but trying to write a symbolic proof in MathJax is distracting (as I'm not 100% familiar with it yet) and so I'm wondering if I left any steps out due to constantly fiddling with formatting....
 
3:50 AM
@Daminark in Chicago??
 
Right now I'm back in Texas for the break
 
Prove that x^a-p is irreducible where p is a prime and a>0 :P
trivial problem
 
I dunno much about this stuff, but let's see. Over which field, Q?
 
sure
 
Oh wait a sec lol, okay if a > 1 that'd be saying that a prime number is a power of something
If a = 1 it's linear so it's irreducible
 
4:01 AM
@Daminark hmm?
oh
 
Should work, I think
 
nice
 
@Daminark Where are you?
 
4:38 AM
Arlington
@PVAL sorry I was with parents
 
 
1 hour later…
 
2 hours later…
7:31 AM
I have a question: Is it important that a random variable has values?! for example if we have coin, then we have Heads or Tails. So, how do you work in this case!
 
you can assign the values 0 and 1 to the possible outcomes
 
7:46 AM
Ok, suppose I put Heads=100 and Tails=3. So, If I get Heads, then I got $100 and If I get Tails I got $3. Now, what is expected value of this event?
 
We have that $(b_i, m)=1, \forall i=1, \dots, \phi(m)$.
So there are $x_i, y_i \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $x_i b_i+ y_i m=1$.

Then we have that $x_1 \cdot x_2 \cdots x_{\phi(m)} \cdot b_1 \cdot b_2 \cdots b_{\phi(m)} \equiv 1 \pmod{m} \Rightarrow x_1 \cdot x_2 \cdots x_{\phi(m)} \cdot B \equiv 1 \pmod{m}$.

So we need to show that $x_1 \cdot x_2 \cdots x_{\phi(m)} \equiv \pm 1 \pmod{m}$. How can we show this?
 
Or in other words, how to define a random variable?
 
assuming the probability of getting heads is equal to getting tails (so equal to $\frac{1}{2}$ ), you get
that the expecteted value is $\frac{1}{2}*3 + \frac{1}{2}*100$
 
So definition of random variable is: X=: is a random variable that has heads=100 and tails = 3. Is this right
 
and this -discrete- random variable is completely defined by the pairs $(100, \frac{1}{2}), (3,\frac{1}{2})$, where the first term is the possible outcome, and the second term is the probability
 
8:09 AM
@mago we expected value is: 100*Pr[X=100] + 3*Pr[X=3]
if I throw the coin 3 times, then Is the expected value = 3*E[X]
 
Sometimes rather deep philosophical questions are asked in comments. Example: "Do you have any thoughts?".
 
8:36 AM
yup, the expected value is linear
 
9:16 AM
1
Q: How to prove $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$ and $\mathbb{Q}(e)$ are not the same field?

RolandI know that it hasn't been shown that $\pi$ and $e$ are algebraically independent over $\mathbb{Q}$. However it must be easier to show that the fields $\mathbb{Q}(\pi) $and $\mathbb{Q}(e)$ are not the same. Yet, I have no ideas on how to approach this problem. Does anyone can show a proof or give...

Hmm...
$\pi$ and $e$ both have a binary expansion that is non repeating
What is the minimum criteria for a sum or product of numbers to fail to produce a recurring decimal?
Suppose I have irrationals $x=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_k}{2^k}$ and $y=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{b_k}{2^k}$ where $a_k,b_k \in \{0,1\}$. Then the sum is given by $x+y=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_k+b_k}{2^k}$ and their product is given by $xy=\sum_{k,l=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_kb_l}{2^{k+l}}$
Since $x,y$ is irrational, then the sequences $a_k,b_k$ does not contain periodic components
If $x$ and $y$ can be decomposed into $w+z$ where one of these is rational (hence has a recurring binary expansion), then $x$ or $y$ must contain some subsequence that is recurring.
The first thing to make sense of, is for the two possible case of summation (with or without carryovers) what kind of map does that corresponds:
Take the number $0.001_2$ as example. This can be written as the expansion $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{c_k}{2^k}$ where $c_k =(0,0,0,1,0...)$
Now, if I pick some sequence $d_k$ where $k\neq 4$, then the sum $s_k = c_k+d_k$ will have a 1 at the position $k \neq 4$
 
9:39 AM
Hi @Dami
 
This means, suppose a binary sequence $a_k$ has the $j$th component = 1, and we are interested in computing the sum $a_k+b_k$. If $b_j=0$, then $s_j=1$
However, the more interesting (and in some sense harder to understand) behaviour are carryovers:
Suppose we have binary sequences $a_k, b_k$ and that the ith position is =1. Then $s_i =0, but s_{i-1} = 1$ if $s_{i-1} = 0$
The trick is then how to formulate these two phenomenon in terms of some kind of shift mapping, so that the structure of carryovers in binary expansions can be better tracked
We currently knew the following: A binary sequence < 1 will have $a_0=0$ and $a_{n>0} \in \{0,1\}$
In particular, $a_j \in \{0,1\}$. Suppose $a_j = 0$. Then 3 things can happen:
typo: 4 things
$$a_j+b_j = \left\{\begin{matrix}0,b_j=0, (a_{j+1},b_{j+1})\neq (1,1)\\ 1,b_j = 1, (a_{j+1},b_{j+1})\neq (1,1) \\ 1,b_j=0, (a_{j+1},b_{j+1})= (1,1)\\ 0,b_j = 1, (a_{j+1},b_{j+1})= (1,1) \end{matrix}\right.$$
if $a_j=1$ then the results are inverted. This means, we can condense the above results as follows:
 
10:06 AM
$\forall j \in \Bbb{N},(a_{j-1},a_j)+(b_{j-1},b_j)$ is given by the recursion relation
\begin{align}
(0,0)+(0,x) & =(0,x),x\in \{0,1\}\\
(0,1)+(0,1) & =(1,0)\\
\end{align}
Now for all rationals $x \in \Bbb{Q}$ the following will hold as the binary expansion is recurring:
$\forall m\in \Bbb{N},\exists i,n \in \Bbb{N} |(x_i,x_{i+1},...,x_{n})=(x_{i+m},x_{i+1+m},...,x_{n+m})$
That is, there exists a subsection of the binary sequence that is invariant under translation.
 
10:33 AM
This is not helpful, there seemed to be no position of ones in the binary expansion of $\pi-3$ in OEIS
$\pi = 11.0010010000111111011010101000100010000..._2$
$\pi = 11.001001000011111101101010100010001000010110100011000010001101001100010011000110011000101000101110000000110111000001110011010001..._2$
$e = 10.101101111110000101010001011000101000101011101101001010100110101010111111011100010101100010000000100111001111010011110011110001..._2$
\begin{align}
\pi - 3 & = 0.001001000011111101101010100010001000010110100011000010001101001100010011000110011000101000101110000000110111000001110011010001..._2\\
e -2 & = 0.101101111110000101010001011000101000101011101101001010100110101010111111011100010101100010000000100111001111010011110011110001..._2
\end{align}
 
11:03 AM
Hi! I'm working on the bootstrap percolation model for a school project, and I wonder if you had any suggestion about software to do this:
-I want to make a simulation of the model (like this: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/images/gifs/bootperc.gif).
-I want to make some illustration (such as https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/7/7b/Bond_percolation_p_51.png).
 
Common digits places with value 1 between $\pi$ and $e$ in binary expansion:
3,6,11,16,18,33,41,43,48,53,58,63,68,71,72,76,80,85,106,107,108,114,115,116,119,‌​120,122,126
Position of ones in $\pi - 3$:
3,6,11,12,13,14,15,16,18,19,21,23,25,29,33,38,40,41,43,47,48,53,57,58,60,63,64,6‌​8,71,72,76,77,80,81,85,87,91,93,94,95,103,104,106,107,108,114,115,116,119,120,122‌​,126
Position of ones in $e -2$:
1,3,4,6,7,8,9,10,11,16,18,20,24,26,27,31,33,37,39,41,42,43,45,46,48,51,53,55,58,‌​59,61,63,65,67,68,69,70,71,72,74,75,76,80,82,84,85,89,97,100,101,102,105,106,107,‌​108,110,113,114,115,116,119,120,121,122,126
Position of carryovers in $\pi-3+e-2$:
$= T(3,6,11,16,18,33,41,43,48,53,58,63,68,71,72,76,80,85,106,107,108,114,115,116,11‌​9,‌​120,122,126)$
=
2,5,10,15,17,32,40,42,47,52,57,62,67,70,75,79,84,105,113,118,121,125,126(?)
 
11:58 AM
$T$ is the shift mapping. Given common position of ones $k$, $T(k)=k+1$
Typo:
Position of carryovers in $\pi - 3 + e - 2$:
=2,5,10,15,17,32,40,42,47,52,57,62,67,70,71,75,79,84,105,106,107,113,114,115,118‌​,119,121,125
Position of ones that are not common to $e - 2$ in $\pi - 3$
12,13,14,15,19,21,23,25,29,38,40,47,57,60,64,77,81,87,91,93,94,95,103,104
Position of ones that are not common to $\pi - 3$ in $e -2$:
 
You @Secret broke my MathuJax :-(
 
how, I did not use any weird commands?
 
@Secret this line is too long...
 
ooops...
 
12:14 PM
shouldn't this be in your blog?
 
1,4,7,8,9,10,20,24,26,27,31,37,39,42,45,46,51,55,59,61,65,67,69,70,74,75,82,84,8‌​9,97,100,101,102,105,110,113,121
uh... it seems too disorganised to be in blog form, but maybe...
Anyway, we now have an algorithm for binary addition:
 
About birthday problem. If we want the probability that 4 people share the same birthday, then we should do the following: Pr[ 4 people share the same birthday] = 1- {event where everyone has different birthday + event where all pairs have different birthday + event where all 3 people have different birthday} Is that right!
 
Binary addition algorithm
Given two binary strings $a_k$ and $b_k$. It's sum $s_k=a_k+b_k$ is given by the following algorithm:
1. Construct the sequence $s_k(a_k,b_k)$ which notate the common position of ones in $a_k$ and $b_k$
2. Subtract each element of $s_k$ by one entrywise to get the sequence of positions of carryovers $c_k$
3. Construct the sequence $u_k$ by taking the union of the positions of ones that are unique to $a_k$ or $b_k$
4. If $u_k$ and $c_k$ have no common entries, then we are done. Else subtract those common entries by 1 to produce another carryover position sequence $c_k^{(2)}$
5. Repeat step 4 until termination due to $c_k^{(n)}$ and $u_k$ have no common entries
 
12:32 PM
is it true that the number of functions of a={1,2,3,4,5,6} that are copying even numbers to even numbers is $18^3$?
a to a
 
Does $f: a \to a$ take subsets of $a$ as part of its domain, or just a single element of $a$ each time?
 
it's not written. it's a question in discrete math (combinatorics)
 
Hmm...
222
224
226
242
244
246
262
264
266
422
424
426
442
444
446
462
464
466
622
624
626
642
644
646
662
664
666
 
so it's not
 
yeah, the domain 2,4,6 can be mapped to any of these 27 images
 
12:43 PM
i don't understand this concept.
for instace: a={1,2,3,4,5,6}, the number of functions from a to a that are copying each number of a to one of it' diviors is $2^3*3^2$?
 
@Secret a single element each time
 
can you please explain to me how would you calculate it?
 
there are $6^6$ possible functions
you specify that for 3 specific values, they must go to 3 specific values
and for the other 3, there are 6 possible values
so it is $3^3 \times 3^6 = 3^9$
 
you're refering to the first question, riht?
right*
 
right
@YOUSEFY no, you just do (1/365)^3
 
12:46 PM
could you please explain to me how would you calculate the same for a, only if copies every number from a={1,2,3,4,5,6} to one of its divisors?
 
how many possible values of $f(2)$?
 
the divisble numbers are 2,4,6, and their vidisors are 1,2,3
divisors
 
I'm only asking you what $f(2)$ can be.
do you know what divisor is?
 
@LeakyNun Hi Leaky, suppose the event that we have "at least 4 people share a birthday" Is it equal to 1/(365^3)
 
so 2 can't be then
 
12:48 PM
@BeginningMath do you know what divisor is?
@YOUSEFY why should I suppose so?
 
the number that is dividing
 
no, not dividend vs divisor
the divisor of a number
some people call it factor
 
@LeakyNun Because may saying "4 people share the same birthday" is different from "at least 4 people share the same birthday"?
 
@YOUSEFY how many people are there?
 
10
 
12:50 PM
oh
too complicated for me :P
 
Yes, i knew this question takes some details!
 
it seems to be true, since only 4 and 6 can be divided, and 1,2,3 are the only natural results of the division, so in a={1,2,3,4,5,6} the number of function from a->a that are copying each number of a is $3^2*2^3$
 
@BeginningMath you don't understand what a divisor is.
 
so please explicitly tell me what it is
so i can understand
 
a divisor of a number is a number that can evenly divide said number
for example, the divisors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6.
 
12:55 PM
that is what i said in the last sentence
 
there are 4 divisors of 6
how many divisors does 4 have?
 
1,2,4
 
right
so it's $1 \times 2 \times 2 \times 3 \times 2 \times 4 = 2^5 \times 3$
 
so how many function can be that are copying each number of a to one of its divisors?
oh
i don't understand this concept very well
 
@BeginningMath indeed
 
1:07 PM
Hello!!! I have a question.
We have that gcd(m,n)=1 and b,c are any integers.

How do we get from the Linear congruence theorem that the congruence $my \equiv c-b \pmod{n}$ has exactly one solution?

I thought that it has no solution, since otherwise we would have that $(m,n)=1 \mid c-b $....
 
(cont.) Need to do some chemistry, thus will do some maths later. But a preliminary conclusion of the above investigation of $\pi$ and $e$ is that, due to the behaviour of carryovers in binary being basically a shift mapping of a sequence of common ones, it is possible the solution to the (ir)rationality of $\pi + e$ lies on the probability of finding some binary subsequence in both $e$ and $\pi$ and whether their intersection (common ones) is mostly contributed by $\pi$ or $e$
 
@Evinda use examples to explore
 
1:51 PM
@Evinda but $1$ does divide $c-b$...
 
2:10 PM
Am I doing this sum right?
For $m=1$:
$$\underset{k=0,1,2,3...n} {2^{k}} = \underset{k = 1}1 + {m \choose 1}\underset{k \geq 2} 1 + {m \choose 2}{\sum_{a \geq 3}}1 + {m \choose 3}{\sum_{a \geq 4} \sum_{b \geq 1}} 1 + {m \choose 4}{\sum_{a \geq 5} \sum_{b \geq 1} \sum_{c \geq 1}} 1 +{m \choose 5}{\sum_{a \geq 6} \sum_{b \geq 1} \sum_{c \geq 1} \sum_{d \geq 1}} 1 + \cdots$$
It seems to be not entirely right.
 
@MatsGranvik could you substitute one value?
 
@LeakyNun yes if you mean that one can replace the ones on the right hand side with something else and get some other sequence on the left hand side.
I am trying to compare it to the Mertens function:
$$M(x) = 1 - \sum_{2 \leq a \leq x} 1 + \underset{ab \leq x}{\sum_{a \geq 2} \sum_{b \geq 2}} 1 - \underset{abc \leq x}{\sum_{a \geq 2} \sum_{c \geq 2} \sum_{b \geq 2}} 1 + \underset{abcd \leq x}{\sum_{a \geq 2} \sum_{b \geq 2} \sum_{c \geq 2} \sum_{d \geq 2}} 1 - \cdots$$
 
3:07 PM
@LeakyNun Hello :D
 
@KasmirKhaan hi
I haven't received anything
 
oh
Ermm Ill send now questions 2-3-and 4 part a)
=p
@LeakyNun Sent :)
 
@KasmirKhaan I thought you would learn from my LaTeX skills :P
 
@LeakyNun haha am still working on that =p too many complicated commands
 
you skipped the conclusion...
 
3:14 PM
@LeakyNun what exercice?
 
the first one
out of so many steps you skip you skipped the conclusion...
 
@LeakyNun You mean I should say thus G is abelian ?
 
you didn't say xy=yx
and proceeded to the next part
well it would also be good if you said G is abelian
 
Oh yeah
>< Ill fix that now
 
you finally got that proof of yx=e right
 
3:17 PM
Haha thanks :D
fixed the first part now =p
Btw what do you think of 4 a) ?
 
I've only read to Q3
 
Okay =p
 
Q3 I would criticize that you assumed what you want to prove
 
@LeakyNun I had to assume that e is the identity and then show it obeys the axioms of identity right?
 
you can't assume that identity exists
 
3:28 PM
How should I start that line ?
 
Hello!! At the following picture we have that $e^{j2\pi ft }=\cos (2\pi ft ) +j\sin (2\pi ft )$. Is the sinus equal to 0, since $2\pi ft$ is an integer multipli of $\pi$ : $e^{j2\pi ft }=\cos (2\pi ft ) +j\cdot 0=\cos (2\pi ft ) $
 
@KasmirKhaan you might want to just show that 0 is an identity
or prove that 0 is really an identity
 
@LeakyNun Okay, Ill fix that :D
@LeakyNun otherwise you see some imporvment? =p
 
what is the question text of the last part?
 
Oh thats part b)
Iam working on it now
 
3:33 PM
I mean, of Q3
 
@robjohn In one of your recent answers, you asserted that $$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(g(x))\,\mathrm{d}x=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\sum_{g(x‌​)=\alpha}\frac1{\left|g'(x)\right|}\,f(\alpha)\,\mathrm{d}\alpha$$ without explicitly placing any conditions on $f(x)$ or $g(x)$. But aren't some conditions needed?
 
because you seem to have missed out something
@KasmirKhaan
 
@LeakyNun I need to conclude that G is a group forgot to put that on
 
but it isn't
 
@LeakyNun What do you mean ? it is a group on the set Q/ {-1}
 
3:37 PM
oh, nvm
 
I think we are talking about different things ><
I isent Q 2-3-4
so are we talking about Q 3 or Q 4?
@LeakyNun Do you think I have to do (XY)*Z and X*(YZ) in full detail ? its alot to type and associativity in the real numbers are known
 
@KasmirKhaan for which one?
 
@LeakyNun Multiplication
 
for which question?
 
X =a+sqrt(2) b
Q4 part b)
the last question that I did not do yet
It is alot to type and it is not something hard to prove
(a+b sqrt(2) ) (c+d sqrt(2) )
Can't I just claim that associativity is inherated from the reals
so is closure
just need to find the two-sided identity and inverse
 
3:59 PM
@KasmirKhaan not sure if your professor would accept that
 
@LeakyNun Okay =p
 
4:18 PM
@KasmirKhaan why use $\ast$ for Q4?
 
@LeakyNun what do you mean ?
 
why not $+$?
 
@LeakyNun it does not matter what we call it, he told us that =p
But you are right ofc
is it a + operation
But when it is understood we are allowed to use any symbol for operation =p
 
whatever you like
 
=P
@LeakyNun Do you know some good lectures about homomorphism and isomorphims? =p
 
4:27 PM
how many ways to distribute $n$ identical pencils amongst $k$ children? It should be 1 right?
 
@KaustabhaRay it depends on many factors, it is possible for some child to get none ?
 
@KasmirKhaan I don't
 
@LeakyNun Okay thnaks anyway =p our proffesor posted the second homework assigment =P
 
nothing else is mentioned, so i assumed that those situations of a child getting no pencil is not coming up
 
@LeakyNun It is about isomorphism theorems and stuff like that, I should just post the first one and focus on the second =P
 
4:30 PM
@KaustabhaRay I don't do underspecified questions :P
 
@KaustabhaRay S(n,k) for k=0,1,...k
where S(n,k) is called the striling number of the second kind
but that question is not clear at all, many missing informations
 
i was just about to ask is that Striling number
 
butdont take that as an answer , it is only a possible answer because of the missing data
 
what are some of the practical applications of Stirling Number of the second kind? I somehow remember somewhere it was in counting functions, but dont remember clearly
 
4:33 PM
it is a way of partition of the sets
such that they are disjoint and non is empty
also S(n,k) / k! , is the number of surjective functions
 
oh yes i remember now
 
good =P
@LeakyNun Should I study homomorphism first or isomorphism ? or does nto matter?
 
@Leaky I had to leave the other day, did you work out why sum and product of algebraic numbers is algebraic?
 
what are they referring to by $f^{-1}$
 
@KaustabhaRay inverse function
 
4:40 PM
$f^{-1}(b)=\{x\in A|f(x)=b\}$
 
@AlessandroCodenotti well I saw something like resultant
@KasmirKhaan homomorphism
 
@LeakyNun what is that?
 
@LeakyNun All righty =p ill be doing that then :D
 
wanted an english explanation :P
 
2
Q: Resultant of two polynomials

AspirinLet $Res(f,g)$ be a resultant of two polynomials $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Is it true that resultant does not change under a linear change of coordinates $x\mapsto x+\alpha$? Thanks a lot!

@AlessandroCodenotti ^
 
4:43 PM
Ah, I see
I had a different proof in mind
 
well I saw resultant a long time ago and decided that I can't understand it
the proof given in my book uses the algebraic closure
 
Sure, if you assume the algebraic closure exists then this is obvious
Since the closure is a field
 
@KasmirKhaan so that would be the cardinality of the inverse function?
 
but my book proves its existence using Zorn's lemma @_@ @AlessandroCodenotti
well I'm all ears if you would like to share your proof
 
@KasmirKhaan You should definitely not call that the "inverse function" unless you know for sure it's a function.
 
4:46 PM
You definitely need AC to show that every field has an algebraic closure so there's no way around that
 
It's better to call $f^{-1}$ the inverse relation to $f$.
 
I'd show that if $\alpha$ is algebraic over $F$ then $F(a)$ is an extensionnof finite degree. Then you show that finite degree extension are algebraic, so $\alpha^2$ is also algebraic. You can do the same with $F(\alpha,\beta)$ to get sums and products
Instead of using the whole algebraic closure which is a bit of a cannon to shoot a fly I'd consider the smallest of its subfields containing the algebraic numbers we're interested in
 
@LeakyNun but was my answer of 1 to the $n$ identical pencils questions correct, given my assumption?
 
@KaustabhaRay right
@AlessandroCodenotti hmm
 
What's your doubt?
 
4:58 PM
finite degree extension are algebraic
I didn't ask because I think my book contains the proof
but I can't read my book right now
 
@RandomVariable This is a change of variables combined with the inverse function theorem. As long as things are integrable, it should be fine. You can require that $f\in L^1$ and that $|g'(x)|$ does not vanish to make sure that everything is integrable.
 
31.3 Theorem:
A finite extension field $E$ of a field $F$ is an algebraic extension of $F$.

Proof:
We must show that for $\alpha \in E$, $\alpha$ is algebraic over $F$. By Theorem 30.19 if $[E:F] = n$, then $$1, \alpha, \cdots, \alpha^n$$ cannot be linearly independent elements, so there exist $a_i \in F$ such that $$a_n \alpha^n + \cdots + a_1 \alpha + a_0 = 0,$$ and not all $a_i = 0$. Then $f(x) = a_n x^n + \cdots + a_1 x + a_0$ is a nonzero polynomial in $F[x]$, and $f(\alpha)=0$. Therefore, $\alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.
@AlessandroCodenotti ^
this is so amazing lol
 
Yeah it's a cool proof
 
5:17 PM
I remember the proof that it is a field
it uses maximal ideal
irreducible polynomial -> maximal ideal -> field @AlessandroCodenotti
 
5:42 PM
@BalarkaSen hi
 
5:53 PM
i
@KasmirKhaan Q4: you didn't actually prove that the identity exists
 
user287318
6:11 PM
@robjohn Can you refer me to link of that question, please?
 
@LeakyNun Ill fix it =p
 
hi
 
@robjohn I'm probably looking at this all wrong, but for $g(x) = x + \tan x$, I get $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(g(x)) \, dx = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{(n-1/2)\pi}^{(n+1/2) \pi} f(g(x)) \, dx = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\alpha) \left(g_{n}^{-1}(\alpha) \right)' \, d \alpha$$ where $g^{-1}_{n}(\alpha)$ is the inverse of $\alpha = g(x)$ on $\left((n-1/2)\pi, (n+1/2)\pi)\right).$

I don't understand how applying the IFT could possibly lead to the result if we don't first interchange the order of integration and summation, which is why I asked you about conditions.
 
6:38 PM
@RandomVariable In that case, the intgerals are all positive, so the interchange is Fubini.
 
user287318
6:54 PM
@RandomVariable May I know the link of that question, please?
 
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