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09:00
possibly more general than that. In phase space, each point is a pair of position and momentum, but time evolution is not explicit
what I want is perhaps something akin to path integration of sorts, except that all possible trajectories are contained in such space for all starting conditions
Or put it in another way, parametrise all possible (classical) trajectories and starting conditions of the double pendulum with the lyapunov exponent
i was gonna do the same thing, but with my cat
bet your pendulum's exponent can't beat my cat's
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Path_space hmm, its literally called path space
@Salt you are going to do some path integration stuff?
(I will assume cat is related to quantum)
not really, i'm generally stuck on the discrete side of math
however, my cat's attractors are easy to describe
I see
One reason I choose the double pendulum is because it is one of the uncommon examples (modulo the weather, which is too complex to even start) where the chaotic phenomenon does not involve a strange attractor, hence some notion of fractal like behaviour
I have previously played with the $\lambda$ parameter in the logistic map in mathematica. However the chaotic regime is space filling thus it is not very informative on what really happened
$SO(3)/SO(2) \cong S^2$ :O
I do not see how this is true at all
09:11
1
Q: Logistic map chaos theory experiment, need advice on interpretation of results

SecretRecently while studying this lecture notes to learn about numerical techniques, I performed the following experiment in Mathematica as the lecture note encourage the reader to explore the logistic map (which caused me to first learn and stumble upon chaos theory in the process, hence I am still r...

That's one of my past investigation purely out of interest
But again, I will need to do more chaos theory before I am ready to check these and the double pendulum again
@LeakyNun So you want to identify that quotient with rotations in two dimensions
@TobiasKildetoft how should I begin?
@LeakyNun No idea, that was just my initial idea when I saw it
right
Prove that $SO(n)/SO(n-1) \cong S^{n-1}$ and then let $n = 3$ :^)
09:15
@SteamyRoot nice
The standard argument is pretty much that $SO(n)$ acts transitively on $S^{n-1}$ with stabiliser $SO(n-1)$, if I remember correctly
@SteamyRoot in English?
Previous joke sounding question:
4 hours ago, by Secret
[Random]
Demonstration of a group using a group of people in a lecture. But the first question is, what makes a good inverse element in a group of people?
If I want to think about this as a quotient of $\Bbb P^3(\Bbb R)$ what should I be quotienting by? An $S^1$ I'd guess, but embedded how?
(though rubik's cube seemed a better demonstration)
09:19
@LeakyNun $SO(n)$ acts naturally on $\mathbb{R}^n$, and the action preserves the length of vectors.
So you can restrict the action to $S^{n-1}$
:39760204 uh, wrong ping?
Woops, yeah
@SteamyRoot and then?
As a great circle on the surface of the ball before quotienting, if I'm not mistaken, to answer my own question
Then you show that the action is transitive. Meaning for any $x,y \in S^{n-1}$, there exists some $g \in SO(n)$ such that $gx = y$
Which pretty much means the group only has a single orbit.
09:22
oooh, group action!
Do any other actions exist? :P
there exists semigroup and ring actions
@SteamyRoot nah, I just didn't recognize it as a group action just now
And then you just have to calculate the stabiliser of some point and apply the orbit-stabiliser theorem
@SteamyRoot There are actions of so many things. It just happens that the term "transitive" may need to have its meaning changed
09:28
Well, my view may be heavily skewed, but I've almost never seen anyone use the term "action" for anything other than a group action. Or, at the very least, when I hear someone say "action" without any further information, I assume they implicitly mean a group action.
Why should the term "transitive" have its meaning changed? o.O
In algebra and theoretical computer science, an action or act of a semigroup on a set is a rule which associates to each element of the semigroup a transformation of the set in such a way that the product of two elements of the semigroup (using the semigroup operation) is associated with the composite of the two corresponding transformations. The terminology conveys the idea that the elements of the semigroup are acting as transformations of the set. From an algebraic perspective, a semigroup action is a generalization of the notion of a group action in group theory. From the computer science point...
@SteamyRoot Because it turns out to be necessary in some contexts to get the "right" behavior. Basically, orbits may need to be "completed" in suitable ways to be well-behaved and this changes the definition of being transitive
This is especially the case in $2$-representation theory, and it then gets a shadow in the study of the actions of certain types of algebras
For me, I tend to treat action as a map which take an element from an algebraic structure $S$ and some set $X$ and send the result to the set $X$
@SteamyRoot no, orbit.
I'm not quite familiar with group action in general
so I only recognized it when you said "orbit"
although I understood perfectly when you said SO acts on R^n
09:44
@Mr.Xcoder hi
user84215
Is the projective plane a surface? If yes, why?
@MathematicsAminPhysics why do you think it is?
user84215
You think it is not?
No, I'm asking you
user84215
I can not show that it is a surface.
user84215
09:47
also can not show that it is not
Then did anyone tell you that it is a surface?
> In mathematics, the real projective plane is an example of a compact non-orientable two-dimensional manifold; in other words, a one-sided surface.
In mathematics, the real projective plane is an example of a compact non-orientable two-dimensional manifold; in other words, a one-sided surface. It cannot be embedded in standard three-dimensional space without intersecting itself. It has basic applications to geometry, since the common construction of the real projective plane is as the space of lines in R3 passing through the origin. The plane is also often described topologically, in terms of a construction based on the Möbius strip: if one could glue the (single) edge of the Möbius strip to itself in the correct direction, one would obtain...
> The projective plane can be immersed (local neighbourhoods of the source space do not have self-intersections) in 3-space. Boy's surface is an example of an immersion.
user84215
Why?
You could just start with the definition of a surface and work from there. It's not too hard to find patches that cover the projective plane
@SteamyRoot I think he wants to show that it's differentiable
That Boy's surface looks to be quite complicated. People studying differential geometry and related areas must have great visualization skills. (I admire people who are able to see something in pictures like that.)
09:52
@MartinSleziak there's a nice story behind it:
> In geometry, Boy's surface is an immersion of the real projective plane in 3-dimensional space found by Werner Boy in 1901 (he discovered it on assignment from David Hilbert to prove that the projective plane could not be immersed in 3-space).
so he proved Hilbert wrong :D
user84215
How can you do that?
@MathematicsAminPhysics do what?
user84215
I mean inserting vertical dots in your post.
> lorem ipsum dolor sit amet
> lorem ipsum dolor sit amet
It must be quite embarrassing when a Boy proves you wrong :-) I read on Wikipedia that he died relatively young.
user84215
09:55
> jbkwjbsdkjwsdkw
user84215
Thanks.
@MartinSleziak can a manifold be not differentiable?
user84215
Why is the projective plane a surface?
@MathematicsAminPhysics If you are curious how something was typed in chat, you can always look at the source of the message. Just go to the transcript, click on the arrow left to the message and click on history. You get something like this - displaying the source: chat.stackexchange.com/messages/39760565/history
user84215
Thanks.
09:58
what is a surface in the context of diff geom, surely not just anything that can be parametrised with two parameters...?
@Secret a differentiable 2-manifold
though to be honest, I know absolutely nothing in diff geom other than some examples
but apparently to me (based on my previous minutes of searching), it seems that every manifold is differentiable
and yes, I've only searched for a few minutes
Hello yall :D
Every n-manifold is locally $\Bbb{R}^n$, thus it has to be differentiable
09:59
I found the flaw in my proof from yesterday =P @LeakyNun
fixing it now :D
@KasmirKhaan nice
Bbtw how to type x'' on latex?
@MathematicsAminPhysics And you can find some basics also in chat help. If I am not mistaken, the subset of MarkDown supported in chat is basically the same as mini-markdown for comments so you might check that, too.
(x^-1 )-1
@KasmirKhaan just type literally x''
or (x^{-1})^{-1}
10:00
does x'' work?
@MartinSleziak mini-markdown does not support quotes
second one is better :D
You may want to look into what "differentiable" means with regards to manifolds first...
@SteamyRoot I think it's something you impose on a manifold if I'm not getting it wrong
@LeakyNun It depends on the definition of manifold or on the convention, doesn't it? Some people study something called topological manifolds.
10:01
^
user84215
Are you answering to my question?
so, if I'm correct, @MathematicsAminPhysics, RP2 is a surface because it is a 2-manifold and every manifold can be equipped with a differential structure.
> Differentiable manifolds, for example, are topological manifolds equipped with a differential structure.
@LeakyNun Ok, so I was not exactly right. But still I think most of the things supported in mini-markdown can also be used in chat. (So they might be occasionally useful.)
There are manifolds that do not allow any differential structure, though.
@LeakyNun Hello!
user84215
10:03
2-manifolds are surfaces?
@SteamyRoot :o for example?
@MathematicsAminPhysics for an immersion of RP2 in R^3, see Boy's surface
I think this is enough proof that RP2 can be equipped with a differentiable structure, hence a surface
No idea. The examples aren't exactly "standard" objects
What are "manifolds"?
@Mr.Xcoder n-dimensional "surfaces"
for 1-dimension it's a curve or a line or a circle
for 2-dimensions it can be the surface of a sphere or the surface of the torus
we call a line a 1-manifold
Um, interesting. i didn't know of that denomination
10:05
@Mr.Xcoder it's studied in topology
it's where people get coffin mugs and doughnuts confused
because their surfaces are the same in a topological viewpoint
(both have a hole)
Brb solving something
user84215
My question is in the context of elementary differential geometry. It does not have an elementary proof?
Just work with the definition...
If you want me to do half the work for you: use the patches $(x,y) \to (1,x,y)$, $(x,y) \to (x,1,y)$ and $(x,y) \to (x,y,1)$.
user84215
I think the projective plane is the affine plane plus the points at infinity. Right?
Yes, and the points at infinity form a projective line $\mathbb{R}P^1$, actually.
10:13
@SteamyRoot the RP2 is R^3\{0} quotient what?
user84215
then what should I do?
@MathematicsAminPhysics For the third time: work with the definition of a differentiable surface.
@MathematicsAminPhysics do you know the definition of a surface?
user84215
I think I know.
@LeakyNun You quotient by the relation $x \sim y \iff \exists \lambda \in \mathbb{R}: x = \lambda y$
10:15
@SteamyRoot oh, just like RP1
Yup, it's the same for any dimension.
and I represent (x,y,z) by (x/z,y/z,1)?
What do you mean with "represent"?
I mean, the equivalence class
phi([(x,y,z)]) = (x/z,y/z) where z is non-zero, and (x/y,infty) where z is zero but y is non-zero and (infty,infty) where y and z are zero?
Well, if $z$ is nonzero, then those elements are in the same equivalence class, yes.
Not sure if it's a good idea to use $\infty$
10:17
I thought RP2 has infinity points
Yes, but that doesn't mean using the symbol for infinity is a good idea
It's not that it "naturally" has infinity points.
then how is it usually represented?
and what is the analogue of mobius transform?
For some coordinates $x,y,z$, all points are of the form $[(x,y,z)]$
You can make a choice for what the points at infinity are, e.g. $z = 0$
oh i found a good representation
Then you can identiy all points of the form $[(x,y,1)]$ with the affine plane
10:20
S^2/~ where x~y iff x=-y or x=y
user84215
I can not understand your proof.
and $[(x,y,0)]$ become the points at infinity.
@MathematicsAminPhysics did anyone give you any proof yet?
And, since you can mod out those points by multiples again, you'll notice that it consists of the points $[(x,1,0)]$ and $[(1,0,0)]$, i.e. the projective line.
user84215
As I said, the projective plane is the affine plane plus the points at infinity.
10:21
@MathematicsAminPhysics what were you referring to when you said "your proof"?
user84215
Then you use (x,y) -> (x,y,z) patches?
user84215
Then how can you cover the points at infinity?
@LeakyNun Too similar to adnan's photo lol
And I wouldn't have picked 9 anyways... looks around
user84215
You are disappointed in me?
10:33
user image
2
user84215
That is, the image of patches can be any objects?
those are some nice memes
is there some page where i can get them
?
especially the first one!
@BAYMAX I got both from 9gag
nice
user84215
10:50
It seems that no one interested in my questions.
user84215
I think questions are not answered here; questioners are answered.
[Random]
Some random semigroup out of the blue:
$a^2=b^3$
cb=c
->
<insert suitable python code to continue>
@Secret I'm interested
I have no idea. Right now the thought process is too random. sure it has one absorber, c, and we have squares and cubes like a^2 and b^3, but I don't have other ideas on what else to add to it yet
I think I should do some chemistry in the meantime...
@MathematicsAminPhysics No, it's just that you make absolute 0 effort to understand people's answers here.
I don't see any other person complaining.
user84215
11:03
As I said, I know little mathematics.
user84215
Please assume that you are answering to a high school student.
A high school student doesn't know what RP^2, or a surface, is. In any case, what is your definition of a surface?
I think we have asked you that for multiple times.
To answer the question "why is RP^2 a surface?" we need to know how you define a surface.
@MathematicsAminPhysics whining is never the way to get more answers
It just makes you look like an attention-seeker
user84215
You want to cover the projective plane with (x,y) -> (1,x,y) , (x,1,y) , (x,y,1) patches?
Correct.
user84215
11:14
And these patches cover all the projective plane because of the definition of the projective plane as the quotient of the M^3 space?
I don't know what M^3 is; it's a quotient of the (deleted) Euclidean space R^3 - 0, yes.
Every point on RP^2 is of the form [x : y : z]
well, to be pedantic, R^3 \ {0}.
Thanks.
Here [x : y : z] represents the homogeneous coordinates; it's the equivalence class of (x, y, z) in R^3 under the identification (x, y, z) ~ ($\lambda$ x, $\lambda$ y, $\lambda $ z)
So the open sets given by $x \neq 0$, $y \neq 0$ and $z \neq 0$ cover RP^2
user84215
So we should prove that the map between any two patches is differentiable?
If say $x \neq 0$, then such a point is just of the form [x : y : z] = [1 : y/x : z/x] in homogeneous coordinates
@MathematicsA Yes, you should.
user84215
11:18
We should
I wonder what would happen if we keep 0 as its own equivalence class @BalarkaSen
@MathematicsA There's no we. You should take it as an exercise to prove it. It's a one line proof.
@LeakyNun You don't really get a manifold
user84215
I am lazy.
2
@MathematicsAminPhysics then don't learn.
@MathematicsA So why are you complaining about people not answering your questions?
11:21
@BalarkaSen let's just use S^2/~ where x~y iff x=-y or x=y :P
We are not going to do your work.
4
If you're lazy, stop asking questions and posting those shitty workshop and MSE university ideas.
Don't pretend you are an expert academician if you don't want to work.
@MathematicsAminPhysics the first time we saw you here, you were challenging us
user84215
The projective plane is equal to the the S^2 sphere with being identified its antipodal points?
@MathematicsAminPhysics yes
user84215
Why?
11:26
Hi, do you think this sentence makes sense? "Draw a line passing through $C$ such that $\measuredangle{BCD}=30^{\circ}$ where $D$ is the intersection point of $AB$ and that line."
@MathematicsAminPhysics you can easily view this from its fundamental polygon
user84215
fundamental polygon?
@MathematicsAminPhysics bfy.tw/Dgz6
user84215
That is very sophisticated for me.
@AbdullahUYU yes, but I'd say "Draw a line passing through $C$ which intersects $AB$ at $D$ such that $\measuredangle BCD = 30^\circ$"
@MathematicsAminPhysics what is?
this is the fundamental polygon of RP2
user84215
11:31
understanding fundamental polygon
aha, that's more clear @LeakyNun
@MathematicsAminPhysics I literally mentioned the patches before.
1 hour ago, by SteamyRoot
If you want me to do half the work for you: use the patches $(x,y) \to (1,x,y)$, $(x,y) \to (x,1,y)$ and $(x,y) \to (x,y,1)$.
@SteamyRoot oh, you missed this part:
14 mins ago, by MathematicsAminPhysics
I am lazy.
Context:
17 mins ago, by MathematicsAminPhysics
So we should prove that the map between any two patches is differentiable?
17 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
@MathematicsA Yes, you should.
17 mins ago, by MathematicsAminPhysics
We should
user84215
What is your goal by posting my messages?
11:36
@MathematicsAminPhysics whatever you think the goal is
user84215
Maybe people do not think good things about it.
user84215
I still can not understand why the projective plane is equal to the the S^2 sphere with being identified its antipodal points.
you just need to normalize each equivalence class in RP2
The projective plane is $\mathbb{R}^3 \setminus \{0\}$ with all multiples identified.
You could also first identify vectors equal up to a positive constant, to get $S^2$.
Or, another (more graphical) explanation: $\mathbb{R}P^2$ is the set of all lines through the origin in $\mathbb{R}^3$.
And any line through the origin intersects $S^2$ in a pair of antipodal points
@SteamyRoot RP2
11:44
Woops. Fixed.
user84215
Thanks. I have gotten it.
user84215
Do you think I will become a great mathematician?
not if you're lazy
Mathematicians are insanely lazy, but in a different way. Not in the way that we let others do our work for us.
@MathematicsAminPhysics maybe you can be a physicist instead.. oh wait they're the same
user84215
11:48
By Amin's theorem
user84215
So I will never become a mathematician?
Who knows.
If you want, then work for it.
Also, it's an unwritten rule to not name something after yourself
user84215
What do you mean by saying "to not name something after yourself"?
user84215
I have done it?
Amin, do you seriously believe that Mathematics is Physics?
user84215
11:54
I have proved it.
You say "Amin's theorem"
@MathematicsAminPhysics He was referring to you saying "Amin's theorem"
You named it after yourself.
... does this count as both of us being half-sniped ?
You need to somehow make others name things after you
user84215
I have proved it in my profile.
11:55
@SteamyRoot Not sure
(Context for other people: from Amin's profile:)
> Amin's Theorem: Mathematics = Physics .

Proof: Mathematics is more beautiful than or as beautiful as physics. Physics is more beautiful than or as beautiful as mathematics. As we know, the relation "more beautiful than or as beautiful as" is antisymmetric. Hence, Mathematics = Physics . Q.E.D
@LeakyNun Should I use that theorem on my abstract algebra homework ? :D:D:D
totally, if you want to flunk it.
@LeakyNun Almost done with the second exercice btw , shuld I send it via email?
Was just joking =p
have you done the first?
11:58
well I have fixed it
it is not 100% like you want it
let me just sedn it
alright send whatever whenever
so you see what I mean =p
Ill send you the first one now
not done yet with the second :D
one second and look ur email =p
@SteamyRoot Now, if only someone would choose to name one of my more interesting results after me, rather than one that is just a small improvement over something known.

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