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15:02
Have you heard of Lebesgue density?
You define $d(x,A) = \lim_{r\to 0} \frac{\mu(B(x,r) \cap A)}{\mu(B(x,r))}$
That's called the density of $x$ wrt $A$
Now, it's a theorem (at least for the Lebesgue measure?) that $d(x,A) = 1$ for a.e. $x\in A$
This can be proven by either Vitali or Besicovitch, I don't remember offhand but this smells more like Vitali so I'll roll with that
I mean it's basically the Lebesgue differentiation theorem for indicator functions
Question condensed in set theory room:
in Set theory, 1 min ago, by Secret
1. How does the lexicographical ordering on $2^{\Bbb{Q}}$ avoid the example illustrated in $C$ and $D$, since in $2^{\Bbb{Q}}$, we can get the sets $A,B,C,D$ as above and hence having both a infinitely increasing and a infinitely decreasing sequence hence cannot assign a consistent lexicographical order?
23 hours ago, by Leaky Nun
@Secret $C=\dfrac1{2\Bbb N+1}$ or $D=\dfrac1{2\Bbb N+2}$?
in Set theory, 14 mins ago, by Secret
in Mathematics, 22 hours ago, by Leaky Nun
2 hours ago, by Leaky Nun
@Secret $\chi_A$ or $\chi_B$ where $A=\{1,4,5,8,9,12,\cdots\}$ and $B=\{2,3,6,7,10,11,\cdots\}$?
So now, you define a set to be denjoy if it's measurable and $d(x,A) = 1$ for every $x\in A$.
15:06
So for example $d(x,A)=1$ for $x\in A$ not on the border of $A$
@Daminark no, wait, without assumptions on $A$?
Pretty sure $A$ needs to be measurable
@Daminark the normal field is not a tangent field on the manifold
well, surface
Or the density doesn't seem well defined
but yeah you have to fiddle around with the normal field
Turns out you can use the measureable hull in the non-measurable case
In fact this gives a nice characterization of measurable sets
Ok, that does work
15:10
A set is measureable iff the density of almost every point outside of it is 0
I was worried because $\mu(B_r\cap A)$ doesn't work if $A$ isn't measurable
If $A \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ (bounded) and $x \notin A$ how can I prove $d(x,A)$ is bounded?
Yeah I sorta made the jump without saying what it would entail, sorry
I was trying to use the definition but I got stuck
$d(x,A) = \sup_{y\in A} d(x,y)$
Is there anyone that have a solution to this gogeometry problem ? gogeometry.com/problem/problem002.htm
15:12
(by the way... $d$ is any metric...)
But yeah if you take a closed set, you lose the boundary. Measure zero so that doesn't fuck up the theorem, but it fails to be Denjoy
sorry it was
Ok, so how do we get a topology?
$d(x,A) = \inf_{y\in A} d(x,y)$
So the set of Denjoy sets forms a topology
15:14
(Why are they called denjoy?)
The guy who created it I guess
It's been abbreviated d-topology, which many interpreted as density topology, so both names are used
Oh. Derp. Makes sense
@user8469759 let $A \subseteq B(0,r)$ with $r > 0$. Then, $d(x,A) < d(x,0) + d(0,A) = \|x\| + r$
Hmm, that surely looks like a good candidate for a topology whise Borel $\sigma$-algebra is the Lebesgue one
I'll think about it
But yeah in any event, the sneaky part of that is proving that an arbitrary union of Denjoy sets is measureable
But that ends up working
Actually wait yeah this definitely is it, I did a problem which proved this fact, among others
So, any open sets in the Euclidean topology are Denjoy
15:18
@LeakyNun ok
That's clear. Now, the thing is, if you take a Denjoy set and kill off a null set, it's still Denjoy
@Daminark sure
Right
So, we know that any Lebesgue measureable set is a G_delta set minus a null set, right?
Ohhhhh, wait. I'm sure I read something about the topology with sets $A\setminus \Delta$ where $\Delta$ is measure zero
I think it was a set theoretic topology book
@Daminark i have no idea how to prove that, but I know it's true :P
It's true since Lebesgue measure is Radon, I think
Or really that it's outer regular
In any event, you know this is true
15:22
@LeakyNun so you take a set such that $A$ is a subset
and you bound the distance
So, our measureable set $A$ can be expressed as $(G_1 \cap \ldots)\setminus N$
@user8469759 the definition of "$A$ is bounded" is that there is $r>0$ with $A \subseteq B(0,r)$.
Well, write that as $(G_1\setminus N) \cap \ldots$
So it's a countable intersection of (open minus null) sets, which are Denjoy
So any Lebesgue measureable set is a G_delta set in the Denjoy topology
Nice
Doesn't the Denjoy $\sigma$-algebra ends up being bigger than the Lebesgue one though?
15:26
Nope, Denjoy sets are all measurable
Oh, it's already 17:30, sorry but I have to run, I'll be back later
@Daminark oh, right
So we're done. Borel in Denjoy iff measurable
Does an order-preserving map exist between every two total orderings defined on the same set?
It seem to work, but I'll spend some time thinking about it since there are a few things I'm not familiar with going on
@LeakyNun no, pick a bounded and an unbounded one
Or reorder $\Bbb N$ to be like $\Bbb Q$
@AlessandroCodenotti thanks
15:29
Yeah for sure. Also note the Denjoy topology is weird
(The bounded/unbounded one doesn't work btw, nevermind)
That of R^2 is not the product of Denjoy topologies on R, for example
Even though the Lebesgue measure on $\Bbb R^2$ is the product measure of those on $\Bbb R$, weird
Ok, I really have to go, bye!
Aight, see you!
in Set theory, 2 mins ago, by Secret
Ok, using the above logic on $2^{\Bbb{Q}}$, I think $2^{\Bbb{R}^+}$ has no lexicographical ordering makes sense now, but is it possible for $2^{\Bbb{R}^+}$ to have an explicit dense linear order under ZF, or it is not provable since dense linear order is strickly weaker than the axiom of choice?
O and one more thing, I don't want an ordinal as an answer, cause I want to know whether such sets must be isomorphic with some subset of the surreals and thus I need that not well orderable condition
Or in summary, my question is:
> Is there an explicit, dense linear order, non-well ordered on a set $S$ with $|S| > \aleph_1$ under GCH without AC (i.e. using ZF). If so, must they all be isomorphic to some subset of the surreals?
non well ordered means it cannot be an ordinal,thus $\omega_2$ (or any possible unions involving it) is out
15:39
@Secret $X\times\Bbb Q$ lexicographically
$\omega_2$ preceded by an inverted copy of $\omega_2$?
@AkivaWeinberger $X$ being?
Ah, wait, you wanted a dense order, nevermind
I still think my suggestion from yesterday could work. Start with $\omega_2$, for every element insert a new element between it and its successor, call the resulting set $A_1$. Between every element of $A_1$ and its successor insert a new one, call the resulting set $A_2$ , iterate countably many times
(This could mess up the cardinality without AC though since countable unions can be weird without choice)
How to prove that $|\kappa \times \Bbb N| = |\Bbb N|$ where $|\kappa| > |\Bbb N|$?
@MartinSleziak you might have some references
@LeakyNun That seems like it should be false. Take $\kappa$ to be the real numbers, for instance.
15:49
@AlessandroCodenotti Hmm interesting, never thought of filling in the gaps of $\omega_2$ that way. I can see how it is dense since x < y implies exists z, x< z < y. Now that makes me wonder will doing the same thing with $\omega_1$ will give something isomorphic to $\Bbb{R}^+$ since both of these sets have a minimum but no maximum (since $\{\omega_{\alpha}\}$ itself is not included in the set $\omega_{\alpha}$ and they both have dense linear order tht can be potentially mapped order preserivingly into each other)
@Semiclassical oops, I meant $|\kappa|$, not $|\Bbb N|$
Ahhh.
That seems more plausible :)
Maybe one can show an injection from each set into the other?
@Semiclassical I think this needs to be proved using ordinals
ah. have fun with that, then :)
@Semiclassical well, if you can prove it without using ordinals, I'm all ears.
15:51
nah, you're probably right.
Though, you at least have $\kappa \subset \kappa\times \mathbb{N}$.
So if one can show that $\kappa\times \mathbb{N}\subset \kappa$, then you're done.
(I suspect I'm saying that a bit wrong, but I can't remember the right terminology.)
@Secret Anything
Hi.
if $c = \displaystyle\frac{a + b}{ab - 1}$ with $a, \, b \in \mathbb{N}$, must $c$ be in $\mathbb{N}$?
I think it can be in $\mathbb{Q}$.
@Topologicalife Have you done any examples? That's the very first thing you should do, since if you come across a counterexample you're already done.
Currently thinking about an unrelated question:
Apr 14 at 12:19, by Secret
A set $S$ is dense if $\forall x,y\in S, x<y, \exists z\in S, x<z<y$?
Apr 14 at 12:20, by DHMO
that is a necessary but not sufficient condition, but go on
Apr 14 at 15:05, by Akiva Weinberger
@SBM A set is dense if every real number can be written as the limit of a sequence of things in your set
Apr 14 at 15:07, by Akiva Weinberger
@SBM So another way of defining dense is: A set is dense if every open interval contains something in your set.
oh I forgot the condition it can not be the case $a = b = 1$
16:01
Under construction: A set that obeys the necessary condition for density in a linearly order set but violates the sufficient condition
this will mean I will need some isolated points somewhere "zooming countably down"
I.e: $a$ and $b$ can not be equal to 1 at the same time
Well, sure. The expression doesn't make sense otherwise. But that doesn't change my point.
Have you tested this expression for any examples?
Such as?
@Secret Those are two different notions of denseness
16:02
for example, $a=10$ and $b=40$.
One applies to linear orders and is intrinsic, the other applies to topological subspaces and is extrinsic
wait so if I can always find a z sandwiched between any x,y in a linear order then it is automatically dense?
Okay. That gives $c=50/399$. Is that integer?
you just need one counterexample to show it's not always true, top
@Secret Yeah
16:04
I see
No. I am looking for the conditions which make $c \in \mathbb{N}$
That's not what you asked.
You can easily find subsets of $\Bbb R$ that are dense in terms of the linear order definition but not by the topological subspace definition
Yeah, now that is my next task once I understand my last question.
$\Bbb Q\cap(0,1)$ for example
16:04
Okay.
I had the last question because if c is in N, then we must have a + b > ab - 1
or the Cantor set minus the endpoints of the deleted intervals
(The "pseudointerior," I want to call it)
One obvious way to get an example is to choose the denominator such that $ab-1=1$. Not a lot of ways to do that, though.
(I'm not aware of any actual name)
they could be equal, doesnt have to be $>$
16:05
@AkivaWeinberger for this example, is it because the subspace topology misses the limit points 0 and 1?
@Secret No, it's 'cause you can't approximate $2$.
Should be $a+b \geq ab - 1$.
but I don't see if that condition is enough, because we could have an irrational number... right?
that's necessary, but not sufficient
well there's no way it can be irrational. what's the definition of an irrational number?
It might be worth looking for examples. Simplest possible example has $a+b=ab-1$. Next is $a+b=2(ab-1)$, and so forth.
16:07
or rather, whats the definition of rational?
This questions come from the problem 'Find all positive integers $a$,$b$,$c$ different than zero such that $a+b+c = abc$
Sorry
I meant rational!
and then $c$ is the solution to that, gotcha.
16:09
if $a=b=1$ you'd have $c+2=c$ which never works, and that justifies ignoring this case.
Yeah, I got that. That is why I said it earlier.
hmm, need to be checked later whether alessandro's example will be isomorphic to some subset of the surreals. The best way to check that is to see if there are infitesimal elements. If not, then we have a nice example of a $\aleph_2$ line that behave as similar to the reals as possible
Now to get back to chemistry
But I don't know how to justify $c$ is not rational.
$c$ will always be rational
But $c$ must be a positive integer.
16:10
integers are rational, so you mean to say that $c$ is a positive integer
The question isn't whether $c$ is rational, but whether it's a positive integer.
$c=\frac{a+b}{ab-1}$, that's an integer divided by an integer
[Unrelated] I think one way to draw $\Bbb{R} \backslash \Bbb{Q} \cap (0,1)$ is many layers of points, and then a description saying that every point is of measure 1
That's the definition of rational
@AkivaWeinberger eh, could have $ab=2$.
16:11
@Semiclassical So? Integers are rational
For example, if $c = \dfrac{2}{3}$ then $c\in\mathbb{Q}$ but $c \notin \mathbb{N}$
sure. just saying that it can further be a positive integer.
not sure there's any cases beyond (a,b,c)=(1,2,3) (up to permutation) though.
So it can be $\frac{1+2}{(1)(2)-1}=3$
You want to find all possible integer solutions?
I got the solution $a=1, b=2, c=3$
He does.
16:12
wolfram alpha doesnt list solutions other than those semi
I mean $a+b<ab-1$ almost always
and I proved there aren't other solution that this one.
how did you prove that?
If so, then you're done.
16:13
But what I want is to justify $c$ is a positive integer without to prove there aren't more solutions
$c$ is rational, integers are rational
i.e: starting from $a+b \geq ab -1$.
If you haven't proven that, then you're not done.
Wait. yes, $c$ is necessarily at least rational.
corrected :P
I proved it, but I want to find another way!!
It seems ugly to me.
but isn't the whole problem assuming $c > 0$ is an integer? you dont have to prove it, its part of the problem
16:15
hmm.
Substitute $a'=a-1$, $b'=b-1$ maybe
well, you can assume $c>b$, $b\geq 2$, $a\geq 1$ without loss of generality.
I'm not sure what you're trying to show topo
Heh, $a+b\ge ab-1$ is equivalent to $2\ge(a-1)(b-1)$
That's nice
oh, that's very nice.
16:17
I proved that was the only solution studying the relation $\tan \alpha + \tan \beta + \tan \gamma = \tan \alpha \tan \beta \tan \gamma$
There is only and only one triangle satisfing that relation.
well that's the same problem, because the image of $\tan$ is all of $\mathbb R$
@akiva Okay, here's my stab at it. assume wlog that $a>b>c$ is such a solution. since $c$ is a positive integer, $a>b>1$
but then $2\geq (a-1)(b-1)$ is only fulfilled for $a=3,b=2$.
So otherwise one has $a+b<ab-1$ and therefore $c=\frac{a+b}{ab-1}<1$ is not a positive integer.
Oh got it.
nice semi
good find Akiva
16:20
(the second line is a bit weakly put. better is: since $b-1\geq 1$, $(a-1)(b-1)\geq a-1\geq 2$ with equality only when $b=2$ and $a=3$.)
Oh lol, I just proved it in another way, but a similar one
I studied $s_n = \left\{\displaystyle\frac{a+1}{a-1}\right\}_{a\geq{}2}$
I got that sequence because $a + b\geq{}ab - 1\;\Rightarrow{}\, b\leq{\displaystyle\frac{a+1}{a-1}}$
Oh and $\dfrac{a+1}{a-1}=1+\displaystyle\frac{2}{a-1}$
Thanks guys!
my hunch is that there's a way to do it with modular arithmetic
I realised that my physics simulation was incorrect, because I was assuming that between my time intervals, gravitational acceleration was constant, when it is infact proportional to seperation
consider $\dfrac{a+b \pmod 2}{ab-1 \pmod 2}$ and $\dfrac{a+b \pmod 3}{ab-1 \pmod 3}$, maybe
16:24
could I fix this by integrating the graph of acceleration against time
and using the area as change in velocity
acceleration is the change in velocity
You're attacking Thomae's function with lasers.
how aggressive
16:40
Basically shows how impossibble is to mark all irrational limit points of the Thomae function
(without filling in the whole screen with red)
I can kinda see how they can blow up to $\aleph_1$ now by using some intuition gained from the cantor set:
Recall that cantor set has ternary expansion 0.bbbbbbbbbbbbbbb.... where b = 0 or 2
The trick is that at any level of how this expansion is truncated, you can vary the last digit by 0 or 2. Thus one can imagine after countably many places (which will obviously not exhaust it), changing 0 to 2 effectively produces a "infintesimal" change to the overall value relative to e.g. 0.bbbb
and this is where all the irrational points bunch up to result in a measure = 1
So, for the irrationals, it is basically "cantor set on steroids", where said points which this bunching occurs is everywhere in the interval. Thomae's functon then give us an impression where these "points" are
It's nice that Thomae's function is Riemann integrable
The validity of my claim may be if a proof actually showed all points of the reals are condensation points of the rationals under the subspace topology I guess...
> In mathematics, a condensation point p of a subset S of a topological space, is any point p, such that every open neighborhood of p contains uncountably many points of S.
I believe every point in the Cantor set is a condensation point of the Cantor set
Now here's something more challenging: Come up with a set with exactly one accumulation point and one condensation point.

-> I imagine that will give nice illustrations on what these points look like
16:58
I forget what accumulation point means
You've been thinking about point-set topology, then?
yeah, it is common for me to drift into that from infinite set, especially how I love to focus on pathological examples where nice things such as haseudoff T1 etc. don't apply
In fact, getting used to point set topology in the most extreme cases will help me deal with the nicer cases as the intuition gain there is easily applied back to the nice cases
Do you own the book Counterexamples in Topology?
IIRC it's published by Dover books and thus cheap
(even though because of my chemistry phD I cannto continue on munkres yet)
(I think might have purchase an e book of it somewhere in my folder, need to check again)
I wonder if it's OK to write $\overline{1/\Bbb N}$ for $\{0\}\cup\{1,1/2,1/3,\dots\}$
(Ah, I had not bought it yet, but will as I continue through munkres after the master code is get to work)
I do like to play with the long line though
17:04
@AkivaWeinberger your $\Bbb N$ does not include $0$?
@LeakyNun I usually include zero but in this case I guess I can't
@AkivaWeinberger por favor
(How would you translate "please" to Spanish?)
Por favor, yes
@AkivaWeinberger I mean, the other usage of "please"
I'm not sure I know what you mean
SpanishDict includes "por Dios"
There's this great function defined by Shifrin in his book
on $[0,1]\times[0,1]$, such that the integral over the square doesn't exist but both iterated integrals do
17:11
hmm, that's interesting, so clearly fubini's theorem fail, but how does it fail
Specifically, on each horizontal slice ($\{x\}\times[0,1]$) or vertical slice ($[0,1]\times\{y\}$), the function is $0$ everywhere except for finitely many points, where it equals $1$.
I really feel I have to say something now. Are Fourier series an efficient enough way to describe/approximate the sign function in this formula:
$$14.13472514173469...=\int _0^{16}\frac{1}{2} \left(1-\text{sgn}\left(\frac{\vartheta (t)+\Im\left(\log \left(\zeta \left(i t+\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)\right)}{\pi }-n+\frac{3}{2}\right)\right)dt$$?
So both iterated integrals equal $0$. However, the places where it equals $1$ are dense, making the Riemann integral over the entire square fail to exist.
so it blew up near those dense points?
No, it's like
You know how $\begin{cases}1,&x\in\Bbb Q\\0,&x\notin\Bbb Q\end{cases}$ isn't Riemann-integrable
17:13
yup
because all lower Riemann sums are $0$ and all upper Riemann sums are $1$
It's like that
ah, discontinuity of riemanian sums
He constructs it slightly differently than I would, I guess
I would do it based on the dyadic rationals
Easier to draw
so those dense points must be nonintegrable singularities
@AkivaWeinberger which book?
17:15
@MatsGranvik Is that… the imaginary part of the first nontrivial root of the zeta function?
@AkivaWeinberger yes
Ah, wait, it's a Riemann integral, it's alright
@AlessandroCodenotti Multivariable
@AlessandroCodenotti Yeah I'm sure Lebesgue clears this all up easily
In fact in this case it definitely does
The Lebesgue integral would exist and equal 0
It's at page 269 if you have it
Hmm, I wonder if @Waiting has a nice series representation of the above integral. surely will be something relevant to her work as she deals with zetas and logs frequently
@AkivaWeinberger thanks, I'll look it up
17:21
@Secret To me, @Waiting is the world's leading expert on limits, series, and integrals. =D
Waiting is proficient in exploring the series representation side of integrals, something that few mathematicians in the literature explores
While I have yet to learn her intuition on series except a few log and zeta manipulations, I believe it will soon come to me as I continue the Integral Project
My limit skills might improve as I delve deeper into general topology
as open sets will allow me to visualise the paths that is used to approach a limit point, no matter the cardinality
It is amazing how Waiting's mind works. She is really a genius.
In contrast, I am only a banana.
I wish to learn more about her thinking and worldview, but I need to wait
World view? What do you mean @Secret?
Every person has their own set (class?) of history, background, belief systems, bias, community, environment etc. All of these shapes their way of interacting with reality
This is what I call a worldview, it is unique to each individual
17:28
I see. I believe I have talked about my world views a lot in this room over the past 5 years, under my 10 deleted accounts or so.
For example, my past of being bullied at high school and the desire to make bullies shut up forever lead me to invent the proof writing technique of nuking proofs
and my passion for the weirdness means I am not afraid to play directly with pathological examples, which most people will avoid in normal circumstances
My constant note taking on nearly all my experience might have allow me to be self conscious to some extent
and so on the list goes...
By the way, what is your secret?
Well, one reason I pick this username is because I like secrets and I like to uncover secrets and discover things
My purpose of life is to unlock the mystery of nature
and idea mixing is one of the most powerful tool in my arsenal
I see. I was thinking maybe your name is Victoria.
everybody love to make that joke, lol
17:31
Well, I still don't know who Victoria is and what her secret is.
> Saying: everything will be clear in time...
Who knows? Maybe Waiting is Victoria and her secret lies in her integrals.
I have so far invented many things in this chat, but they are all scattered thus chat crawling with put them all back into place
[Random] Name idea for a limit point that has "proper class number of points" in its neighbourhood

But first, we need to learn some class topology
[Random]
It is known that symbolic integration is hard while symbolic differentiation is easy, whereas the revese happens for numerical. Wondering whether there is a middle point for this scenario
17:51
Written in this form, for $n=1$, the integral is at least solvable through power series expansion of the Fourier series for the sign and floor function:
$$14.1347251417346937904572\text{...}=\int _0^{16}\frac{1}{2} \left(1-\text{sgn}\left(\left(\left\lfloor \frac{\vartheta (t)}{\pi }+1\right\rfloor +\frac{1}{2} \left(-1+\text{sgn}\left(\Im\left(\zeta \left(i t+\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)\right)\right)\right)-n+\frac{3}{2}\right)\right)dt$$
by repeated integration by parts, but the convergence of the symbolic solution to the integral is probably not great.
Or I believe it is solvable, since there is no function in the denominator of the power series for the Fourier series. I have not tested it in Mathematica yet.
18:41
Anything's a verb if you verb it
@AkivaWeinberger like?
That said, I'm slightly disappointed that "phoning someone" does not mean "hitting someone in the face with a phone"
@AkivaWeinberger I would call that phone-slapping someone :P
@LeakyNun He just verbed "verb".
This reminds me of Classical Chinese where words are often turned into other parts of speech
18:45
[Super random]
Determine the limit points of the class of all possible worldviews
@AkivaWeinberger how would you say "Abracadabra" in Modern Hebrew? (It's suspected to be Aramaic/Hebrew in origin)
b-r-' / k / d-b-r
[random meta]
The probability of nonsensical of [random] depends on its "prefix"
it has the following ordering:
@LeakyNun Transliterate it
'' < 'super' < 'ultra' < ...
אַבְּרָקָדַבְּרָה or אַבְּרָקָדַבְּרָא
18:48
@AkivaWeinberger אברא כ דברא?
@AkivaWeinberger it's supposed to be k not q
Yeah but when foreign works are transliterated into Modern Hebrew, you usually use the letter quf for the k sound
They're pronounced identically anyway
@AkivaWeinberger no, I'm not asking for the transliteration
2 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
b-r-' / k / d-b-r
b-r-' is to create
k is as
d-b-r is to speak
I took it from here he.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
They just have it as the transliteration
They list the Aramaic "אברא כדברא" as a possible origin of the phrase
@AkivaWeinberger yes, and I'm interested in how you would say it in Hebrew
using the given roots above
From the same Wikipedia article, they translate that Aramaic phrase as "שיברא כדבריי"
"Sheyibra kedvarai", I think
18:52
so you guys don't use the word b-r-'?
What? Sheyibra has the root b-r-'
She- means "that", yibra is future tense third person of b-r-'
I see
I thought you have a word with a single k
@AkivaWeinberger never mind, I must have mixed it with ki (k-y)
what does כדבריי mean?
"Like my words" I think
Or rather
Hm, I'm not sure

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