Consider the theory Q, which is made by starting with Peano arithmetic, and then, whenever Q proves a statement S, adding the statement "PA + S is consistent" to Q.
We can define Q0 = PA, then Q1 = Q0 plus "PA is consistent with S" for all statements S proved by Q0, then Q2 = Q1 + "PA is consistent with S" for all statements S proved by Q1, and so on.
Then Qn is defined for all natural numbers n. Q itself is just the union of all of these.
Let's see. There's a computer program which enumerates all of the statements Q proves. So the consistency of Q is equivalent to the statement that this computer program never outputs "0 = 1".
Right? That makes "Q is consistent" an arithmetic statement.
So lemme pivot a bit. Really, there are only two things I don't like about PA. The minor problem is that it doesn't prove Goodstein's theorem, but I don't care that much about Goodstein's theorem.
The major problem is that it doesn't allow you to talk about infinite sets.
I did a Google search to try to find out if there's a set theory which is a conservative extension of PA.
The good news is, apparently there is. "ALPO", defined by H Friedman, 1980.
The bad news is, I haven't yet found a freely accessible description of ALPO.
If the straight line through the point $P(3,4)$ makes an angle $\dfrac{\pi}{6}$ with the $x$ axis and meets the line $12x +5y + 10=0$ at Q, find the length of PQ.
My method:
Equation of the given line is;
$y- \sqrt3x+3\sqrt3-4=0$ // using Point slope form.
Now, solving the simultaneous ...
@Secret Let's say I define an order in the infinite subsets of $\Bbb N$ as such: Let i=0. If i is in A but not in B, then A<B. If i is in B but not in A, then B<A. Otherwise, increment i by 1 and repeat.
Formally, $A < B \iff \operatorname{min}((A \setminus B) \cup (B \setminus A)) \in A$
@LeakyNun for total order, still checking. For well order, guess not as one can pick infinite subsets forming a chain where the next element in the chain has more elements than the previous hence smaller and thus can form an indefinitely decreasing sequence. The same thing can be said in the other direction by building an increasing chain starting from any infinite proper subset that has no finite support
So one can make chains that go infinitely up or down starting at any proper subset with no finite support, hence there cannot be a well order
Concrete examples: Indefinite decreasing chain, start from $2\Bbb{N}$, and then for the next members, continue to union sets of multiples of prime $p\Bbb{N}$
Indefinite increasing chain. Start with $2\Bbb{N} \cup \{1,6,5,8,90,3,4,7,...\}$, and construct the next element by throwing away one element at a time
Hey guys. I'm putting together an experiment with two artificial sweeteners (acesulfame potassium and sucralose). Ace-K is supposedly 200 times the sweetness of sugar, sucralose is supposedly 600 times the sweetness of sugar. I'm just about done putting the experiment together on paper, but I suspect I'm going to need a sanity check on the math. Is this a good place to get feedback about such an issue?
Quick sanity check, if $X$ and $Y$ are two smooth manifolds, with $\dim(X) = m < \dim(Y) = n$ the inclusion map isn't an immersion right? Because $i : X \to Y$ defined by $i(x) =x$, has derivative at a point $a \in X$ of $di_a(x) = 1$, and hence $T_a(Y)$ is the span of the identity matrix which is just $\mathbb{R}^n$. But because $di_a(x)$ maps all $x \in \mathbb{R}^m$ to the identity in $\mathbb{R}^n$, $i$ is not an immersion, correct?
It's that the maps $df_x$ are injective linear maps
But then even in your case, you need to keep in mind that $df_x$ is a map from $T_x(X)$, which may differ for each case even if though they're isomorphic
Okay, so in the example I gave above, the immersion $i$ is trivially injective since $di_a$ is the identity matrix $\left(\frac{I_m}{0}\right)$ and maps $T_a(X)$ into $T_a(Y)$
@LeakyNun I'm not 100% sure but iirc it's consistent with $\sf ZF$ that the only well-orderable subsets of $\mathcal P(\Bbb N)$ are countable since it's consistent that $\omega_1$ doesn't inject into $\mathcal P(\omega)$
I frequent the SE chat rooms quite a bit and noticed that in room 36, the main room for Math SE, the blue colour used to highlight your own messages is a bit too light, to the point where it is almost invisible, at least for myself. In contrast, the orange used to highlight pings to you is very b...
@AlessandroCodenotti I mean I guess but like... I dunno it just seems like so many things which are absolute nonsense become legal when you drop choice
$\sf AC$ is interesting because there are a lot of weird consequences, but I find equally interesting to know that, say, $\sf ZF$-$\sf P$ can't prove that there is an uncountable set
Until then I'm just gonna religiously go with AC because a world without it sounds horrible. I'd sooner drop infinite sets, and I refuse to drop infinite sets
Right, that was the point. It appears the math theme is the issue. My take would be that the gray of the other messages should be more white-ish as it's on various other sites, but that's a detail.
if you have a characteristic polynomail $(x-4)^4$ of a $4 \times 4$ matrix, and your Jordan blocks of a diagonalised form are of the length 1 and 3, does it true, that your minimal polynomial is $(x-3)^3$?
@Daminark I think it was great, but I am aware of too positive feedback.
@Daminark I've still mulled the transformation matrix in the Jordan basis, but ok
the only thing I am really interested in: "is that true, that for $A,B \in \mathbb{C}^{n \times n}: (A-\lambda I_n)^n=0 \Rightarrow \lambda=1$ is the only existing eigenvalue"?
Suppose $X \subseteq \mathbb{R}^k$ and $Y \subseteq \mathbb{R}^l$ are two smooth manifolds, with $\dim(X) = m < \dim(Y) = n$ is the inclusion map an immersion (where $X$ is a submanifold of $Y$)?
My Attempted Proof:
The inclusion map $i : X \to Y$ defined by $i(x) = x$, has derivative at a poin...
How can I show the derivative has the form I claimed rigorously? The answer hinted at codeminsion, but couldn't it be done in a much simpler way?
Also I don't want to use the theorem that every embedding is an immersion as Balarka mentioned earlier, because I sort of wanted to prove this 'by hand' (if that makes sense)