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11:01
@LeakyNun ok, that is again not the purpose of that text :) sure, you can do things different ways, but if you exercise, you limit yourself on some technique, as if there were not any other technique.
Any ideas about that?
@Kirill about what?
6 mins ago, by Kirill
I don' understand. The text says, "we can interprete $\frac{1}{1-\gamma_ix}$ as the geometric series $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(\gamma_ix)^n$". But we can do that only if $\gamma_ix < 1$, and for $\gamma_i$ being $\frac{1+ \sqrt{5}}{2}$ that is not the case. On the other hand, we are looking at the formal power series . That means, we are not interested in the convergence, but at the same time we took the limit of this series for our calculations. Is that not cheating, at all?
3 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@Kirill that's just not rigorous, lol
not rigorous in what sense? I would say it is all wrong what is written there. But, if the text says that is ok, so maybe I should understand why the expression in the form of the geometric series is possible.
I know only the limit $\frac{1}{1-q}$, if $q<1, \sum q^n$
@Kirill It is ok within the radius of convergence
we are not interested in the value of $x$
11:06
@LeakyNun like, "you can find some $x$ that that is true"?
@Kirill yes
ok, that's not fair
@Kirill no, that's just not rigorous
we are not trying to find $x$.
it works for an interval
@LeakyNun it is hard for me to imagine some interval, if we still think about the Fibonacci sequence. Where is an interval in the FIbonacci sequence?
2 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
we are not trying to find $x$.
Oh, I understand the partial fraction method now :D
The sequence is not in $x$. The sequence is in the coefficients.
11:10
still, "intervall for a sequence" doesn't make sense.
@Kirill I mean it works when $x$ is in some interval
Huy
Huy
wtf
e.g. $-1 < x < 1 \implies \dfrac1{1-x} = 1+x+x^2+\cdots$
@LeakyNun I think I've understood the partial thing for $x^2$, but for $x^5$ one should play with powers of $x$ or gammas somehow...
@Huy what
@Kirill where do you see $x^5$?
11:14
if you want to decompose $\frac{x}{1-x-x^2}$ in $\frac{b_1}{1-c_1x}$ and $\frac{b_2}{1-c_2x}$ that it's ok. But if you want to decompose $\frac{x}{x^5-x^4-x^3-x^2-x+1}$, those fractions are wrong.
@Kirill lol
good luck
but other methods would also face the same problem
you essentially need to solve a quintic equation
Huy
Huy
easy
0
Q: Cartesian Tensor Notation

jyotishraj thoudamI have a problem in proving a problem, which is easy to do in basic multivariable calculus but I couldn't do it in tensor notation. Please help $$\nabla.(r^n \vec{r})=(n+3)r^n$$ Here $r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}$ is the magnitude of the position vector $\vec{r}=xi+yj+zk$. I tried representing(i don't ...

@LeakyNun that was just an illustration for that, that I understand the partial fraction thing for a degree $\le 2$. Do not ask me to decompose it for other degress.
@Kirill other methods would also need to solve a similar equation
including the matrix method
so I don't get your complaint
11:19
hi
can someone please answer my question?
@LeakyNun not a complaint! I just underline that my knowledge of partial decompositions is limited, e.g. there is a constant $C$, such that knowledge $\le C$ for the whole knowledge. And, $C=2$ here.
Hi all. Plz vote to reopen this ...
i closed it myself but now it is edited !
0
Q: The sequence A126022 : $a_{n+1} = a_n + \lfloor a^{-1}(n+1) \rfloor $

mickConsider the sequence A126022 at OEIS http://oeis.org/A126022 $$ 1,2,4,7,10,13,17,21,25,30, ... $$ We start with $a_1 = a(1) = 1$. $a_n = a(n)$ and $^{-1}$ means functional inverse. ( check the link If you are confused , Leroy explains it more clearly ) If this self-reference reminds you of...

Huy
Huy
@Kirill: no. you can also solve cubics. and if you're lucky, sometimes also higher order degree.
And answer too :)
@Kirill are you asking a question or what
11:23
lets try
Who downvoted ? It is a Nice question imho
@mick it's still unclear
I upvoted yours @mick
and the description in the OEIS is much better than yours
@LeakyNun does the Schurs' complement of $D$ in a block matrix $\begin{pmatrix}A & B \\ C & D\end{pmatrix}$ exists every time, if $D$ invertable?
11:26
Thanks @jyotishrajthoudam
Yes ar the Oeis it is better , like I Said and therefore the link
How do I turn this $x_mx_m(x_ix_i)^{\frac{n}{2}-1}$ into $(x_ix_i)^{\frac{n}{2}}$
Using tensor properties
@jyotishrajthoudam First, you need to tell us what the symbols mean
-1
Q: Cartesian Tensor Notation

jyotishraj thoudamI have a problem in proving a problem, which is easy to do in basic multivariable calculus but I couldn't do it in tensor notation. Please help $$\nabla.(r^n \vec{r})=(n+3)r^n$$ Here $r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}$ is the magnitude of the position vector $\vec{r}=xi+yj+zk$. I tried representing(i don't ...

@TobiasKildetoft
(don't know Schur, but I like the formula $\det(X) = \det(D)\cdot \det(A-BD^{-1}C)$
@TobiasKildetoft can you please resolve my issue on the problem i posted
11:31
@jyotishrajthoudam None of that notation looks familiar to me. I keep forgetting that "tensor" is often used in a way that is practically unrecognizable from the term as I know it (i.e. in tensor products).
@TobiasKildetoft ok thanks for your effort
Huy
Huy
@jyotishrajthoudam rename $m = i$ and you're done
@Huy :)
@Huy But that would violate the rule
Since I cannot have more than 2 repeated index
Huy
Huy
yes, that's why they are distinct
but they mean the same thing
$x_i x_i$ = $x_m x_m$
11:35
@Huy
Huy
Huy
what does it matter whether you write $r^2 = x_i x_i$ or $r^2 = x_m x_m$
i is farther from m in the keyboard
Huy
Huy
I think you mean from x
nah, farther from my fingers not from the TAB key lol
Huy
Huy
wat
just place your hand properly on the keyboard and win
11:37
i know its essentially the same
@BalarkaSen something can't just be farther from something else. You need a frame of reference
ok, that was good.
can't top that one
but put m=1 and i=2
Huy
Huy
????????????????????????????
@TobiasKildetoft yes, the point is, the frame of reference were my fingers placed in the standard way
Huy
Huy
11:38
@jyotishrajthoudam THAT would "violate the rule"
@BalarkaSen So i is farther from m than your fingers?
mhm
d(my fingers, i) > d(my fingers, m)
Or did you mean that i is further away than m?
then according to summation convention if we expand the term $x_mx_m(x_ix_i)^{\frac{n}{2}-1}$ it would be diiferent from $(x_ix_i)^{\frac{n}{2}}$
Huy
Huy
m and i are indices, not variables
11:39
@TobiasKildetoft Oh, the latter. Didn't notice your parsing there.
Huy
Huy
and you said it: you use them for a sum
what the fuck is going on. I'm asking a perfectly valid question & making fun of me nice
ok, so the latter (btw, I am uncertain of whether the word "farther" is really correct, since I recall Tolkien going on about the fact that he used it whatever people said)
Yes indices following the levi-Cevita summation convention
Huy
Huy
have you ever seen Levi-Civita set $i = 2$ but $m = 1$ in the same equation?
11:41
In tensor Notation, $x_m$ is a vector
And $x_mx_i$ is a second order tensor
Huy
Huy
so?
if $x_i x_i = r^2$, then $x_m x_m = r^2$ too
it's a number
forget tensors
Ok I made the final edit now.
Plz vote reopen
Also upvote and answer :)
Huy
Huy
Plz send money :)
3
@mick Also provide us with some idea of what you are talking about.
11:44
In the year 3000
0
Q: The sequence A126022 : $a_{n+1} = a_n + \lfloor a^{-1}(n+1) \rfloor $

mickConsider the sequence A126022 at OEIS http://oeis.org/A126022 $$ 1,2,4,7,10,13,17,21,25,30, ... $$ We start with $a_1 = a(1) = 1$. $a_n = a(n)$ and $^{-1}$ means functional inverse. By $\lfloor a^{-1}(n+1) \rfloor$ we mean $\max K $ such that $a_K = a(K) $ and $a_K = n+1 $ or $a_K < n+1$. (...

Man now I realize how much I miss these Huy jokes
Huy
Huy
<3
That is What I talk about
How does 1 in $R[[x]]$ look like?
Huy
Huy
@Kirill: 1
@BalarkaSen: come to high school in Switzerland, then you have to hear my jokes every day.
11:46
nope, thats not the notation for $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_nx^n$, @Huy
Huy
Huy
@Kirill: yes, it is, if $a_0 = 1$ and all other $a_j = 0$
@Kirill how is $1$ not such an element?
@Huy I wish I could.
On the positive note I'll get kicked out of school next year
Huy
Huy
I wish I could kick pupils out of school
@TobiasKildetoft I mean: 1 in $\mathbb{Z}$ is 1, 1 in $\mathbb{Z}^{2 \times 2}$ is $\begin{pmatrix} 1&0\\0&1\end{pmatrix}$. That's formally not the same.
Huy
Huy
11:49
@Kirill: but this time it is formally the same
you can, it's just a much more physical process than Balarka is thinking of
@Kirill Notationally, $1$ means the unit everywhere
Huy
Huy
welcome back Mike
@MikeMiller BalarkaSen Said you might know Hodge theory.
@Kirill 1 in $\Bbb R$ is also 1. Your point?
11:51
think of eigenvalues: you cannot write $(A-\lambda)v=0$. Correct would be $(A-I \lambda)v=0$.
Depends what that means
Huy
Huy
no
that is still wrong
0 is a number, not a vector
@Huy no, that's ok.
Huy
Huy
NO
11:53
@Huy I like that. Why not?
@MikeMiller I was hoping you could tell me that part. I would like to try to understand what the "original" Hodge theory is, since some people have developed something they call an algebraic analogue and used that for some pretty amazingthings.
Huy
Huy
if you want to be pedantic, be pedantic
I think it involves something called Hard Lefschetz
@Kirill Huy is making a point here. If you don't want to say 1 is a power series, don't say 0 is a vector.
@Huy I am just as pedantic, as pedantic I should be for the exam.
Huy
Huy
11:54
when is your exam and what is it about
@TobiasKildetoft How long of a conversation should this be and can you point me to the "some people"?
@Kirill In that case, $k[[x]]$ does not consist of anything written as sums, but of sequences of elements of $k$
@MikeMiller Unfortunately I don't have time right now anyway. But the people are Elias and Williamson, in the paper The Hodge theory of Soergel bimodules which they published in Annals 3 years ago
re: seen mick's post: This is the first time I saw OP vtc own question, and also the first time that it is done to do major fix the question
Ok, another time then. I'd like to have an understanding of the structure they build so I can bring up the relevant aspects of the older theory
@BalarkaSen well, it is not about saying, it is about what formal notation will be correct and what not, when I write an exam.
Huy
Huy
11:56
write or take?
@Huy linear algebra, tomorrow
You can browse through Voisin's book (or intro) to great value I suspect
Huy
Huy
@Kirill: where do you study?
in the university, @Huy
Huy
Huy
which one?
11:57
@Huy in a ceratin one, do not think that makes a point
Huy
Huy
just wondering because there are not many universities that would have exams right now
@MikeMiller The one called Hodge theory and complex algebraic geometry?
could someone construct a field of cardinality $2^\mathfrak c$?
@Huy so, for Germany it's ok
@LeakyNun that is one very cool way to find generating functions. The approach I have encountered so far involve solving for coefficients after multiplying a series by some power series.
Huy
Huy
11:58
ok, so not ETH :(
would be a very reasonable time for a linear algebra exam here too
anyone knows tensor notation & summation convention. please help
Huy
Huy
@jyotishrajthoudam I did already
@Huy you mean, Zurich?
Huy
Huy
yes
@LeakyNun Take the field of rational functions over the polynomial ring that number of variables
11:59
@Huy if I replace m as i I would have 4 repeated indices which is not permissible
Now that I am made away I can simply bubble out powers of x like these and try to left behind the original sum, it might help in figuring out for me on how infinite series works and its sensitivity to details
@TobiasKildetoft nice
@Huy it is not to far from Munich to Zurich. The same $ich$ at the end.
Huy
Huy
@jyotishrajthoudam then stop asking if you don't accept it
Sorry for interruption. Right now, I am reading Michael A. Nielsen & Isaac L. Chuang for Quantum Computation and Quantum Information. And in chapter 2, 3 equal signs are used. Can someone explain why is that?
Huy
Huy
12:00
@Kirill: I see
Clearly you do not know
Huy
Huy
:(
3 equal signs meaning one extra - on equal sign =. Sorry for confusion.
@foxtrot9 $\equiv$?
Huy
Huy
possibly modular arithmetic
12:02
yes
wow, simple google search worked.
Got it @Kirill , ty.
@foxtrot9 cannot say more particular, I use it for congruent triangles and modulos
Huy
Huy
in that book, it appears to be misused as a "defined by" sign
and the TeX name is $\texttt{\equiv}$...
12:07
@Huy I have seen others use it like that. I would not call it a misuse
Huy
Huy
I would call it misuse.
Need to check again whether I can linearly order the set of all indicator functions on $\Bbb{R}$ and if so construct a concrete example
Let's see...
@Huv, text from book: An
important linear operator on any vector space V is the identity operator, IV , defined by
the equation IV |v> ≡ |v> for all vectors |v>.
Huy
Huy
yes, as I said
they also define Pauli matrices with the same notation
and introduce Dirac notation
(the qubits at the start of chap2)
you said it is misused. Can you explain?
12:11
wow, I am just happy with $\mathrm{id}_V$ then
Huy
Huy
in my opinion, that sign should not be used as a "defined by" sign, but there are obviously people who have a different opinion on this
@Kirill: did you already find the formula for Fibonacci with diagonalization?
@Huy no, I have one with geometric and power series, the idea of my text is "we ignore the other way"
Huy
Huy
but it is a linear algebra course?
@Huy the diagonalisation - for sure! We are just not expected to use matrices for that point. I should shorly think about how to rewrite the sequence as matrix.
Huy
Huy
ok
hi Jasper. have you started studying this year?
12:18
@Huy indeed, the defined by sign is most standardly $:=$.
@Huy I have not. I am still very sick.
Huy
Huy
:(
John Nash could not do any work for 20 years.
I take comfort in the fact that I am not alone in my suffering.
Huy
Huy
I hope you can start working in less than 20 years.
@Kirill to write $1$?
12:22
@JasperLoy you enjoy operas, right?
@LeakyNun ?
@Kirill how would you write 1 in R[x]?
@LeakyNun as $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_nx^n$ with $a_0=1, a_n=0$ for $n\ge1$. I know, it is not handy and even wrong for some.
Hello everyone! Does anyone here take a fancy to cleaning Math SE from junk? =)
as polynomials usually have $n$ at the top, not the $\infty$.
12:31
@Kirill and real numbers continue infinitrly to the right, so you should write a_0 = 1.000....
but since polynomial is sequence I think I can do that
that look slike trolling @LeakyNun . I do not see any reason for the decimal formalism. It is all about how you define the elements of your rings. If you define your elements as numbers that you cannot write on the paper, you would be right.
I'm making a point.
@LeakyNun and the point is definitions. If the definition says that elements of $R[[x]]$ have the form $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n$ then I just bring them in the form, although it is not necessary.
it is the same reason why I write $ax^2 +bx^1 + cx^0$ for the second degree polynomial, as it is just intuitevly clear for me.
Huy
Huy
@Kirill: but then you cannot plug in x=0 but always have to take a limit
where in, @Huy?
Huy
Huy
12:40
in your second order polynomial
why not?
Huy
Huy
try it
Huy
Huy
that's wrong
@Huy $x^0$ is undefined for $x=0$
12:41
oops. =c
Huy
Huy
exactly. you need to take a limit.
do not understand you @Huy
$0^0$ is defined as 1 in my script, I just follow the convention.
Huy
Huy
oh dear lord
who wrote those lecture notes
Hello, someone has an idea please : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2394138/…
do you think the convention $0!=1$ is better?
Huy
Huy
12:43
that is a definition that doesn't violate any rules
@Huy 0 is the power of 0 hasn't violated any rule we had, too
Huy
Huy
it does, because
$$\lim_{x \to 0} x^0 \neq \lim_{x \to 0} 0^x$$
@Huy actually it doesn't
nobody said that $x \mapsto 0^x$ must be continuous
Huy
Huy
neither did I
so it doesn't violate any rule
Huy
Huy
12:46
yes it does
which?
but you have just said: these sequences have different limits. And? @Huy
Huy
Huy
so it doesn't make sense to "define" $0^0 = 1$
@Huy it does make sense in this context
i.e. in the context of power series
it doesn't make sense to define $0!$ as 1 as well, but it is handy.
12:47
@Kirill it does.
the number of ways to permute 0 items is exactly 1.
$0! = 1$ makes perfect sense everywhere
$0^0$ depends on context
@LeakyNun the number of ways to permute nothing is already an esoteric issue I would say.
@Kirill we also have the recurrence equation $n! = n(n-1)!$
when $n=1$, you get $0!=1$.
I wonder how will one handle the following sum: $$\sum_{k=0}^n k^k (x+1)^k$$? The $0^0 = 1$ convention will allow the binomial expansion to be carried out, however, here there's an explicit $k^k$ term which cannot be $1$ (Or perhaps I have constructed a wrong example)
@Kirill the number of ways to permute $n$ items is the number of bijections from $n$ items to itself.
12:50
it is like a thesis "all aliens in this chat are brown". True, as there is no aliens here.
@Kirill no, $0!=1$ isn't a vacuous truth.
@Secret what on earth is that sum?
$n!$ is the number of permutations (or bijections) from a set with $n$ elements to itself.
and there is exactly one function from the empty set to itself
12:52
You can check that the empty relation from the empty set to itself is a bijection, and that it is the only bijection
And the formal construction of a relation is as an element of the power set of the cartesian product of the set with itself
$0! = 1$ by definition of the factorial. $0^0$ is, in general, undefined; though we often assign it a value depending on the context.
$\mathcal P (\varnothing \times \varnothing) = \mathcal P (\varnothing) = \{\varnothing\}$
@LeakyNun It's an attempt to ask how to pick conventions for the value of $0^0$ if an expression contains both a binomial expansion and also requiring $x\mapsto x^x$ to be continuous, i.e. if an expression contains $0^0$ that is supposed to be used in conflicting ways when alone, how to pick the correct convention to evaluate such expression?
@Secret You meant $x \mapsto x^x$ to be continuous
12:54
ah yes, sorry
It might be a surprise to you that $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to0^+} x^x = 1$
formally that would be $n!:=\prod_{k=1}^{n}k:= 1$ if $n<k$. So, if $0!=1$ is wrong, then the definition of product is wrong. Is that?
@Kirill no, the empty product is $1$.
Look up the definition of product.
12:55
corrected
The empty sum is $0$ because any sum can be written as $0 + $ that sum
@LeakyNun O? I thought the limit is path dependent as it approaches zero, at least when evaluated under the context of $\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}x^y$
just like the empty product is $1$ because you can always multiply it by $1*
"$0! = 1$ is wrong" is wrong because $0!=1$ makes sense.
neither $0!=1$ nor the fact that the empty product is $1$ is wrong
@Secret Yes, depending on how you take that limit, you get a different value.
on the line $y = x$ you $1$
12:56
@Secret you did say $x^x$.
ah I see, makes sense
People need to stop viewing exponents as iterated multiplication.
@Secret This limit is exactly why it's difficult to assign a value to $0^0$ in general.
hmm, so I guess it is pretty hard to encounter an expression that requires both the $0^0=1$ convention and $\lim_{(x,y)\to(0,0)}x^y$
and I think should that happened, the limit takes precedence
What do you mean, requires that limit?
That limit doesn't exist.
Ever.
12:59
@Secret here is how you make the limit any value from $0$ to $1$.
Well, consider $(1+x)^5 + \lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}x^y$, I guess the value is "Does not exist" because the limit does not exist

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