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06:02
@AkivaWeinberger is there any way via the various operations of the collatz conjecture to map some number n to n+3? I mean without going through 1.
I've tried substituting for t both ways round, and both ways round I get a mess. It's been almost 20 years since I learned trigonometric identities so that hasn't helped either
Write $t$ in terms of $x$ and plug it into the $y$ equation, @pbeentje.
@Lucas: Are you using $N(a+bi) = a^2+b^2$?
If so, it looks very false to me.
06:17
Note that $N(a+bi) = (a+bi)(a-bi)$
That's good for the converse :)
@TedShifrin do you have a counter-example?
Why do you think it's right?
Are you sure you don't mean the converse?
06:21
@TedShifrin yeah.
Try it with $\alpha = 3$.
@TedShifrin Wait what?
Twink, are we going around this again?
5 hours ago, by Lucas Henrique
Conjecture: Let $z \in \Bbb Z[i]$. If $\mathrm{N}(z)$ is composite, $\exists z_1, z_2 \in \Bbb Z[i] : z = z_1 z_2$
Wait yourself, Demonark.
06:23
what? it's just a question
@TedShifrin ?
@Lucas: $9$ is composite, but $3$ is a Gaussian prime.
:(
ooooh. yeah, restriction.
Oh... you're not square rooting it
You don't get an integer if you square root it, Demonark.
06:24
Lol I'm braindead today
Let $z \in \Bbb Z[i] - \Bbb Z$, blah blah blah.
That won't do, @Lucas.
You should do lots more experimentation before you make conjectures. :)
@TedShifrin I need to talk to you give me your whatsapp
I don't have whatsapp, Twink.
I think you might be able to say something like, you have $a+bi$
06:25
then your Grindr or something
skype
Start with an email, Twink.
but that's very slow
I want to talk in real time
I certainly don't take orders ...
please
You separate out if either $a = 0$ or $b=0$ by asking that it's congruent to -1 mod 4, and if they're both non-zero, you want $a^2 + b^2$ to be prime, congruent to -1 mod 4
I could see that, or perhaps a more elaborate scheme, to be true
06:29
The book is not my favorite, but if you know differential forms, it's the only book at that level that uses differential forms.
Doesn't yours do?
Or are the books at different levels?
@Ted we were trying to prove that if $p$ is prime then $p \equiv 1 \, \mathrm{mod} \, 4 \iff \exists a, b \in \Bbb Z : p = a^2 + b^2$.
I only use forms in one little section, Demonark. I'm writing for a general undergraduate audience.
@Lucas: You'll find that proved in my book, among lots of other places.
oh.
ha... ha... blushes
@TedShifrin I think my temporary goal is to do surface theory (Teichmuller geometry, singular foliations, MCG)
06:31
but is that the best book to understand this other book? amazon.com/…
so I should learn 1) real analysis and dynamics 2) Riemann surfaces
cause it's the same author
I have been told to read Arnol'd ODE book for the first and Forster for the second
a bit off topic, but it surprises me that such an important mathematician as Teichmuller could be a Nazi.
You need some serious background for the advanced book ... experience with multivariable analysis, manifolds, and preferably some Riemannian geometry. Very different levels.
06:32
and after i'm done go headlong into Farb-Margalit or soemthing
@Lucas: Not the only one. And there are similar 'surprising' names among composers, etc.
I don't know Arnold's ODE book, Balarka.
:@
yeah. IIRC there's even a question about Nazi mathematicians here.
not here, but on history of science and math:
7
A: Famous scientists in the Nazi party

heatherOne can get a good general idea by looking at the scientists brought over by Operation Paperclip (an operation to bring over top German scientists to America, many of whom were members of the Nazi party or even had leadership roles in the Nazi party). A short list of the more famous scientists ...

@TedShifrin Ah, OK
It's also interesting to learn about some of the mathematics that was done in concentration camps.
06:36
my favorite mathematician is Alan Turing
favorite because he was gay? ... or favorite for the mathematics he did?
2
I know some modern-day gay mathematicians whose mathematics is far more interesting to me, personally.
for both
for example who?
Robert Bryant is a super-star, just finished being president of the American Math Society.
Amazing mathematician and great person.
Robert Macpherson is another.
and how do you know they're gay? it's not on their wikipedia's biography
They're both openly gay. They didn't write Wikipedia. Bryant talked about his partner in an interview in the Notices of the AMS that appeared recently.
They've both been friends of mine for decades and decades.
06:43
wow :D
@TedShifrin "Abstract Algebra: (...)"?
Yeah, Lucas. Section 3 of Chapter 4.
@Ted are the sections in your book smooth?
Remember that one-month hiatus, Demonark? :D
I thought it was to be reduced to 45 seconds!
06:46
No, I never agreed to any such nonsense.
I dunno if I can do a whole month, like at that point I have no choice but to try and make my existence substantial or something
nice but Alan Turing is the father of computer science and has his own film
It isn't a competition, Twink. Turing was very impressive and endured horrible things (including death). I merely said his mathematics is of less interest to me personally.
How do you think of those, professor?
06:52
I just read the section and the lemmas/theorems.
I don't think I have a favorite mathematician.
It would take me a lifetime to realize those things.
Lucas, I learned this proof, basically, when I studied algebra as an undergraduate from Mike Artin. Most of it stuck with me. But there are lots of books with lots of knowledge in them :)
Balarka, I have a few, I guess, but no single one.
Also, I'm loving your linear algebra book, @Ted.
Oh, thanks :)
There's some unusual stuff in there on projective geometry and computer graphics in the last chapter.
06:55
I've seen books that are too geometrical or too algebraic
@TedShifrin I dunno, I think I used to have a list and it got bigger and bigger as time progressed
Your book shows clarity in both approaches.
To me, @Lucas, interplay among different aspects of mathematics has always been the most exciting thing.
It's especially exciting when homotopy theory, posets, and the category of small categories all come together... Lol jk :P
It's happy to hear that. I think the same as you, @Ted. The (small) difference is that you're a doctor and I'm a highschooler. :P
06:57
Blech, Demonark.
You'll at least be pleased to note that Peter May isn't into $\infty$-categories
At one point he introduced them and was like "Yeah I dunno, you can't really calculate anything with these" and the other guy was like "Uh... except like not really"
he dissed Akhil Matthew on MO for precisely that reason
@Lucas: I have lots more pictures in my algebra book, too, for the same reason that some students learn more visually than others.
Oh Akhil is the new guy
Lol this'll get fun
oh he came in the bootcamp?
07:01
No, the one in the REU is Dylan
Who also thinks you can calculate using infinity-categories
Akhil is the other new person
Who I guess is coming in September
And he's on MO?
07:03
The two stages of epiphany: reaction, and then caps lock
I don't think Demonark will make it a month.
Unless we all ignore him.
OK, night, all.
G'night, @Ted
Welcome home, Balarka.
I mean didn't I say earlier that my existence more or less reduces to this style of humor, like I'd need to go into some magical fountain or whatever to have anything else of substance in my life?
8 hours at most, while I'm asleep
And lol see you @Ted
Let $A,B$ be $\mathfrak{g}$-modules, and $C$ be a $\mathfrak{b}$-module. (The Borel subalgebra.)

What does the subscript mean here:
$$Hom_{\mathfrak{g}}(A,B)=Hom_{\mathfrak{b}}(C,B)$$?
These maps factor in some way?
07:15
4am here. g2g, goodnight chat.
Goodnight.
who reported me? ¬¬
negation eyes
07:32
@aminliverpool In fact at least one other user (namely @Xam IIRC) registered for the event.
Hi @MartinSleziak
08:00
The curve equidistant between two circles is an ellipse whose foci are the centers of the circles
3
I don't know what happens if one circle isn't inside the other… my guess is you get a branch of a hyperboloid
@TedShifrin thanks, I tried again and got further than the last time
(or a straight line if they're the same size)
There is no Integral equations tag in the main site while asking question?
@BAYMAX There is and 531 questions are tagged with this tag: .
oh sorry
Got it!
08:33
@TedShifrin I thought this was true
For $z\in\Bbb Z[i]\setminus\Bbb Z$
08:49
Oh no
I also need to exclude pure imaginary things
$\Bbb Z[i]\setminus\Bbb Z\setminus\Bbb Zi$
09:05
Aren't the irreducibles in $\Bbb Z[i]$ the elements whose norm is a prime or the square of a prime?
Yeah
@LucasHenrique There's an alternate way to end it that doesn't need that fact
We just need to show that $p$ isn't a Gaussian prime
To do that, note that $p$ is a factor of $(x+i)(x-i)$, but it's not a factor of $x+i$ or $x-i$
($x$ being the solution to $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$)
However, primes have the property that if $P$ is prime and $P$ is a factor of $ab$, it's either a factor of $a$ or a factor of $b$
This fact is true for the Gaussian integers as well
So $p$ can't be a Gaussian prime.
To finish from there, note that since it's prime, you can factor it into Gaussian integers... Organize them into conjugate pairs and take one from each pair
You'd end up with a bunch of things that when multiplied satisfy $z\bar z=p$, so if $z=a+bi$ then $a^2+b^2=p$ and we're done
Do weights of a Borel subgroup factor through weights of a maximal torus contained in the Borel?
09:23
I'm still relying on previous lemmas… Assuming Bezout's identity works for the Gaussian integers, suppose $P$ divides $ab$. If it doesn't divide $a$, by Bezout, $Px+ay=1$ for some $P$ and $a$ (a prime and something not a multiple of that prime will always be coprime).
Then $P$ will be a factor of $(P)bx+(ab)y$, which equals $(Px+ay)b=b$.
So if $P$ divides $ab$ then $P$ divided $a$ or $P$ divided $b$.
I mean, the real thing you want to prove is that $\Bbb Z[i]$ is a Euclidean domain
All the nice things about it come from there
 
1 hour later…
10:36
[To be checked] Proof of existence of solutions to integral equations as a formulae of the form of integral operator involved
More generally, given a functional equation, proof of existence of solution of the functional equation depending on the functions involved
Ideally, proof of the existence or nonexistence of solutions to a functional equation, as a function of the functions and arrangement involved in the functional equation
A possible layout for the proof might be as follows:
11:01
Let $F$ be the class of formulae written in some given language $\mathcal{L}$ and said language contains relation operators such as $=$, $<$, $>$, $\geq$, $\leq$, $\equiv$, $\sim$, $\approx$. Let $E$ be the class of equations or inequalities. Then $v \in E$ is an equation/inequality or set of equations/inequalities (for systems).
Let $f : E \mapsto Op \subset F$ be a map which picks out the operators (formulae with free parameters in any orders of logic) and arrange them into an ordered set in Op. Let the solution class of $E$ be $X \subset F$. Now, the existence of solutions is defined by
For $v$ where solutions $x$ exists, computation of $f(x)$ will give the ordered set of operators and hence the dependence of the solution to the structure of the given equation/inequality $v$
If $f(x)=\emptyset$, then it means the solution has no dependence to the structure of the equation/inequality
Actually, the above framework will lead to an obvious problem: It is easy to show that there are many equations will have the same solution $2$ which is just a number and thus there are no free variables in its set/class builder notation
and said equations are not necessary "isomorphic" wrt each other since e.g. some contains nonlinear operators while some contains linear ones (the action of linear operators on a set can never be isomorphic to the action of nonlinear operators)
What is needed is some notion of "variation" that works on the language level, such that when one letter of the formulae is replaced systematically by other letters, how the solution class changes
Another thing to note is that operators are themselves part of a solution class to some equations. E.g. a linear operator $L$ always obeys $L(x+y)=Lx+Ly$ for any set x,y (possibly under some restrictions)
Therefore, the solution set map $S$ need to have two arguments i.e. redefine $S : E \times Op \mapsto X$
Then for the above example, say a certain $v \cong Lx+Ly=L(x+y)$ from some ring $R$. Then $f(v)=\{L\}$, $S(v,L) = L$, $S(v,x) = R$
user84215
11:29
@Secret I think you will become an outstanding mathematician with creative and novel ideas.
@AkivaWeinberger radical axis?
That's still a long way, I might have novel ideas, but my maths speak is not good enough to describe them yet, but with sufficient hardwork and collaboration with others, it will come I believe
11:46
hmmm...
9
Q: Are there any existing problems that wouldn't be solvable with a halting oracle?

ikeI understand that most problems are trivial if a halting oracle is available (or, I think equivalently, hyper-computation). However, applying the argument that shows the Halting Problem is impossible for a Turing machine also shows that it is impossible for a Turing+oracle to decide the Halting P...

I wonder if my above framework is still within turing degree $0$... (except for any equations/inequalities that are "isomorphic" to the halting problem)
any1 on Integral equations can help me out!
12:03
Hey chat
A short question: Let $R$ be a ring (commutative and with 1). In the category of $R$-Algebras, what are the morphisms?
If I say $f$ is a $k$-morphism between schemes $X$ and $Y$. Then $X$ and $Y$ are schemes over $k$ right? It seems directly reading off the defintion from Hartshorne, I should have then that $f:X\to Y$ compatible with $\psi_1:X\to k$ and $\psi_2:Y\to k$.

But should that be $\text{Spec}(k)$?
@lattice This is an $R$-linear, ring homomorphism.
Okay thanks
(I.e. multiplicative, additive, and satisfying $R$-homogeneity or however you say it $\psi(r\cdot x) = r\cdot \psi(x)$ for $r\in R$.)
Okay nvm my question above, I am happy with this:
17
Q: Scheme of finite type over a field $K$ v.s. $K$-scheme

BogdanI'm lost in some definitions about schemes. I have some trouble about two definitions of a scheme of finite type over $K$, for an alg.closed field $K$. Version 1 (Hartshorn) : a scheme of finite type over $K$ is a scheme $X$ together with a morphism $X \to K$, where $X$ is a scheme (a locally ri...

12:29
[Random] The set with freewill elements
Let $S$ be a nonempty set. This set is defined as $S = \{x| x \not\in S\text{ is undecidable}\}$
The result is that $S$ will simutaneously exists and not exist since it is undecidable whether a contradiction is formed
Things get even more interesting when some notion of fuzzy logic is employed
$S_{y} = \{x|x \not\in S_y\text{ is undecidable y% of the time}\}$
Now you have a set which has some probability to not exist
12:53
5
Q: An image of the hierarchy of algebraic structures

YrogirgHello! Does anybody know an image of a graph featuring the hierarchy of algebraic structures? Something rather complete. So far I've found similar images describing the hierarchies of classes/categories in various programming languages. For example Haskell's basic algebra library Coq's math cl...

Double fields and triple fields -> a case where someone put too many axioms in an algebraic structure
and this other one, I wonder if we can create an algebraic structure out of all of these...
Categlorical logic might allow me to hop between algebraic sturctures, by adding,deleting, or operating with axiomatic systems, interpreted as logic propositions
13:50
Hi
14:04
@Mahmoud السَّلَامُ عَلَيْكُمْ
Hey $:)$
How are you?
Fine I guess, you?
Good
14:16
@Fawad $$\int\frac{x^2}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx=\int x\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx=-\int x\frac{d\sqrt{1-x^2}}{dx}dx$$ — BAI 18 mins ago
Can someone explain me how is this possible?
I am newbie in integration
@Fawad First step is just algebra, second is recognizing that $\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\sqrt{1-x^2}=\frac{(1/2)(-2x)}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=-\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}‌​$
I was able to figure out that: $xy-x_0y_0=y(x-x_0)+x_0(y-y_0)$
However, I don't know what he meant by the first and second arguments, it doesn't add up for me
14:35
Hey a book of mine states, I don't quite trust the book, that for the implicit function theorem the point we use as starting point has to be regular. Neither my script nor wikipedia lists this as requirement and I think there could be some examples where this is not the case but, but all other requirements are set. Did you ever hear of this?
14:49
Actually, it is true I just remarked...if $f_y$ is invertible then for sure $df$ is surjective.
isn't invertibility requires a trivial kernal?
15:10
Where do they get the multiplication by 2 inside the brackets? ctrlv.in/983510
What's $r$ ?
Oh right
What $r$ are you talking about ? Which line ?
o n/m stupid
I didn't notice it in the original function
15:26
I really don't seem to have the ability to solve the problem (it's starred), I'd appreciate any help.
15:37
@FuzzyPixelz Multiply with the denominator of both inequations and perhaps you have to use triangle inequation but this shouldn t be hard
I don't understand the need for the two equation of $|x-x_0|$, and yes I've used the triangle inequality but it just doesn't work out correctly, there is something I'm missing
@Felix.C
16:10
Hey chat.
hi @gian
Hi -- can someone please help me with this Q: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2376054/satisfying-the-following-determinant-inequality
thnaks
thanks**
16:33
@Felix.C: Yes, of course, you need the derivative to have maximum rank. But it's usually stated with an explicit choice of coordinates so that the $\partial f_i/\partial y_j$ portion of the matrix is invertible, and then you get that the level set $f(x,y)=0$ can locally be written as $y=\phi(x)$.
Hey @TedShifrin ! $:)$
um, hi, Fuzzy ... did you change names?
Yes! I was formally known as Mahmoud, just a few hours ago :P
Ohhh ...
formerly
Oh thanks for that, I've been spelling it wrong for ever ..
16:35
They are two different words :)
That's a shame
So, are you learning more with a new name, Fuzzy?
I'm not sure I understand what you mean.. but no, my display name here is irrelevant, I believe.
Oh.
Oh, so you're working on limit proofs.
So.. I've challenged myself to do every single problem in Spivak's Calculus after I was just running over the chapters.. and it has been totally frustrating, I've spent the last three weeks and haven't even finished the first chapter problems.
I'm now stuck at problem 21
16:39
Why $\int4x^2e^{2x^2}\,dx$ cannot be evaluated?
Because $e^{x^2}$ has no elementary antiderivative, @Fawad. That's a theorem.
@Fuzzy: So you wrote two terms. You want to show that the absolute value of each of them comes out $<\varepsilon/2$.
The second one is immediate, right?
@TedShifrin can i know which theorem it is? Or theorem name
Windows 10 tells me US bombers are flying to N Korea
m8 why
It doesn't have a name. But it follows from results in a field called differential Galois theory. Probably goes back to Abel.
Because N. Korea keeps shooting off ICBMs and we have an idiot for a president, Balarka.
But why Windows should be giving you news is beyond me.
Haven't thought about that at all, there is humility at every stop when you're studying sciences, but mathematics makes me feel that I'm just too stupid to deal with logic..
I know the latter as a fact, and that N Korea was being a bit of a (add appropriate adjective) but didn't know they were shooting ICBMs
@Fuzzy: The whole point of the estimate game is to break complicated things into bite-size pieces which you can control.
no good will come off this. bleh
Balarka, it's been going on for over a month.
My attitude to maths: Teach me how to be more weird and I will gladly follow you into the unknown
2
16:45
More weird @Secret
?
@TedShifrin it has a News panel on the start up menu that gives the most crummy news from all over the world
Ah, Balarka. There are various things like that in OS and iOS, but one chooses to use them or not.
@gian Recall the impression when you first touch topology, infinite sets, various nonintuitive theorems in analysis, category theory and much more
@Secret: gian is just starting.
Yeah, I started topology a week ago...
16:47
@TedShifrin But.. Why are there two inequalities for $|x-x_0|$ ? And just one for $|y-y_0|$
I see what you mean though; it's a very different perspective of looking at mathematics.
@Fuzzy: Notice that in your first term you have $y(x-x_0)$, so you need an estimate on how big $y$ can be. But to answer your question, it's like other arguments you've done (like limits with $x^2$), where you need to stipulate that $x$ can't be too far from $x_0$ in order to get a bound on $|x|$. Saying $|x-x_0|<1$ forces $|x|<|x_0|+1$. You should have done lots of proofs like this.
$$\begin{cases} f(z) & \text{if $|z|=1$} \\ \\ f(\psi)& \text{if $|z| < 1$} \end{cases}$$
$$F(z) =
\begin{cases}
f(z) & \text{if $|z|=1$} \\
\\
f(\psi)& \text{if $|z| < 1$}
\end{cases}$$
@Zophikel: As it stands, that makes no sense. You have to say what $f(\psi)$ means.
@TedShifrin I know i'm checking if it renders
mathb.in dosen't do latex very well sometimes
16:59
Oh, I see why you're confused, @Fuzzy. It doesn't fit the way you broke the sum up. Spivak is thinking of $xy-x_0y_0 = x(y-y_0) + y_0(x-x_0)$.
Lol, that's the first Do Nothing Technique i.e. of the form $a-a=0$
Yes, I always taught it as "add a clever $0$" or "multiply by a clever $1$".
For me, the former I usually called the first Do Nothing Technique, and the latter the Second Do Nothing Technique. There's actually a 3rd which appears in contour integration (which is basically the same as your add a clever 0, except that zero is so cleaver it is part of a contour integral that will vanish

In undergrad, they are all simply referred by professors as "by cheating, by a trick"
I vaguely remember there's a 4th Do Nothing Technique, but I currently don't recall the details. It only appears in certain proofs
Wait which one is the contour integration one?
The typical example is contour integrating $$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin x}{e^x + something}dx$$
which is done by picking a semicircular path and adding a $$\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos x}{e^x+ something}dx$$. This is the part that vanishes to zero
the resulting integral, can then be integrated easily because you have both the cos and sin to form an exponential function
Let me dig for the actual example...
Example 2 – Cauchy distribution in wikipedia link:
In the mathematical field of complex analysis, contour integration is a method of evaluating certain integrals along paths in the complex plane. Contour integration is closely related to the calculus of residues, a method of complex analysis. One use for contour integrals is the evaluation of integrals along the real line that are not readily found by using only real variable methods. Contour integration methods include direct integration of a complex-valued function along a curve in the complex plane (a contour) application of the Cauchy integral formula application of the residue theorem One...
(Showed how much my memory decays for a subject that I don't fully master...)
17:16
I haven't formally taken complex analysis, but isn't evaluating a contour integral analogous to taking a line integral in $\mathbb{R}^2$ ?
But just in a complex plane.
It is a particular sort of line integral, yes.
Interesting. I'll leave that for later though. Gotta commit to topology right now.
Howdy, Eric.
Howdy, DogAteMy.
17:21
Hello
@BalarkaSen You're back
About the "deforming metric spaces" stuff, at one point you asked about its $\pi_1$
Turns out the space of metrics is contractible, though, so it's gonna be 0
Yup, convex.
Also, the deformation from $(X,d_1)=:X_1$ and $(X,d_2)=:X_2$ can take place entirely in $CX_1\times CX_2$
so if they can be embedded in Euclidean space, so can the deformation
In fact, it can all take place in the smash product of $X_1$ and $X_2$ (that thing that turns lines into a tetrahedron), which embeds into $CX_1\times CX_2$
17:52
If $\Bbb EX_n \to 0$ and $\Bbb EX_n^2 \to 0$, then $\Bbb E|X_n| \to 0$?
18:42
Hey
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$. We have defined the tensor product over $R$-modules via the universal property. I am wondering about the difference between this and defining it over $R$-algebras.
Can I just replace "module" in this definition by "algebra"?
@lattice As an $R$-module they are the same
Maybe my question was not quite exact, the thing is I do not know how the tensor product over $R$-algebras is defined.
@lattice It is the unique $R$-module (or more generally $\mathbb{Z}$-module for noncommutative rings) satisfying the universal property
to show it exists, one usually does a construction
Yes
we have done that construction as well
but only for modules
same construction for algebras (note that the construction does not care that there is a product)
18:49
Okay thanks!
One thing that is somewhat different is the categorical interpretation
Since for algebras the tensor product is actually the coproduct in the category of unital algebras, and it is neither the product nor the coproduct in the category of modules
So I suppose it was incorrect of me to claim that the definitions are the same, as one needs to only consider the algebra as a module to be able to apply the precise same definition
Hmm...
Maybe just to make sure that I understood it right, let me explain why I was asking
So I have to do the following exercise:
Let $I=\{a,b\}$ be ordered by the discrete preorder (that is already confusing me a bit, what is the discrete preorder?). Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$, let $\mathcal{C}$ be the category of $R$-algebras and let $(R_i)_{i\in I}$ be a family of $R$-algebras. Show that there exists an isomorphism of algebras $lim{R_i} \cong R_a \bigotimes R_b$
(where $lim R_i$ denotes the inductive/direct limit of the inductive system)
@lattice What an odd way to phrase these things. So the discrete preorder is the one where everything is related to everything (otherwise it would not be a directed system)
so... $a\leq b$ and $b\leq a$?
hmm, but that would mean that there should be maps from each algebra to the other which is strange

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