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00:00
Oh OK hm
If you just choose an eigenvector for each eigenvalue they have to be linearly independent so you can choose a basis in which the matrix of $T$ is diagonal
Gtg. Talk to you all later.
See you!
DogAteMy needs to read my linear algebra chapter.
00:05
Pretty sure I did, it was just a while ago @TedShifrin
uh huh
Well, I'll give you that and the last problem
So let's say you have a matrix $A$, and let $f$ and $g$ be coprime polynomials whose product is the minimal polynomial of $A$
Show that $\ker(f(A)) \oplus \ker(g(A)) = \mathbb{F}^n$
Where $A\in \mathbb{F}^{n\times n}$
Interesting ... that's the key to proving that a matrix whose minimal polynomial has distinct roots is always diagonalizable.
Actually I think this is a problem that we were given after we already had that theorem
I don't remember how we did this with Laci, I think HK used T-annihilators for that purpose
("this" = minimal polynomial has distinct roots => diagonalizable)
@Ted, since you're the master of geometric approaches (:P), can you help me?
I want to know if this is a valid argument.
00:15
Maybe, maybe not.
Oh, similar triangles?
I've never seen that. That's cute.
What's your question, @Lucas?
Okay so we proved it via this lemma
If the argument is valid.
Well, without worrying about why the infinite series converges to a finite number ...
00:20
I mean... this r power makes me uncomfortable
exactly
So let's say $V$ is a finite-dimensional vector space, $T$ is a linear operator whose minimal polynomial factors completely, and let $W$ be a proper $T$-invariant subspace. Then you can find a vector $\alpha$ outside $W$ such that $(T-cI)\alpha \in W$ where $c$ is some eigenvalue of $T$
I guess you could start with the first bit, draw the line (through $(1,r)$) and then deduce that the rest of the picture is correct.
Quantifiers don't seem right, Demonark.
But I don't want to think about it.
I think it does work, there exists $\alpha\in V\setminus W$ and $c\in Spec(T)$ such that blah blah
As I said, I don't wanna think.
Fair
But yeah that lemma is nifty because it both gives you that matrices are triangulable iff the minimal polynomial factors completely, and diagonalizable iff minimal polynomial has distinct roots
00:25
I can do a more elementary argument. I wrote a problem for the linear algebra book doing this with partial fraction decomposition.
Well, it gives you that knowing the facts about the minimal polynomial gives you the facts about matrices
@Lucas: So you understand it?
That's not surprising if you think of vector spaces as $k[T]$-modules, Demonark.
But you haven't got there yet.
@TedShifrin What part, exactly?
The whole thing, Lucas.
You never really asked me a question.
Wait, what's $T$ in that context?
00:28
the linear map, Demonark
Is that not circular?
but I should have said $k[t]$ ... and $t$ acts by $T$.
Oh I mean... I guess in afterthought that works
Wait hmm
Actually I gotta think about this more, gimme a second
I asked you if it's a valid argument.
Geometrically speaking.
I think so, if you do the construction as I said it.
You start with the first square, then draw the line through $(0,1)$ and $(1,r)$, and then construct all the rest. It's cool.
00:35
What about the $r^n$ down there?
Do it step by step.
oh, so I think there's no problem at all
No, I like it.
I mean, the fact that the lines aren't parallel will ultimately tell you the series converges.
it's a valid construction as long as the slope is such that the $(0,1)$, $(1,r)$ line touches the base of the square
That sentence made no sense (in English, anyhow).
00:37
Didn't it? :(
Okay wait I just noticed your thing about partial fractions... it might be more elementary but somehow... I think I prefer this way of doing it
well, that's ok ... both have their advantages
really the bottom thing isn't a triangle.
you can prefer super fancy stuff, but it's not always pedagogically appropriate. We've had this argument before.
00:38
It limits to one, PVAL.
@TedShifrin He edited the sentence (though I don't know what was wrong with the first version?)
I guess you have to assume the sum is finite for it to work then.
Oh ...
Well, I thought that at first, PVAL, but if you construct the figure recursively, you prove it because the line you drew isn't parallel to the $x$-axis.
I mean if you really want to you can go the measure theory route
00:39
That closed line segment is the disjoint countable union of lots of half-open intervals
and a point
What line are you drawing
Use countable additivity
oh good grief
the line through $(0,1)$ and $(1,r)$.
@PVAL-inactive The one made of infinitely many smaller ones
00:40
@TedShifrin No I mean the flat one
I know you meant that.
from $(0,0)$ to $(0,\frac1{1-r})$
The $x$-axis is just sitting there. Good grief.
how is the 0 < r < 1 restriction obvious?
00:41
You mark off distances along it.
@TedShifrin What did I do
Because if $r\ge 1$ the line (ray) and the $x$-axis do not intersect and you get no figure.
The picture shows that the interval $[0,\frac1{1-r}]=\{\frac1{1-r}\}\cup\bigcup_k[\sum_{n=0}^k r^n,\sum_{n=0}^{k+1} r^n)$, and that's a disjoint union
is all I was saying
Wait no
Fixed I think
I'm not being that level of pedantic. I don't know what the issue is.
I don't know why you yelled "NO" at me
00:46
I don't either. I was talking about the other line. I don't get the issue.
anyhow, I'm out of here.
See you!
01:20
cya
Damn, I always fail to understand $\exists a, b \in \Bbb N: p = a^2 + b^2 \iff p \equiv 1 \, \mathrm{mod} \, 4$, $p$ prime
01:34
Well, one direction is easy, at least
but yeah
IIRC, you first prove that $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$ has a solution, then you factor $x+i$ in $\Bbb Z[i]$
Isn't that putting the cart before the horse somehow?
Oh well maybe not
Like, take $p=13$. We know that $5^2\equiv-1\pmod p$, so $5+i$ has norm $26$
The prime factorization of $5+i$ is $(3-2i)(1+i)$ I think
So, say that $p = a^2 + b^2$, then one of those is odd and the other is even, so that $(2k+1)^2 + (2n)^2 = 4k^2 + 4k + 1 + 4n^2$, so mod 4 that's just 1
@Daminark That's the easy direction
01:37
(Cont'd) and the norm of $3-2i$ is $3^2+2^2=13$
the hard part is to prove the such $a, b$ exist
Proving that $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$ always has a solution when $p$ is $1$ mod $4$ is genuinely hard, and proving the relevant lemmas about prime factorization in $\Bbb Z[i]$ (the Gaussian integers) is interesting
but those are the main ingredients
And the $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$ thing has a very quick and clever proof.
To be clear, $\Bbb Z[i]$ (aka the set of "Gaussian integers") is the set of numbers of the form $a+bi$ where $a$ and $b$ are integers
@AkivaWeinberger yeah, ikr
even tho idk what "prime factorization" in Z[i] means
(i'm too lazy to type this in LaTeX)
@LucasHenrique Well. You know how $5$ is "prime" in the integers, even though $5=(5)(1)=(-5)(-1)$
You can't write it as the product of other things… unless you use $1$ or $-1$
Is there not a way to do it using Fermat's little theorem?
01:43
I think that congruences won't help that much
@LucasHenrique Now, $5$ isn't prime in the Gaussian integers, because it equals $(2+i)(2-i)$
Since we're looking for """concrete""" numbers
@AkivaWeinberger wow.
$2+i$ is prime in the Gaussian integers, though.
Something like, $(-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}} = 1 \mod p$
what is a norm, again? in Z[i], I mean
01:45
But there's still a subtlety because you can write it as $(2+i)(1)=(-2-i)(-1)=(1-2i)(i)=(-1+2i)(-i)$
So the way primes work in the Gaussian integers, is that they're considered prime if you can't write them as the product of other stuff, without using $1$, $-1$, $i$ or $-i$
They're like $1$ and $-1$ for the integers
The reason they cause problems is 'cause you can divide by them
so everything is something times $-1$, and everything is something times $i$, etc
Oh wait hold on a second
@LucasHenrique The norm of $a+bi$ is $a^2+b^2$.
So assume $x^2 \equiv -1 \mod p$
Then $x$ has order 4
So by Lagrange's theorem $4\mid p-1$
This has the really nice property that the norm of the product of things is the product of the norms
That's a nice way of thinking about that direction
01:47
so as usual? $N(a) = a \overline{a}$?
@Daminark That's not the direction we want though
@LucasHenrique Yeah
Oh I know, the other direction can be done with Wilson's theorem
So like the norm of $(1+2i)(3+4i)$ is equal to the norm of $1+2i$ times the norm of $3+4i$
It's just that I only realized now that there's a way of doing this as such
and you prove it by writing it like $a\bar a$
01:48
$(p-1)! \equiv -1 \mod p$
@Daminark There's a much cleverer way
@LucasHenrique So, the norm of $5$ is $25$, and the norm of $2+i$ is $5$
There are two important things to know here: (1) Every Gaussian integer can be written as the product of Gaussian primes in a unique way (up to factors of $-1$ and $i$ and $-i$), and
(2) the norm of a Gaussian prime (assuming the Gaussian prime isn't real) is a prime in the integers
So like $2+i$ is a Gaussian prime, and its norm, $5$, is a prime in the integers
@AkivaWeinberger OOOOH.
This is so clear, now.
So once you've solved $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$, then you know that $x^2+1$ is a multiple of $p$
so the norm of $x+i$ is a multiple of $p$
so you can factor $x+i$ into the product of Gaussian primes
and one of those Gaussian primes will have to have norm $p$
Oh there's a fucky way to do this if you use Fermat's little theorem actually
Okay so
and so if that Gaussian prime is $a+bi$, then $a$ and $b$ solve your thing
01:52
$x^{p-1} - 1 = (x^{\frac{p-1}{2}} - 1)(x^{\frac{p-1}{2}} + 1)$
We still need to show that $x^2\equiv-1\pmod p$ always has a solution when $p$ is $1$ mod $4$
Conjecture: Let $z \in \Bbb Z[i]$. If $\mathrm{N}(z)$ is composite, $\exists z_1, z_2 \in \Bbb Z[i] : z = z_1 z_2$
@LucasHenrique Yeah that follows from my statement labeled (2) above, which I wrote without proof
Now, we know that $x^{p-1} - 1$ has $p-1$ roots
So in particular, $x^{\frac{p-1}{2}} + 1$ has a root
Wait @Daminark
Oh I see you're using that a polynomial in $\Bbb Z/p\Bbb Z$ can't have more roots than its degree
01:55
waiting
Yeah exactly
So, take the root of that equation, $r$
And look at $r^{\frac{p-1}{4}}$
Square that, you get $-1$
Yeah that works
Should I present the clever solution of the $x^2\equiv-1$ thing that I was thinking of?
Sure
So the idea is that we can take the integers mod $p$, so there's $p$ of those,
and partition the nonzero ones into sets of the form $\{x,x^{-1},-x,-x^{-1}\}$
Essentially you're writing an equivalence where $x\sim y$ iff one of $x$, $x^{-1}$, $-x$, and $-x^{-1}$ is $\equiv y$
One of these sets, the equivalence classes, is $\{1,-1\}$
@AkivaWeinberger are a professor or something?
For all other $x$, all of the elements of the equivalence class containing $x$ are distinct… unless $x=-x^{-1}$
@LucasHenrique Nah
02:00
you guys, in general, are so clever.
I'm quoting a proof I didn't come up with
^He knows the great Lobachevsky
Now if $p$ is $1$ mod $4$ then the number of nonzero things is a multiple of $4$
^^That's a Tom Lehrer reference
Look up the song "Lobachevsky"
Also while you're at it, look up "Numberwang" if you want to know what math is all about
So if most of those equivalence classes have four elements, and one of them has two elements, we need another one to have two elements as well for it to work
(otherwise we'd have that the number of nonzero things is 2 mod 4)
So, we need an element such that $x\equiv-x^{-1}$
Multiply both sides by $x$, you get $x^2\equiv -1$
QED
(I implicitly assumed that the only solutions to $x\equiv x^{-1}$ were $1$ and $-1$.
But that has to be true, because that's equivalent to $x^2\equiv1$,
and so any solution satisfies $(x+1)(x-1)=x^2-1\equiv0$.
When working modulo a prime number, the product of nonzero things is nonzero, so either $x+1\equiv0$ or $x-1\equiv0$,
02:07
Nifty
and so $x$ is either $1$ or $-1$.)
Actually wait I don't remember how the proof that $p = a^2 + b^2 \iff x^2 \equiv -1 \mod p$ is solvable goes
Gimme a sec
@Daminark I did it above
$x+i$ has norm divisible by $p$
Factor it into Gaussian primes
Nonreal Gaussian primes have prime norm
For Integrals in the form $\frac{1}{2 \pi i} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(\zeta)}{(\zeta - z)} d \zeta;$ as seen in complex analysis is their a way to apporximate them
so one of them must have norm equal to $p$
02:09
Hi -- can someone please help me with this question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2376054/satisfying-the-following-determinant-inequality
thank you!
Well that's $f(z)$
@Zophikel I think it's always less than the circumference of the path times the maximum value of the integrand's absolute value on the path
@Daminark I know but how would one approimate an integral in that form "
Well, I know there's the length of $\gamma$ times a bound on the integrand, beyond that I dunno
To approximate it, reparametrize it into a real integral and use stuff like the trapezoid rule and stuff, I guess
02:10
@Akiva somehow I think there might be another way to do this
@AkivaWeinberger you have an example of how to do that
I'm forgetting why nonreal Gaussian primes have prime norm
@AkivaWeinberger would the ML Inequality work ?
I forget what that is
In mathematics the estimation lemma, also known as the ML inequality, gives an upper bound for a contour integral. If f is a complex-valued, continuous function on the contour Γ and if its absolute value | f (z) | is bounded by a constant M for all z on Γ, then | ∫ Γ f ( z ) d z | ≤ M l ( Γ ) , {\displaystyle \left|\int...
02:14
@Akiva think about this
@AkivaWeinberger note for the integral I gave $\gamma$ would be the closed disk
If $a^2 + b^2 = p$, then $a^2 \equiv -b^2 \mod p$
Oh yeah so isn't that what both Dami and I already mentioned? @Zophikel
@Akiva true I just didn't think the ML-Inequality would work for the case of a the integral being definted on a closed disk
Since I usually see it being employed on Contours such as the semi=circular contour
@Zophikel you can't integrate over the disk in this case, you've got a singularity
02:22
@Daminark oh dang :(
Also what you wrote was a 1-form
I broke Reddit?
@Daminark then how would you go about evaluating the integral ?
You want to integrate over the circle, not the disk
"Disk" means the 2D thing that includes its interior
02:28
ahhhh ok Cauchy's INtegral Formula
bassically
The "circle" is the boundary of the disk
ahhh ok
Also I love this error picture Reddit also has
:)
that's a cat and ?
That looks so sad
02:35
so @AkivaWeinberger evaulating the integral: $\frac{1}{2 \pi i} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(\zeta)}{(\zeta - z)} d \zeta; = f(z)$
I feel like I did something wrong
Isn't that literally the statement of the Cauchy integral formula
@BAYMAX The Reddit alien
yeah pretty much
ohh...I see..looks like little Baymax with red eyes :)
03:12
@Abcd I just haven't appeared in this chat.
03:35
Can anyone point out what's wrong with my expression for this integral (mathematica): s11.postimg.org/wm5tr85z7/Capture.png I have the partial (wrt x) of an unknown function (in x and y) = function * constants. Not sure how to enter this abstractly in mathematica
04:30
Is "derpy" in Merriam-Webster yet
No but Oxford has it
@AkivaWeinberger I actually didn't understand your argument here.
if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n}$ converges then $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1 + a_{n}}$ diverges I think?
as $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 1 - \frac{1}{1 + a_{n}}$
well, writing that as a partial fraction does not help. :p
the first term itself diverges
yes. does the second one also diverge? idk, i suck at series
if the first diverges and the second converges, I think that the series should diverge
04:40
If any one diverges then the whole will diverge
its like a single bad grape will spoil the whole bunch of good grapes :)
I also think it doesnot even matter whether $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}$ converges or not
@BAYMAX not, maybe?
I mean
any how the summing of $1'$s will make the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_{n}}{1 + a_{n}}$
divergent!
$\Sigma n - n$ converges
I mean $\frac{a_{n}}{1 + a_{n}}$
you have two divergent series
04:43
form only
but still the question spirals
may be $\frac{1}{1 +a_{n}} $ is divergent
and the difference of two divergent series may or may not be convergent!
so it matters that does $\frac{1}{1 + a_{n}}$ is cvgt or dvgt
also how that will affect
when $a_{n}$ are positive real numbers
for all n
@AkivaWeinberger, @Daminark: we could have applied Euler's criterion directly, so we could jump to the abstract algebra part.
@LucasHenrique Most of those sets have 4 elements. At least one of them has 2 elements. They're all disjoint. Thus, the total amount of elements is going to be 4+4+…+4+4+2
I mean, that's what's gonna happen if there's only one with 2 elements
If there's two with 2 elements, the total is gonna be 4+4+…+4+4+2+2
Note that the total should be p-1, which is a multiple of 4 (we're looking at the nonzero numbers mod p)
4+4+…+4+4+2 is not a multiple of 4, so that can't happen
To take an example, let's say $p=13$.
The sets are then {1,12}, {2,11,7,6}, {3,10,9,4}, {5,8}
(Remember, each set is of the form $\{x,-x,x^{-1},-x^{-1}\}$)
Because the total has to be 13-1=12, a multiple of four, there has to be a set like {5,8} in there
which only has two elements because $-5^{-1}=5$
And, indeed, $5^2=25=-1$
(mod 13)
user84215
05:05
After your astonishing participation in the first event, The Ways That New Groups Can Be Constructed From Given Groups, I have decided to create the second one. Please inform me of your suggestions by pinging me or posting in Discussing Specific Topics.
user84215
Thanks.
why there can't be a set with only one element? and why "most" of the sets have 4 elements? why do at least one have 2 elements?
To have a set of one element, it sounds like you'd need $x=-x=x^{-1}=-x^{-1}$.
But $x=-x\implies 2x=0$ mod $p$. Which means $p$ would have to be even so that $x=p/2$.
So $p$ would have to be even.
OOOOOH.
Equivalence classes.
That's simply brilliant
@Akiva tbh, Euler's method is easier, but your approach is very cool
yeah. now it's easy to see why the sets can only be of sizes 4 or two.
I see this $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1 + a_{n}} < \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n}$
so if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n}$ converges
then so does $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_{n}}{1 + a_{n}}$
05:23
Hi -- can someone please help me with this question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2376054/satisfying-the-following-determinant-inequality
thank you!
05:37
What is the smartest way to determine the values of the killing form for the adjoint representation (Lie algebras)?

Say for example I want to calculate the killing form for $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\Bbb C)$. Then I can write out the adjoint matrices, and then due to the trace satisfying $\text{tr}(AB)=\text{tr}(BA)$ I only have to calculate $6$ products $k(e,e),k(e,f),k(e,h),k(f,f),k(f,h),k(h,h)$. Is there a smarter way?
Hi all. I came across this post and am trying to understand the step that u/quantumelixir posted. He eliminates t from two equations and ends up with a clean equation, but I haven't yet been able to reproduce his result. Can someone give me any pointers?
can someone provide a proof for this?
Let $\mathrm{N}(\alpha)$ denote the norm of $\alpha \in \Bbb Z [i]$. Show that $\mathrm{N}(\alpha)$ is composite $\implies \alpha$ is composite.
05:54
What have you tried?
Nothing. I mean, I don't even know where to start.
Tried writing out $N(\alpha)$ for an arbitary $\alpha=a+bi$?
That's why I'll start @Ted's book on abstract algebra
Where did you come across this?

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