Let us define $f(x)$ to be the Dirichlet function:
$$f(x)=\begin{cases}1,&x\in\mathbb Q\\0,&x\notin\mathbb Q\end{cases}$$
How do we prove that:
$$\forall x\in\mathbb Q\implies \lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x-h)}h\text{ exists}$$
$$\forall x\notin\mathbb Q\implies \lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x-h)}h\text{ doesn't exist}$$