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18:04
can someone pls give me a quick hint how to show, that $(n!)^{1/n}$ diverges?
Uhm, this might be very easy, but can anyone give me hints on how to prove that if a series of positive harmonic functions converge uniformly on an open set of a Riemann surface,then the series converges uniformly on all compact subsets of the surface?
I tried applying harnack's lemma
@Felix.C Take the logarithms
Then apply some kind of Cesaro probably
$n! > n^n$, so $(n!)^{1/n} > n$
Salut @Astyx
oh, Balarka' still exists ... ?
Salut
18:11
Indeed
$n! \gt n^n$ ?
@EricSilva: Just wanted to let you know I finally heard from Mike Spivak. He's fine. Apparently Amazon "misplaced" a box of 60 of the physics books, so it is temporarily out of print. He will get more copies printed when he has the money to do so.
@Astyx That would be interesting.
Corollary : Balarka is interesting
@Astyx Yeah
Well, let's not get carried away, Astyx.
18:12
@Astyx Never heard of that guys...I'm also not sure how to use logarithm..do you mean something with series expansion?
Any number smaller than $n$ is greater than $n$
Over there >>>>^^^^ it says he's dumb.
That was Soham starring my message :(
And I helped him!!
I'm really at my wit's end dealing with this OP. I wonder if mathematics is an appropriate thing for him to be studying.
So the answer clearly is Yes, @Balarka'.
sad reacts only
18:14
@Felix.C A way to go around this is to fix $N\in\Bbb N$ and notice $n! \ge (N-1)!N^{n-N}$
(for $n$ big enough)
The moral of the story, @Balarka', is to stop helping people. Like Mike and I have. :)
Nah Soham is a good friend
"friend"
So I don't really know how to prove $(n!)^{1/n}$ diverges other than my troll-kek-proof.
I don't get to use Stirling?
18:16
I've given two possible ways (which are equivalent really)
Yeah without that
@Ted You can't put equivalents to the power $1\over n$ can you ?
How 'bout weak Stirling just from essentially the integral test (with $\log$)?
What does "equivalents" mean, @Astyx?
I mean that it's the same computations, but not expressed in the same way
Was that answering the question I just asked?
18:18
No, Balarka's
So the inequality you get from integrating $\log$ from $1$ to $n$ should suffice, I think.
if a series of positive harmonic function converges uniformly on an open set, does it converge normally?
$\ln (n!^{1/n}) = {1\over n}\sum_{k=1}^n \ln k$
Oh, I see.
And the latter diverges to $+\infty$
(Cause of Cesaro)
18:19
Hmm. GM > HM says (n!)^(1/n) > n/H_n
I guess I can use the O(log n) bound on H_n
HM ?
Harmonic Mean
Don't know of this
It's just inverse of the AM of the reciprocals
GM > HM is a consequence of AM > GM applied to reciprocals
It's "easy"
Right, fair enough
18:22
So, yeah, H_n < log(n + 1) + gamma
That means (n!)^(1/n) > n/(log(n+1) + gamma)
However GM/HM seems a bit nonelementary given it comes from convexity
That does diverge
But sure it would work
SO none of you has advice on what further I should(n't) say to the person who can't see a linear relation among $t$, $1/t-t$, and $1+1/t$?
@Astyx AM-GM can be proved by elementary means?
Induction 101. You prove it for powers of 2 and fill in the rest.
18:23
Huh, the induction is hardcore IIRC
Like you prove it for powers of two
SNIPED
It's tedious but fine
REVENGE
Heya @Alessandro
@Astyx SNIPED
GET REKT
18:25
Pfff, so low ..
It's a technique devised by Daminark
@Ted Don't lose your nerves on this question, you can say that you don't have time right now and move on
Hi @PaulPlummer
Hi @BalarkaSen
I'm not losing nerve(s). Other than just writing down the answer, I don't see what to do. But it makes me sad.
18:26
Yeah, probably advise him to take some time off and think about it with a clearer mind
@PaulPlummer What's new?
Also hi @Araske
hello
Hi
And bye, I need to go and eat
Me too soon. Bon appétit!
Merci à toi aussi !
18:28
See ya
Nothing much @BalarkaSen There is a question I have been thinking about, but haven't gotten anywhere with it. The question is asking if the non seperating curve graph for surfaces $S_{g,n}$ is $\delta_g$-hyperbolic (independent of $n$, and say $g>2$).. How about yourself?
hi @PaulP.
Hi @Semiclassic.
18:38
Hi @Ted
Hi @Semi
Hi @TedShifrin
Hi @PVAL
@TedShifrin I was thinking of starting to play bridge, just for the fun, would you recommend not thinking to much about elaborate betting stuff when starting out, or do you think a lot of the fun is in that.
19:10
the entire game is bidding...
"elaborate betting", I guess all the different conventions is what I am talking about, or just develop strategies through more "organic" means
19:26
@PaulPlummer You need to know the conventions, or your partner will get way too confused about what you mean
@PaulPlummer I see. Well, I have been studying Riemannian geometry
cool how has that been going? @BalarkaSen
@TobiasKildetoft Well I was thinking about playing with people who have about as much experience as I have, which is pretty much 0 and if we had anything we would agree on it before hand. I guess I was thinking a more "logical" play would feel more satisfying than have some arbitrary coded messages, but I haven't really played except for a test game or two to try to get some people interested in playing more often.
@PaulPlummer If you play with a sufficiently basic system, it is far from arbitrary
(not that the more complicated systems are arbitrary, they just might seem so at first glance)
Alright, that makes sense, I guess I just need to really start playing, and looking into different setups to get a feel for it.
19:43
@PaulPlummer There is a pretty good set of programs called Learn to Play Bridge which walks you through a basic bidding system and also teaches some of the basic techniques of the game itself
@TobiasKildetoft Cool, I will have to check them out
Hey PVAL, Tobias, Paul, and Balarka!
HI @Daminark
Hi @Daminark
@PaulPlummer It's going, but slowly
I am sitting down and doing a bunch of exercises today
Hi @Daminark, @TobiasK
19:46
How's everything going?
Were you going to do some things in GGT? How is that going (if I remember correctly)? @Daminark
I may yet do some stuff, but I am currently still in the, building up background stage
Makes sense
This summer I'm gonna do a bit of diffgeo on curves/surfaces
And then I'm gonna take an actual group theory class in the fall, so maybe sometime in the winter or spring would be when I'd do such a reading a course
I think your background on dynamics might end up helping you more on GGT than diffgeo of surfaces as background
But of course @PaulP would be able to tell you about that better than me
20:01
Hmm
Geometric Group Theory
I might agree with @BalarkaSen, but no reason not to learn some diffgeo anyways, and it does come up. Although there is probably a lot of of avenues to go having both in your pocket. Plus I am sure whoever Daminark is talking to (if anybody) knows better than I do!
At one point I messaged Danny and he recommended me this one book on Hyperbolic Geometry to start with
Which I miraculously found the same day in this pile of free books
But that book wants you to know Riemannian geometry and the like
(Perhaps it was his specific brand of GGT?)
Yah, having some knowledge of hyperbolic geometry is definitely important. And if Danny recommended it then you should probably just ignore whatever I or Balarka say.
And you should have knowledge of diff geo, you just don't need enough knowledge to be a Riemannian geometer or whatever
20:07
100% agree with everything Paul said.
What book is it, out of curiosity? @Daminark
Benedetti-Petronio
Lectures on Hyperbolic Geometry
@EricSilva Quick, remind me the formula that defines Riemannian connection uniquely out of a given metric
[This is a social test to prove Riemannian geometers have good memory]
(Well, symmetric Riemannian connection, but yeah)
{I don't have any other comments to add but I just thought using different types of parenthesis would be cool}
/kek\
<-Taking it too far->
20:15
@Things get really swirly now@
=I'm running out of characters=
\\begin{chattext} That looks like a really nice book @Daminark, and having enough diff geo to understand that should be very rewarding \\end{chattext}
123By the way, maybe they have good memory, but they're quite slow to answer :p321
<!-- Nothing to see here -->
$\langle$ So it seems @Astyx, and yeah I'd like to try the stuff out anyway @Paul $\rangle$
20:17
I have just looked at the table of context, have no idea about how it is presented though
%&They're busy, unlike us, who are also busy, but busy procrastinating&%
$\int$Fair enough$\int$
M8TW0T I should be doing work now M8TW0T
Paul's parenthesis are clearly the most original
If by Riemannian connection you mean Levi-Civita, I guess you want
$$\langle \nabla_XY,Z\rangle = \frac12 \left( X(\langle Y,Z\rangle + Y(\langle Z,X \rangle) - Z(\langle X,Y\rangle) + \langle [X,Y],Z \rangle - \langle [Y,Z],X \rangle - \langle [X,Z],Y\rangle) \right)$$
$\bigg<\text{what's going on?}\bigg>$
20:21
(correctness of signs not guaranteed)
@SteamyRoot Yeah, that's it. I could actually easily find it on doCarmo, I was just kidding with Eric. Thanks for writing it out, that helps!
Your memory is good @Steamy!
You've even retained that memory after you joined the light! :P
Steamy was a Riemannian geometer before he became a group theorist
Haha :P
"SteamyRoot"
Occupation: A Group Theory
20:23
Well, once you know that it's like a cyclic sum of vector function of metric and metric of Lie brackets
I was trying to imagine how a person can be a group theory
All you have to know is the signs :P
Maybe a cohomology theory works better
Does becoming a theory mean I lose my physical form? D:
Like, just take someone and make him satisfy the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms
Yeah @Steamy, I think the process of making you fit into a long exact sequence will probably mess up your physical form
20:29
He's the Hochschild homology theory
Well, I'd rather be in a long exact sequence than in a short one.
Because weing in the middle of a short exact sequence means you get things injected into you.
I mean May actually gave us the short exact sequence version, and derived a long exact sequence
Using the suspension axiom
Suppose we have three lines of the form $a_ix+b_iy+c_i=0, i=1,2,3$. We consider the vectors (a,b,c). When the three vectors are linearly dependent, what information do we get about the place of the three lines?
oh geez @Balarka it's long and i am too caught up in something else to type it out rn
i do remember it though
how do you even do that man
20:42
They just love nasty notation
it has enough symmetry that i can figure out what it is in my head
what a mutant
i need a page from my binded notebook to derive it out
as riemannian calculations go it's an easy one tbf
by contrast i cannot do the taylor expansion of the metric in my head
Key phrase: "As Riemannian calculations go"
it's a pretty calculational subject maaan
20:49
i am failing at a basic calculation rn
i'm terribad
a lot of calculations in riemannian geometry stuff are simple conceptually but really really long
21:05
@MaryStar Probably that they have a common intersection or something
Oh, yeah, definitely.
Well, it could also mean two of the lines are equal, I guess
@AkivaWeinberger How do we conclude that?
or that all three are parallel
Suppose $(c_1,c_2,c_3)$ is a linear combination of $(a_1,a_2,a_3)$ and $(b_1,b_2,b_3)$
For the case where $a_1x+a_2y+a_3=0$ and $b_1x+b_2y+b_3=0$ intersect at a point (that is, they're not parallel)
If $(x,y)$ is in the intersection of those, it also satisfies $c_1x+c_2y+c_3=0$ 'cause you can do the same linear combination
I guess you probably need to check the converse of that
and also the parallel case
The example I'm thinking of is the three lines $x+1=0$, $~y+1=0$, and $x+y+2=0$
all three of which are satisfied at $(-1,-1)$
and note that $(1,0,1)$, $~(0,1,1)$, and $(1,1,2)$ are linearly dependant (the latter is the sum of the first two)
21:25
Since $(c_1,c_2,c_3)$ is a linear combination of $(a_1,a_2,a_3)$ and $(b_1,b_2,b_3)$, we have that $(c_1,c_2,c_3)=m(a_1,a_2,a_3)+n(b_1,b_2,b_3)$.

At the case where $a_1x+a_2y+a_3=0$ and $b_1x+b_2y+b_3=0$ intersect at a point, say $(x_0, y_0)$ we have the following:
$$c_1x_0+c_2y_0+c_3=(ma_1+nb_1)x_0+(ma_2+nb_2)y_0+(ma_3+nb_3)=m(a_1x_0+a_2y_0+a_3)+n(b_1x_0+b_2y_0+b_3)=0+0=0$$
Therefore the thirs line intersects the other lines also at $(x_0,y_0)$.

At the case where $a_1x+a_2y+a_3=0$ and $b_1x+b_2y+b_3=0$ are parallel, we have that $(a_1, a_2)$ is parallel to $(b_1,b_2)$. That means that $(
21:53
Okay so let's say $A$ is a non-negative matrix
Also not the 0 matrix
And let $v\ne 0$ be a non-negative vector
We take its max-mod eigenvalue $\lambda$
Why is it true that for all such $v$, there are positive constants $C_1$ and $C_2$ such that $C_2(v)\lambda^k \le \|A^kv\| \le C_1(v)\lambda^k$?
One direction, I'd think is true because given some non-negative vector $v$ like so, we should have $\|A^kv\| ≤ \lambda^k \|v\|$
22:41
@Daminark It probably isn't sufficiently rigorous, but if I can write the given vectors in the eigenbasis $\{v_n\}$ as $v=\sum_n a_n v_n$ , then $A^k v=\sum_n \lambda_n^k a_k v_n$
blah, should have been $a_nv_n$ in the last expression
That assumes the matrix is diagonalizable which I don't think is necessarily the case
Okay so we figured it out, and apparently you need that the matrix is primitive as well
23:00
Hello
23:14
Hey @Hushus46!
Don't mind me, its 1am I'm just pondering whats going on in chat
23:26
@Balarka when you see this, I think I may have an idea how to prove without invoking the classification of compact connected curves that continuous retractions of a manifold to its boundary are impossible
Since the closed disk is contractible, all homotopy groups are trivial
Now, let $i:S^n\to D^{n+1}$ be the inclusion, and so a retraction would be a function $r:D^{n+1}\to S^n$ such that $r\circ i$ is the identity
But then the induced maps on their nth homotopy groups would give us the identity homomorphism on $\mathbb{Z}$ as factoring through the trivial group, which shouldn't be possible
So this should give you continuous Brouwer immediately
0
Q: If $R$ is a subring of a field $F$, then the ring of fractions is embedded in $F$

ALannisterLet $R$ be a subring of a field $F$ and $D$ a multiplicative subgroup of $R$. I need to prove that the ring of fractions $D^{-1}R$ is embedded in $F$. To do so, I began by supposing that $R$ is such a subring of $F$ and $D$ a multiplicative semigroup of $R$. Then, I noted that since the subring ...

In case anyone is able and willing to help <3
Goodnight every1
23:41
sure, Demonark.
Also found this cool proof of FTA
Let $f(x) = x^n + c_1x^{n-1} + \ldots + c_n$. Assume $f$ has no zeroes for $\|x\| \le 1$. We have an induced map $\hat{f} = \frac{f}{\|f\|}: S^1\to S^1$, so we want to compute its degree
Using $h(x,t) = \frac{f(tx)}{\|f(tx)\|}$, we can homotope $\hat{f}$ to the constant map $\frac{c_n}{\|c_n\|}$, so $\hat{f}$ has degree 0
This is the standard proof, same with (smooth) degree ...
I guess I should say a standard proof, as there are so many.
The one I always think of is the complex analysis proof.
But we can also use $H(x,t) = \frac{k(x,t)}{\|k(x,t)\|}$, where $k(x,t) = x^n + t(c_1x^{n-1} + tc_2x^{n-2} + \ldots + t^{n-1}c_n)$, so that we're homotoping $\hat{f}$ to $x^n$, so $\hat{f}$ has degree $n$. But that implies $n=0$, so we're done
@Semi using Liouville?
23:54
There are about 4 using complex analysis, offhand.
Yeah, true.
But the Liouville proof is the one I meant.
Rouché is essentially the homotopy one Demonark is citing.
Well, I know this one and one of a basically identical nature using winding number. I know how to proving it using Liouville but we're a bit behind so haven't reached it yet
You're applying Liouville to $1/f$?
23:56
I should probably give a nod to the argument-principle proof, if only because how essential the argument principle idea is to numerical analysis.
Rouché is basically a homotopy idea, but says specifically that if you change $f$ by something $g$ of smaller magnitude on a curve, then $f$ and $f+g$ have the same number of roots inside. It's basically saying that the dog you're walking goes around the block the same number of times you do. :P
Argument principle is another one.
Maximum principle is another one.
And we had the proof which basically says that outside of some large ball around the origin, you can be sure that $|f|$ is much larger than the infimum, but inside the ball you use compactness so you achieve a minimum, so that if you hop to the image, it's basically tangent but intersecting the disk of radius $\min |f|$, which isn't possible
Following up on what I said, the argument principle idea is nice because it suggests nice methods of numerical root-counting and root-finding.
In class we proved it was impossible by directly dipping into the ball via term playing, and on the pset we proved using inverse function theorem that polynomials are open mappings, which is also no good
Yeah, I usually showed both diff top and complex analysis a Mathematica animation doing that.

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