I am given the space $V$ of continuous functions $[0,2\pi] \to \mathbb{R}$ with a scalar product $\langle f,g \rangle = \int_{0}^{2\pi}f(x)g(x) \mathrm{d}x$, and the subset $U$ of $V$, which contains all the functions $f \in V$ with $f(0)=0$. I have to define the $U^{\perp}$.
So, I mention that $\sin \in U$, so maybe finding $f$-s with $\langle f, \sin \rangle=0$ will say me something about $U^{\perp}$. So, I search for functions with $\int_{0}^{2\pi}f(x)\sin(x) \mathrm{d}x = 0$.
Integration by parts: $\int_{0}^{2\pi}f(x)\sin(x) \mathrm{d}x = \frac{\sin (x) \cdot (F(2\pi)-F(0))}{2}$. This equals 0, if the antiderivative $F$ of $f$ has the same values at $0$ and $2\pi$. So, all functions with that property are orthogonal to $\sin$. Is that really true?
I actually wanted to show that $f$ should be $0$, but it does not look as such at the moment.
@EricSilva using the questions I asked you before I can say that $F$ should be differentiable in $(0,2\pi)$, so there must be either Minimum or Maximum in that intervall where $f(x)=0$. But then I lose argumentation.
I read this argument in but I am not able to follow it. Can anyone help? X,Y be i.i.d Normal r.v.s Let L=Max(X,Y) M=Min(X,Y) then by symmetry (-X,-Y) has the same distribution as (X,Y) so Variance(M)=Variance(L)
The Indiana Pi Bill is the popular name for bill #246 of the 1897 sitting of the Indiana General Assembly, one of the most notorious attempts to establish mathematical truth by legislative fiat. Despite its name, the main result claimed by the bill is a method to square the circle, rather than to establish a certain value for the mathematical constant π, the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. The bill, written by amateur mathematician Edward J. Goodwin, does imply various incorrect values of π, such as 3.2.
The bill never became law, due to the intervention of Professor C....
We may laugh at the Pi Bill, but there's a hell of a lot of bad legislation nowadays that is just as ill-informed and yet doesn't get nearly this attention.
The other aspect of the Pi Bill is that it was not so much about "defining Pi" as proclaiming the successes and brilliance of a certain amateur mathematician
"The text of the bill consists of a series of mathematical claims (detailed below), followed by a recitation of Goodwin's previous accomplishments: '... his solutions of the trisection of the angle, doubling the cube and quadrature of the circle having been already accepted as contributions to science by the American Mathematical Monthly ... And be it remembered that these noted problems had been long since given up by scientific bodies as unsolvable mysteries and above man's ability to comprehend.'"
Or I mean, whichever sect of Christianity it is, the point stands that if a given sect dictates that the Bible is literal, then as far as they are concerned it's literal
The reason I bring this up is that in Islam at least, the Quran is the verbatim word of God, and if anyone tries to change from that, it's automatically illegitimate, no questions asked. Similarly, the dominant sect also just dismisses the others.
And it's because the others made claims that weren't backed by the Quran or by any verified authentic narrations of the prophet, so the sunni sect is just like "You guys are making shit up so what you say has no value"
I think it's also worth noting that while there are definitely people who read the Bible very literally nowadays, historically I think that's not the dominant trend.
We know the Old Testament down to the letter. The only dispute is a single vowel mark somewhere in the middle 'cause they're not usually written, and the two options are pronounced the same in Modern Hebrew anyway
I mean to be fair I've read nothing of the New Testament so I wouldn't know, but I was thinking that Christ and the people of his time who transcribed it were more likely to speak something like the Syrian language or Hebrew
That meant that, despite the dominant role of Christianity in medieval Europe, the number of people who could actually read the Bible was much much smaller.
@Semi there was also the christianization of a shit load of pagan stories which complicates the average medieval europeans relationship with christianity
yeah that's when it happened to my parents in brazil
there's actually a poem i read (dream of the rood i think in modern english) where the cross was treated as jesus' warrior-retainer (in the germanic warrior tradition) and jesus as a warrior king
there was a lot of verbal gymnastics that happened to deal with the fact that he was executed and didnt die in battle
I have to wonder how much Islam and Christianity have varied historically, come to think of it, as far as how much reliance there was on literal interpretation.
With Christianity I know that the focus on literal interpretation becomes significant once people could actually start reading the Bible for themselves.
But I don't know about Islam. There's always been fundamentalist versions of it, I'm sure, but I don't know how that worked under the Ottoman Empire versus after.
so what people decided was each time should teach us something new
so essentially the law expands with each time the phrase appears, until it became "Don't eat dairy and meat in the same meal, and also if you have meat don't eat anything with milk in it for a few hours"
In the meantime, something must have gotten messed up because while we're so strict about the whole mother's milk thing, we have absolutely no problem shmearing it with its mother's liver!
(I don't know how much liver is used in non-Jewish cuisines. It doesn't taste too bad)
The definition of the implied derivative is given below:
$$I(f,g) = g(x)\lim_{h \to 0^+} \frac {f(x+h) - f(x)}{h} + (1-g(x))\lim_{h \to 0^-} \frac {f(x+h) - f(x)}{h}$$
where $f$ is the function being differentiated and $g$ is an arbitrary characteristic function to encapsule the fact that the i...
In Medina the religion was welcomed, and that's when a lot of the restrictive rules were revealed. Those are extremely specific in most contexts, like there's a verse which just says how you're supposed to handle debt
@AkivaWeinberger fair enough. for a second there i thought maybe I was having another freaky dream where I go like a whole day of working on stuff only to wake up and find out it was a dream and that now I have to actually do in real life all over again. In other words... a passive-aggressive nightmare... they are the worst.
There was actually a dream I had last week where semiclasical was drunk, akiva spilt chemicals in their lab and the combination of the two of them being incoherent created hilarity.
@Semi I'm not terribly familiar with the Ottoman empire, but I do know that the Safavid Persian empire was the main pioneer of the second sect of Islam, called "Shia"
The idea that sorta led to it was that there were 3 people considered "caliphs" (elected as religious/political leader for life), and the 4th was the Prophet's cousin
Now, some subset of people felt that the Prophet's cousin should've been given precedence, and there was some stuff that fell out of that, I think some notion of 12 saints, etc etc
But I think the Shia sect came to prominence only with the Safavids
I'd guess Ottomans probably didn't do too much to the religion
@Akiva i think the idea is that if $\{F_{i}\}$ is a countable disjoint collection of closed sets covering the interval you could find a descending sequence of intervals $I_{i}$ satisfying $I_{i} \cap F_{i} = \emptyset$. Then $\bigcap I_{i}$ is empty, but the unit interval is compact so it's not empty.
Sure. I meant 'demand' in the sense of supply vs. demand.
i.e. if it's not supported after Mathematica has been around this long then probably it's because not a lot of people actually have to do those integrals.
Also, if you're doing this in the context of an application to a specific problem, often times the extra info that the exact solution contains is just plain not trustworthy in the context of the motivating problem
i mean having taken a reading course that was basically "read this book" and one that was like "read a bunch of papers and talk to me about them", the second is better
If I think that taking atop outright would be too redundant, depending on who's teaching, but I still want to do a bit more before grad, I might try asking someone in that direction
The other side I'm thinking of is something number theory-related
But apparently it's a close enough comparison that there's a kind of 'nonlinear steepest descent' that can be applied to a Riemann-Hilbert problem in order to extract numerics/asymptotics.
So at least at the level of strategy it's very similar to the classical approach.