Guys, in the proof that $D_{12}f(a,b)=D_{21}f(a,b)$ for $f\colon E\to\mathbb R^2$, a $C^2$-function, we eventually get: $D_{21}f(\xi_1,\xi_2)=D_{12}(\eta_1,\eta_2)$, if that is familiar. Now my book says that by the continuity of $D_{21}$ and $D_{12}$, it follows that $D_{21}f(a,b)=D_{12}f(a,b)$.
I kind of can’t make this rigorous for some reason. Now $\lim_{h,k\to 0}D_{21}f(\xi_1,\xi_2)=D_{21}f(a,b)$, but how can we conclude then that the two limits are equal? So for each $h,k$, we can find $\eta_1\in(a,a+h)$ and $\eta_2\in(b,b+)$, and $\xi_1\in(a,a+h)$, $\xi_2\in(b,b+k)$, such that that equality holds. I don’t want to resort to actually proving it by contradiction or what now.
I think it should be pretty straight forward, but I don’t see it for some reason. Or should I actually prove it, using continuity?