@TedShifrin i tried a few different things i said $ (1+\frac {1}{n})^n=c $ then tried to ln both sides and take the limit of n to infinity to try and show that ln(c)=1 so $c=e^1 $ but it just didnt feel like it i wasnt breaking some logarithmic law when i was putzing around with it. i think it might be easier to show $ (1+\frac {x}{n})^n = e^x $ at least then i could use the MVT and FMToC any hints how to approach this better?
hey, question for y'all: if $n \equiv 0$ (mod $3$) and we are considering polynomials over $\mathbb{F}_3[x]$, is it true that $\text{gcd}\,(x^n-1, x^m+x^k+1) \mid x^{n/3}+x^{2n/3}+1$ for every choice of distinct $k,m \in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$?
@MikeMiller @TedShifrin Ok, turns out the framed cobordism group of surfaces in $\Bbb R^N$ is generated by the torus with it's Lie group framing. This was proved by Pontryagin, using the Arf invariant.
@AkivaWeinberger I guess that means generic preimage of your map is indeed the torus.
I have no idea how to prove any of this and would love a reference.
So for some context, I was in a proof writing class a couple months back. I really liked it and did quite well, but midway through the course we were doing things regarding the norm of these other kinds of integers (elements of $\textbf{Z}[\sqrt{3}]$). Basically things like the fact that there is...
correct me if I am wrong, but would any ring created by appending solutions to polynomials also have the same norm property assuming it had unique prime factorization up to units?
You should learn BenjaLim's answer, which provides a general method for dealing with this kind of problems. However, here is a simple answer just for fun. Note that
$$
A^2=
\begin{pmatrix}
1&0&0\\
1&1&0\\
1&0&1\end{pmatrix}
=I+\underbrace{\begin{pmatrix}
0&0&0\\
1&0&0\\
1&0&0\end{pmatrix}}_{L}...
@TedShifrin i think i maybe got it lets assume the limit could converge to some constant L so $L=\lim_{n \to \infty} (1+ \frac {1}{n})^n$ next ln both sides to yield $\ln (L)=lim_{n \to \infty} \space n\space \ln (1+ \frac {1}{n})$ if we let $ h =\frac {1}{n} $ then we have $\ln (L)=lim_{h \to 0} \frac{1}{h} \ln (1+h)$
or $\ln (L)=lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\ln (1+h)}{h}$ now the FToC should let $f^{'}(c) = lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\ln (1+h)}{h}$ now we know that the original function was $f(x)=\ln(1+x)$ so $f^{'}(c) = \frac {1}{1+c}= \ln (L) $ so $L=e^{\frac{1}{1+c}} $ now $ c \in \mathbb{R} $ but more than that $c \geq 0$ i think c is bounded above by $\frac {1}{n} $as $ n\to \infty $ so $L=e$ ?