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20:00
So there's some finite probability you never return, hence transient
But if p=q, 0 is recurrent
Which is intuitive
Same for all integers, in fact
Sounds plausible
Every integer is recurrent if the chances are equal and transient otherwise
Ill buy it ;)
20:02
Yeah
29
Q: If I publish under a pseudonym, can I still take credit for my work?

C.E.Sally Is it possible to publish under a nom de plume (pen name, pseudonym)? ... and still take credit for the work? I may have a chance to publish with the professor I am working with soon and if I am on the list of authors I would like to use a nom de plume, but I would also like to use the publica...

So...
I have this plan in my far far future:
We proved the $1-|p-q|$ i think but im not intetested in the proof now
Yeah.
Tedious way is to write down the probability of returning with n steps
So that would be ... an infinitely large stochastic matrix :o
And then take the limit
20:05
Since it is currently scheduled that I will be catching up on abstract algebra and other topics related to the integral project in the future, and suppose I (or we if I had some other collaborators) got lucky and did find something worthwhile, obviously the first step to get acceptance in the mainstream is to publish it. However
Right, so a multiplicative sequence $K(1+x_1+x_2+\dots)=1+K_1(x_1)+K_2(x_1,x_2)+\dots$ is supposed to be determined by a power series via the relation $K(1+t)=f(t)$
Sure, but the matrix itself will be simple
We only did finite matrices in class
It'll be p on the first subdiagonal and q on the first superdiagonal
In a mult. seq. you are allowed to plug in all things of the form $1+a_1+a_2+\dots\in \cal A^{\Pi}_1$ where $\mathcal A$ is a graded, commutative $R$-algebra with unit, $\cal A^\Pi$ are the formal power series in it and $\cal A^\Pi_1$ are those that start with $1$
So if you consider the special case $\mathcal A=R[t]$ where $t$ has degree one
Then plugging in $1+t$ makes sense
20:08
ok
So what you get is $1+K_1(t)+K_2(t,0)+K_3(t,0,0)+\dots$
so it is kind of surprising at least to me that you can recover all of the multiplicative sequence (recall that multiplicative means that $K(ab)=K(a)K(b)$ for $a,b\in \mathcal A^\Pi_1$)
And 0 everywhere else?
So now on to the way how to recover it
sorry remind me are the K_i symmetric?
No
20:09
No of course not my bad
The $K_i$ are homogeneous of degree $i$
there's a catch. (Unless I can find collaborators that are from the maths community), that will mean I will be literally trying to publish all by myself onto some suitable journal. While yes at such far ahead in the future I will definitely have an institution email address to refer to, since I am a chemist and never have actual pure maths training, if I post under my real name and got rejected, that might unecessarily affect the reputation of my institution.
What should be the best course of action? By that time, I might be 40 or 50 something, should I take formal maths degree in that fiel
Guys help on number 23 plz
20:09
if the elements $x_1,\dots,x_n$ has degrees $1,\dots,n$
yeah I got it
OK
So how to recover it: Say we want to recover $K_j(x_1,\dots,x_j)$
I see why you think this is the splitting principle now. Please go on
Take any $n\geq j$ and consider the $n$-fold product $f(t_1)\cdots f(t_n)$. It is symmetric in the indeterminates by construction, hence can be expressed in terms of polynomials of elementary symmetric polynomials. Arrange the expression order-by-order (the order is given by the sum of the exponents; all $t_i$ have order one). You obtain something like $f(t_1)\cdots f(t_n)=1+P_1(\sigma_1)+P_2(\sigma_1,\sigma_2)+\dots$ for polynomials $P_j$ which contain all the order-$j$ terms. In fact $K_j=P_j$
The independence of the choice of $n$ follows from some elementary symmetric polynomials shit, as does uniqueness of the $K_j$ recovered in this way
I suspect there's a way to translate this entirely into bundles and line bundle language, yeah
20:13
Yes ofc 0 everywhere else because the needle cant skip squares
:)
And they do satisfy the relation $K(1+t)=f(t)$ since $$K(1+t)=1+K_1(t)+K_2(t,0)+K_3(t,0,0)+\dots=1+K_1(\sigma_1(t))+K_2(\sigma_1(t),\‌​sigma_2(t,0))+\dots=f(t)f(0)\cdots f(0)=f(t)$$
My chatjax is giving me an error on that $\sigma_2$ but it's correctly typed...
dafuq
The algebraic component of the splitting principle is that the map BU(1)^n -> BU(n) is injective on cohomology, and I think what you're saying here is something like that the map from a product of a bunch of A's to A[[t]], or something like this. I don't quite understand the algebra well enough
So what exaclty is going on here... I'm so weirded out on this
@Semiclassical if p=q the needle will visit EVERY number at least once almost surely?
@Danu It's a character limit thing
20:15
The problem is mostly that this symmetric polynomial stuff is essentially black magic to me
@BalarkaSen Oh...
But i think you want to do it st the nth level for each n and get an injection of some relevant algebras
@MikeMiller I understand the splitting principle purely in terms of projectivized bundles and the Leray-Hirsch theorem.
@GFauxPas Good question. I think so?
The way you interpret the splitting principle is that char class formulas are true if determined on line bundles, and here you're saying formulas are true if they're true on line bundles
@Mike I have finished The Crying of Lot 49 for quite some time now, still don' t get it
20:17
So is that really what I'm saying though? I don't quite understand how this $K(1+t)$ corresponds to taking a line bundle @MikeMiller
you're saying the same thing algebraically, with a graded algebra replacing the graded "algebra" of vector bundles
I think this is the crucial ingredient that I'm missing
Using the $t_i$ that are all degree 1
Corresponds to line bundles
In some way... but I don't understand exactly how
Id think so, because each state is markov
20:18
Line bundles are degree 1?
Yeah, of course, I got that far :P
No matter where i am, the probability of returning to that state ignores how i got there
But it's not so clear to me what EXACTLY K is supposed to model
And you're saying things are determined by their values on monomials in degree 1 elements
20:19
it's not just "give me a vector bundle and I give you a class"
it's more like "give me some class and I give you a different class related to it"
so I don't see what exactly "line bundle" translates to
It depends on this being 1D, though. I think it's false if you work in 3D?
How do you post a link in latex
I don't understand the question. I doubt I can help though.
@MikeMiller Maybe we can be very concrete
I copied and pasted a link but the whole things is not in blue
20:20
Well.were on a strip
Consider the multiplicative sequence given by formal inversion of a power series with leading term 1
$K(a)=a^{-1}$. What that does is take a Chern class, for instance, and give you the Chern class of a bundle such that the sum is trivial
So 1d
I do not know multiplicative sequences in a concrete helpful way
Which is why I can't help you
And whyd you skip.2d
20:20
kk
Know anyone here who does?
sorry
Ted would be the only one...
Oh btw, I got my rejection letter from Bonn's PhD program today :sadface:
(but I already knew that was coming since I'd talked to the guy I wanted to work with there and he'd said no)
I'm sorry :(
20:21
:(
Still sad
Wait, @Danu, didn't you just enter your msc?
From Wikipedia's page on random walks: "Will the person ever get back to the original starting point of the walk? This is the 2-dimensional equivalent of the level crossing problem discussed above. It turns out that the person almost surely will in a 2-dimensional random walk, but for 3 dimensions or higher, the probability of returning to the origin decreases as the number of dimensions increases. In 3 dimensions, the probability decreases to roughly 34%."
Or am I getting old?
@AndrewThompson No.
This is the end of my third year
20:23
I was doing 1d case
Oh. IIRC you started with physics and changed to math, right?
But I'm sure that I still give the impression of being an undergrad :D
Yes, I switched about a year ago. Though I did some courses before that
Sure, but that's why I skipped to 3D
Ahh, then it makes sense. Which other places are you applying to?
Several others in Germany
20:24
It's the first dimensionality for which 0 isn't recurrent when the probabilities are equal
Good. Bonn is very highly competitive, I imagine.
I guess it's the most prestigious place in Germany.
Whats intetesting in the p=q case is that the rv "how many steps until you come back" has infinite mean
What was your thesis on?
It's not done yet, but it's on complex geometry (but rather the differential-geometric side of it)
20:29
Like a proper ex-physicist :)
Maybe? I'd say it's lacking in the differential-equations side of things.
For a physicist, that is.
I wouldn't know. My DG-friends are all afraid that the world will slowly turn them into physicists.
Really? Lol
They must have no idea about what physicists do
@Ted uhm, if $(aN)(bN)$ can be considered as $\{ahbh'\mid h,h'\in N\}$, then it is easy to show
They don't (and neither do I.)
20:31
Unless they're into this global analysis kind of stuff. That's pretty close to physics (all calculations in local coordinates...)
I have no idea what physicists do.
Any sufficiently mathematicians who have published paper experience before here?
Just ask your question. Nobody's going to volunteer themselves in response to that.
I already asked my question at least 20 something posts above, (but I will repost it if necessary)
@Akiva It's still 70 + 21 though
Also hi/rehi chat
20:37
REPOSTED:
I am pondering about a plan in the far far future:
Since it is currently scheduled that I will be catching up on abstract algebra and other topics related to the integral project in the future, and suppose I (or we if I had some other collaborators) got lucky and did find something worthwhile, obviously the first step to get acceptance in the mainstream is to publish it. However there's a catch. (Unless I can find collaborators that are from the maths community), that will mean I will be literally trying to publish all by myself onto some suitable journal. While yes at such far ah
@Danu Lol' d
Zee
Zee
@Secret some journals have anonymous submittions
You get peer reviewed incognito I mean
hmm ok, didn't knew that
@Krijn :)))
Zee
Zee
@Secret am no mathematician but my advice is to focus on getting concrete results and all else is trivial in some sense, this isn't philosophy after all
20:42
...or should I say :((((( hahaha
@Zee define "concrete results", else this is philosophy after all
Zee
Zee
Something that a mathematcian can use in his research
@Danu I have the same feeling
After 5 years of studying mathematics, I realised that I have almost no knowledge of mathematics
Just the trivial thingies
Hey @Ted, have a very academia related question for you (see above)
Hi @Danu
@Zee I think for me, the hardest thing is not getting the results (positive or no goes) but how to present them coherently and that the proofs make sense
20:47
morning @TedShifrin
@Secret: I can't really give solid advice. It really depends whether the "something" is of interest and worth publishing. Most refereeing in math is not done blind, which means that a referee would know your name and your (lack of) academic position, but that doesn't mean that it wouldn't be accepted with the right content and aim at academic journal.
Hi @Faust7.
@Krijn i know how u feel
Welcome back, Ted
Thanks, Danu.
I see, I will keep that in mind, thanks guys
20:49
I hope the trip back wasn't too bad
...cause I GOT SOME QUESTIONS FOR YOU
I'm still pretty brain-dead after the 24-hour day of travel.
It's mostly philosophy
and about some of your favorite topics
Nice philosophy or eww philosophy
Philosophy is best served when brain-dead
Zee
Zee
lol
20:50
@Astyx: When the server is brain-dead or when the recipient is?
So I'm looking to give an explanation of both the Chern-Weil set-up for characteristic classes and the one through multiplicative sequences
Both, for optimal results
Both give ways to define characteristic classes, but in a kind of different way
To me, Chern-Weil is geometric and explicit. The other stuff is formal algebra.
I just discussed this with Mike a bit
Exactly, the multiplicative stuff is pretty algebraic
but it's still somehow really close to the other things
20:52
Well, it's all pretty algebraic (invariant theory underlies Chern-Weil). But I stress "formal."
1) Where are the invariant polynomials in the multiplicative sequence approach? Are they hidden somewhere? The invariance of the polynomials seems crucial in the Chern-Weil approach
Hello! Anyone familliar with model theory? Need some help with notions.
I suppose they're buried in the (invariant) cohomology of the classifying spaces.
Do you somehow always construct things to correspond to invariant polynomials in the mult. seq. approach? Where is this hidden?
I don't really think about classifying spaces for any of this, I must admit
I haven't thought about multiplicative sequence stuff since grad school.
I no longer have Hirzebruch's book to refer to, either.
20:54
2) What exactly is the correspondence between the splitting principle and the way one reconstructs a mult. seq. from its characteristic power series?
I just explained the latter process to Mike in case you wanna take a look
49 mins ago, by Danu
Right, so a multiplicative sequence $K(1+x_1+x_2+\dots)=1+K_1(x_1)+K_2(x_1,x_2)+\dots$ is supposed to be determined by a power series via the relation $K(1+t)=f(t)$
But I can't quite pin down what's going on in the background; it might be hidden in the black magic that is elementary symmetric polynomials
Yeah, the orthogonal and/or unitary invariant theory is buried in those polynomials, I'm pretty sure.
So did Hirzebruch come up with both of these things at exactly the same time?
I mean the mult. seq.'s and the splitting principle
It sounds to me like they have to somehow be exactly the same thing, viewed in two ways
Do you know the history?
Not any more, I don't.
Are there any books where this is recorded, maybe? Any sources?
Does Hirzebruch not give some history in the preface of his book?
Spivak may have some in Volume 5, too.
21:00
Maybe... I haven't looked. Thanks
I could really use an algebraic geometer at the moment
@Sha: I don't know if you settled your question or not. But here's a very brief argument for what you wanted. From $(aH)(bH) = (ab)H$ we multiply by $a^{-1}$ and get $HbH=bH$, so $b^{-1}HbH = H$, which says that $b^{-1}Hb = H$.
Although, maybe I should be able to solve it myself
Probably not though
@Krijn: I suspect your question will be too algebraic for me.
@TedShifrin Probably just a tiny bit
You know that if you have an effective divisor $D$ of degree > 2g on a Riemann surface, then it is base point free
So by Riemann Roch you can find a map with fiber equal to $D$ (above say 0)
21:04
Oh, this is the kind of stuff I used to love. Go on.
But a Riemann surface is just a nice curve over $\mathbb{C}$
Sounds nice to me, too :D
And I want to do the same for a curve over $\mathbb{F}_q$
EWWWWW
hahahaha
LOL ... oy.
21:04
But then the usual argument doesn't hold anymore :(
Stupid vector space over finite fields are stupid
Is it me, or is Hirzebruch's original proof of the signature theorem 10x nicer than the "corollary of Atiyah-Singer" approach? I have started hating spin bundles :(
I absolutely love how Krijn kept you two interested long enough to deliver the punchline/final question.
Yes, @Balarka, you'd think he had practiced that skill.
Why, @Krijn, are vector spaces stupid in the finite case?
@TedShifrin Because subspaces of lower dimension can still cover it
Hmm ... Can you expound/expand on that a bit?
21:08
As $D$ is base point free, you get that $L(D)$ has dim $L(D - P)$ + 1 for every point $P$ in the divisor
So in the $\mathbb{C}$ case, this is enough to say, well, there must be some $f$ with fiber $D$
Not so much in the $\mathbb{F}_q$ case
So I'm trying to think through this argument.
Hey @Ted! Long time no see!
Heya Demonark.
21:12
Also hey @Balarka, @Danu, @Krijn
Heya
How's it going?
Hi @Daminark
@Balarka Peter May's lecture is gonna start soon :P
So what'd you learn in the month of June, Demonark?
21:13
Oh right. @Ted: Peter May's algebraic topology lectures which Daminark is attending defines $H^n(X; G) = [X, K(G, n)]$.
Let us wait for reaction.
LOL
I'm getting ready to write off Demonark as a hopeless case, anyhow.
Some number theory, in particular it's been working up to Dirichlet. There's the main atop which has been more difftop-y, though we did talk about cobordism very briefly which is new.
Then there's Peter May's atop, which as Balarka said, is doing things in a very specific way
Yay for number theory
Yes, the formal, algebraic world view. I'm acquainted with lunatics who think like that.
I am picking up number theory from Daminark
21:16
He's never even taught like this before, it's an experiment to see if starting with cohomology and Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms work
Though I haven't caught up with Fourier analysis over finite groups yet. I will, this weekend.
If anybody wants to talk some number theory; I need the distraction for a moment
@Ted: They prove $H^n(\Sigma X; G) = H^{n+1}(X; G)$ from $K(G, n) = \Omega K(G, n + 1)$.
Supposedly this is the modern way of thinking about it shrug. Amusing nonetheless
A bunch of guys at UGA do combinatorial number theory stuff with Fourier analysis, @Balarka. Some cool stuff by Magyar, Lyall, and their students.
21:17
@Krijn we've got a number theory study group where we're working through Weil's NT for beginners
Demonark: I once had a review of an NSF proposal tell me I was doing old-fashioned Italian-style algebraic geometry. They meant that as a slap. I find it mostly a compliment. Suffice to say, they really had no idea what we were doing.
Oh, cool stuff.
@BalarkaSen I'll try to explain it better this weekend now that I actually got completely straight
@Ted lmao, some people I guess are not fond of classical stuff
21:20
I actually adore the identity; my slogan for this is "cohomology is dual to homotopy". I am put slightly lopsided that May is taking this as a definition. It is amusing.
@BalarkaSen Hurr durr cohomology is dual to homology :D
No, that's the catch. That's the standard duality.
H^n(X; G) = [X, K(G, n)] is the thing I am talking about.
I know, I was joking
Ah, Ok
Also because I don't know what that second thing means because I don't know homotopy theory
21:21
I think I kinda remember Peter May expressing disMay at homology being introduced via chains or whatever. He sees coomology and E-S as being more natural, and generalizing to other cohomology theories, which is what he wants to get into. Also mentioned something about K-theory
Yeah, people like me think about cohomology from a totally different perspective.
Yeah K-theory is an example of a generalized cohomology theory.
Let $p_n$ be the $n$th prime. Can the following limit be computed?
$$\lim_{N\to\infty}\dfrac{\sum\limits_{3<p_n<N}(p_n+1\mod3)}{2\sum\limits_{3<p_n<N}(p_n-1\mod3)}$$where $0\le a\mod b<b$.
His tentative approach to homology is that cohomology is dual to something, therefore homology exists
I think it's represented by, what, BSO?
21:22
@Hippa: Salut.
@TedShifrin o/
First time I've seen you since our lunch.
I was here some hours ago
@Danu Based homotopy classes of maps from X to K(G, n), where K(G, n) means space (unique upto homotopy equivalence - this is a fact) with pi_n = G and pi_i = 0 for every other i.
But I wasn't?
21:23
I mean, we were both here a couple of times before, but I didn't speak up because I was busy
Basically, it translates into "are more prime numbers equal to $2$ or $1$ mod 3?"
So, how are you ?
@SimplyBeautifulArt So, twice the number of $1~\rm mod~3$ ones divided by the number of $2~\rm mod~3$ ones?
Finally made it home the night before last after a (literal) 24-hour travel day.
Croatia is stunning.
21:24
Oh, there's a $2$ on the bottom.
I'm sure the calculation exists.
Nice
Me neither, but checking up to $N=100$, it looks like 1
It probably is, I think
One
21:28
Oh @Balarka apparently the probability talks were actually nifty, Araske did go to those and gave me a rundown, Lawler's style is apparently very good
I have known things like this, @Simply, but I forgot it I think
@Daminark You should take all the REU + bootcamp
literally everything
Oh really? Interesting
Or at least closely related stuff
I'm going to google a bit
:| Well, I honestly wouldn't know if the limit even exists. :-)
21:30
He sorta introduces a problem and builds theory out of it, which I appreciate. Probability that a random permutation has a fixed point, random walks on the lattice, paradoxes, etc
Cool stuff
@TedShifrin @MikeMiller It seems that section 11 of Lawson & Michelsohn is close to what I'm looking for... I think.
@Simply, I think the ratio is 1
Because both sets have Dirichlet density 1/2
Although that density is not the same as yours
BLARG
21:35
@SimplyBeautifulArt ?
^^ hows ur day going
anyone remeber how to solve an ode by seperation of variables?
Hm, okay @Krijn
21:38
What's Dirichlet density? The density of them compared to primes in general? @Krijn
…What's $m$?
@AkivaWeinberger Almost
$m$ should be $N$
It's quite a long thing to TeX, but wiki gives it quickly
So they both have Dirichlet density $\frac12$.
Yes
But I know there's a better argument, and I'm still looking for that
21:42
Oh, OK, Wiki says that if they have a natural density, they have a Dirichlet density equal to it.
So, if Semi's limit exists, it will be $\frac{1/2}{1/2}=1$.
Wiki suggests that they do have a natural density as well
No, Wiki solves it?
So it should equal $1$, then.
If a subset of primes A has a natural density, given by the limit of

(number of elements of A less than N)/(number of primes less than N)

then it also has a Dirichlet density, and the two densities are the same.
The two densities are the same
@Krijn If it has a natural density, though.
But it seems to suggest that it has a natural density a little further down.
Oh, sorry yes
21:45
> For example, in proving Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions, it is easy to show that the Dirichlet density of primes in an arithmetic progression $a + nb$ (for $a$, $b$ coprime) has Dirichlet density $1/\phi(b)$, which is enough to show that there are an infinite number of such primes, but harder to show that this is the natural density.
This is clearly one of the cases of "in practice"
Where clearly means "Otherwise I have no clue"
> In practice, if some "naturally occurring" set of primes has a Dirichlet density, then it also has a natural density, but it is possible to find artificial counterexamples: for example, the set of primes whose first decimal digit is $1$ has no natural density, but has Dirichlet density $\log(2)/\log(10)$.
According to MO: See Lang's Algebraic Number Theory, Ch. VIII.4 and XV
Sooooo, of to the gen lib rus ex
The point is, the answer to @Semi's question is $1$.
Yes, but we are in some nice algebraic number theory now
So let's forget that question
21:51
Analytic number theory
Hmm, this is really close to both sides though
I like this about number theory, almost all of these easy-to-ask question are incredibly hard to answer and often need a lot of (beautiful) theory to be answered
How did I show up in this? :)
@Akiva confused you and Simple, I think
Lol, the first value where there are more primes 1 mod 3 than 2 mod 3
608,981,813,029.
22:05
I do mean @Simply. Sorry
@Ted oh wow, okay, I had no idea we were allowed to show the elements like that. I will have to look at it carefully tomorrow. but thanks!
Also, guys: Let $G$ be a group and $N\subset G$ a normal subgroup. My book says that if $G/N$ is abelian, then $[G,G]\subset N$. (And the other way around). The proof is quite simple, but I’m a little bit confused because we all know that $N=\{e\}$ is also normal, but that would imply that $[G,G]=\{e\}$. Should they have said that $N\neq\{e\}$?
$[G,G]$ is the commutator subgroup btw
No, only if $G/\{e\}$ is abelian
Which implies $[G,G]$ is trivial of course
oh right
I forgot about the factor group
thanks
22:24
@Sha: It's probably best to work with elements rather than sets, but that should give you the idea.
 
1 hour later…
23:28
i got a stupid question
hi
wow my question got downvoted because I didn't post a question but a link
so dumb
the area of a disc is $ \pi r^2 $ when i thinking of the volume of a sphere i want to think $ \int_{-r}^{r} \pi r^2 dr $ where is my missing 2?
follow by the question wth is it that im integrating
actually i think i know what im integrating two cones of height r
but why .>
What missing 2? Integrating from r to -r gives you everything

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