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00:00
@amWhy is there a reason you booted me from constructive feedback? Is it something I did last thursday?
not that it matters anyway since I am now permanently chat banned, but i was just curious.
@LegionMammal978 I think the question is fine here, it's a chatroom for crying out loud. According to Wikipedia it's dimensionless. So maybe it's analogous to writing $1 \text{doz} = 12$.
@pjs36 exactly
@pjs36 Okay, was just trying to apply linear algebra to SI derived units, so I guess I only need 6-dimensional vectors
0
A: How to solve $x\sin x=a$ for any number $a$?

Simply Beautiful ArtIf $x=f(a)$ is solved for $a\in\mathbb Q$ and $f(a)$ is continuous, then $x=f(a)$ for $a\notin\mathbb Q$. Next, we see that if $a\ne0,a\in\mathbb Q$, then $x$ is not algebraic. If $x$ were algebraic, then $\sin(x)$ would be transcendental, and thus $x\sin(x)$ would be transcendental, a contradi...

So I sorta almost solved the supposedly unsolvable equation $x\sin(x)=a$.
Assuming $a$ is real, one can write the solution as $$x=-iW_k(bi-a)$$
Where $b$ is some real number such that $x\cos(x)=b$
And I'm putting this out there for people to think about
01:00
in Simply Beautiful Art's realm of calculus and analysis, Jun 8 at 0:17, by Simply Beautiful Art
@Frpzzd $$\int\lfloor x\rfloor~\mathrm dx=\frac{\lfloor x\rfloor(\lfloor x\rfloor-1)}2+\lfloor x\rfloor(x-\lfloor x\rfloor)+C$$
@TheGreatDuck One would think that if you were trying not to annoy one who said thay'd chat-banned you, but forgot to do so, that you'd stop mentioning that you're in chat despite beind told (though not forced) to leave.
@Daminark @Dodsy @TheGreatDuck Actually, drinking isn't all bad, as xkcd claims.
01:27
Hey @AkivaWeinberger any idea about the $x\sin(x)=a$ problem?
My instinct tells me there's no elementary solution, though special functions may help.
Well I tried solving it in terms of the Lambert W function if you read above a bit
@SimplyBeautifulArt By the way, try graphing $x\sin x$, $~-x^2\cos x$, and $-\sin x\tan x$.
(Desmos lets you show not all of them at once)
The intersections between $x\sin x$ and either of the other two give you its local maxima and minima.
(Well, the intersections between $x\sin x$ and $-\sin x\tan x$ are the local maxima/mínima as well as the roots)
Oh, that's nifty
But I mean...
Not so surprising tbh
:P
Yeah, but it looks kinda cool
01:34
It does
I think I told you about $(\sin x)/x$ and $\cos x$ before
which is more elegant
(Specifically, the local extrema of $(\sin x)/x$ are given by its intersection with the cosine wave)
Yeah, I believe you have
:) What have you been up to? @AkivaWeinberger
Not much, to be honest
I suppose I'd say the same.
One major problem with the $x\sin x=a$ is that nearly every input $a$ has infinitely many preimages $x$.
01:38
@AkivaWeinberger Just curious, how did you find those particular functions?
Well, I suppose that's not impossible; maybe our hypothetical function uses the arcsine or something.
@AkivaWeinberger Follows from the branches of the Lambert W function ofc
Aren't there only two branches?
@LegionMammal978 You just take the derivative and do some algebra
@LegionMammal978 Calculus says that the local extrema of $x\sin x$ satisfy $x\cos x+\sin x=0$.
@LegionMammal978 Isolating a term and multiplying/dividing by the right things gives you the above.
@SimplyBeautifulArt Oh, cool
Oh hey, Lambert-W function
Hey @Semiclassical
Hm, it's the inverse of $xe^x$, right? And we want the inverse of $x\frac{e^{ix}-e^{-ix}}{2i}$
I tried solving $x\sin(x)=a$ for $x$ in terms of $a$ and the Lambert W function
Yes @AkivaWeinberger
01:41
Lambert-W is weird as far as its branches go
Though I cheated a bit
That doesn't seem too helpful, actually.
Well, assuming $a$ is real, we may rewrite as follows:
$$x\sin(x)=\Im(xe^{ix})=a\implies xe^{ix}=b+ai$$
(I can talk about the weirdness of $W_k(x)$, but I'll wait for now.)
For some $b$ such that $x^2=a^2+b^2$ or $x\cos(x)=b$. Anyways, you see we can solve for $x$ in terms of $a,b$ then...
$$x=-iW_k(bi-a)$$
01:43
We'd need an expressing for $b$ solely in terms of $a$
"Unless someone's discovered a way to dissect the Lambert W function into real and imaginary parts," as you said, that seems to be a dead end.
Well yes, but the world is big, and it seems @Semiclassical knows some stuff
The fun of the internets
Did I ever show you W's Taylor series?
I wish I did.
Know how to dissect it, I mean.
@AkivaWeinberger I already know of it
Ah, well, hit me up with the weirdness anyways @Semiclassical
Mmkay.
First, the weirdness of the analytic continuation. Suppose you start on the principal branch, where $W_0(x)$ is the local solution of $x=we^w$ where $w>-1$ and $x>-1/e$.
01:46
@AkivaWeinberger Easy; just define $\text{Magic}_k(x)=\mathfrak R(W_k(x))$ and $\text{MoreMagic}_k(x)=\mathfrak I(W_k(x))$ :p
And utilize ${\rm Magic}^{-1}(x)$? Genius! :P
@Semiclassical I believe you mean $x=W(x)e^{W(x)}$
Derp, you're right.
I only vaguely remember the reference @Legion
01:48
@LegionMammal978 Well, for some people, the moment we start talking about the Lambert W function... its all magic xP
Something about a switch…?
If we cut the complex plane along the negative real axis starting at $x=-1/e$, then $W_0(x)$ is analytic on this cut plane.
Now, suppose we analytically continue across this cut, starting from the top side.
That gives us $W_1$, I'd assume?
01:49
I think so. Going from the bottom gives $W_{-1}(x)$.
One usually takes that -1 branch since it's real along $(-1/e,0)$.
The Riemann surface (is that the right word?) should be the same as that of $\ln x$. I hope.
hehehehehe
Excuse me professor, but isn't this how $\ln(x)$ and other branch cuts work?
And I'm guessing that my above guess is wildly wrong :P
01:50
It's not wildly wrong, to be fair.
In fact, if you go to higher branches (e.g. $k=\pm2,\pm3,\ldots$) then it's basically right.
Weirdness happens at points where $(xe^x)'=0$, probably…
which $-1/e$ satisfies, I think?
Not really.
Oh, sure.
Whatever, continue your exposition
The weirdness is this. Once you're on the $k=1$ sheet, there's now a problem at $x=0$.
Namely, one finds that $W_1(x)$ has a logarithmic branch point at $x=0$.
Same with every sheet except $k=0$, in fact.
Interesting...
01:54
That's rather believable if you look at the plot of $W_{-1}(x)$, which serves as a smooth continuation of $W_0(x)$ for real $x\in (-1/e,0)$.
But here's the kicker: While there's also a branch point at $x=-1/e$, it's not a log branch point!
It's just a square root branch point.
No.
No, he means $x=-1/e$
At $x=0$, it's a log branch point. But $x=-1/e$ is order 2.
Wait, sorry, how are you defining a logarithmic branch point
and an order 2 branch point
01:55
Yeah, that's fair.
Didn't you say that going around the $-1/e$ point gives you infinitely many things as you go around?
$W_n:n\in\Bbb Z$
I don't think I did. And if I gave that impression, I was wrong.
Let me describe it like this. Suppose I start just to the right of $x=-1/e$ and wind around it CCW (i.e. $z=-1/e+\epsilon e^{i\theta}$) keeping track of what branch we're on.
That gets you to $W_1$?
At first, yes.
For $\theta\in[0,\pi]$, we're still on $W_0(x)$.
And then you fwoom to $W_1$
01:57
(These functions are all continuous from above, so along the negative real axis I'm still technically on $k=0$.)
Right. For $\theta\in (\pi,2\pi)$ I'll be on the $k=1$ branch.
However, where I land at $\theta=2\pi$ is actually $k=-1$ :)
@nitsua60 No actually I'm trying to honor the ban but people keep messaging me...
Oh, so you cycle through $W_{-1}$, $W_0$, and $W_1$ there?
Indeed, for $\theta\in [2\pi,3\pi]$ one is on $W_{-1}$.
(Wouldn't that be a cube root branch point?)
Hmm... very funky... I will have to read up on this...
01:59
Not done yet. Because once we get $\theta>2\pi$, we land back on the $k=0$ branch.
bye.
And then at $\theta=4\pi$ you're back where you started on the $k=0$ branch.
So you've gone through a $4\pi$ arc (two rotations) and ended up back where you started.
That's what makes it an order 2 branch point.
Oh! Wait
$W_1$ is for $(\pi,2\pi)$, not $(\pi,3\pi)$
By contrast, suppose I start on the $k=-1$ branch and start winding around the $x=0$ branch point. In that case, I'll just keep going further on: $W_{-2},W_{-3}4,\cdots$
Right.
So for $k=1$, the branch cut is what? Between $-1/e$ and $0$?
02:01
Right.
And for $-1$ as well.
That doesn't make sense
Not quite. But let me pull up a reference here.
So, wolfram functions gives the branch points here:
http://functions.wolfram.com/ElementaryFunctions/ProductLog2/04/04/01/
And the branch cuts here:
@SimplyBeautifulArt it was a rhetorical question. I was testing Dodsy's strength at calculus.
02:04
The key point there is that the $x=-1/e$ branch point technically only belongs to the $k=0,1$ branches.
(That it doesn't show up on the $k=-1$ branch I suspect is a technicality of how they've defined the cuts, as a consequence of them choosing things so that $W(x)$ is always continuous from above.)
One thing you should note, perhaps, is that when $k\neq 0,1$ the branch cut structure is seemingly simple: Just a log branch point at $0$ and a cut along the negative real axis.
What that's really telling you is that, if you analytically continue $W_k(x)$ across $(-\infty,0)$ from above, you'll always go to $W_{k-1}(x)$.
Where things are weird when continuing from above is precisely when $k=0,1$.
At $W_0$, it's $(-\infty,-1/e)$ (which fwooms you to $W_1$).
Right. By contrast, if you analytically continue across $(-1/e,0)$ you'll just stay on the same sheet.
Once you're on $W_1$, things are complicated.
At $W_1$, you have $(-\infty,-1/e)$ (which fwooms you to $W_0$) as well as $(-1/e,0)$ (which fwooms you to $W_2$).
Right?
Wait
02:09
Careful. Which sides of the cuts are you approaching?
Oh. Revised version:
Oh, crap. I may have gotten backwards at some point here.
Actually, no. I'm not wrong yet, I just wasn't doing things in the clearest way.
@nitsua60 has any more spam flagging occurred since they banned that one guy?
$(-\infty,0)$ from above should get you to $W_2$. $(-\infty,-1/e)$ from below should get you to $W_0$. And $(-1/e,0)$ from below should… I don't know.
Let me start again at $k=3$, where there's nothing weird happening yet.
02:11
@SimplyBeautifulArt Pinging so you can find this conversation later
@TheGreatDuck I've only been around the last hour or so... [rummages]
fair enough
On $k=3$, there's only a branch cut along the negative real axis. If I approach it from above, I'll end up on the $k=2$ branch.
@TheGreatDuck no, it doesn't look like any flags have been thrown here today.
02:12
On $k=2$, there's still only a branch cut along the negative real axis. If I approach it from above, I'll end up on the $k=1$ branch.
yay!
:-)
@nitsua60 well one flag was thrown
On $k=1$, there's a branch cut along the negative real axis; if I approach it from below, I'll go back to the $k=2$ branch. (This is just consistency with the last statement.)
@Semiclassical I though approaching it from above got us to the next cut
Since we're going counterclockwise in that case
Am I doing it backwards? Ugh. Hang on, lemme check.
@TheGreatDuck whaddyamean?
02:14
@nitsua60 whoever it was threw up a white flag of surrender.
I'm going based off of the stuff here, for clarity: functions.wolfram.com/ElementaryFunctions/ProductLog2/04/05/01
@TheGreatDuck BOOM!
lolfigsl =)
-_-
i have no clue what that says
Bah, yeah, I think you're right. @akiva
So I should've started at $k=-2$. :/
in RPG General Chat, May 31 at 0:06, by Papayaman1000
I just Google'd "lolfigsl" and the first result is from this room, from February. Ohhh boy.
02:15
Laughing out loud falling… in glass… somberly leaving
Or something
hrm. I'm going to need to head out for a bit, but I'll want to continue this.
back later
If you leave, I might be asleep when you come back
Fair warning
in RPG General Chat, Aug 7 '16 at 20:59, by SevenSidedDie
(There needs to be a way to indicate actual real loling, not just typing “lol” as an appreciative indicator.)
which, four lines later, lead to "lol forrealz I'm getting strange looks"
02:16
Haha!
or "lolfigsl" for short =)
OK, that's pretty great.
[sings, Lego Movie-style] internet is awesome... internet gets better when you're helped by your team...
It has survived the arduous, peer-reviewed process of getting accepted to the Urban Dictionary
(For real, though - assume you can just add whatever you want to it, right?)
@AkivaWeinberger I dunno... it's not just an Urban Dictionary =)
Alright. Riding high on that success, I'm off to bed. No more counting on this sheep for any of you.
02:21
< sits on @nitsua60 > "One. Two. Three. Four...."
I am counting on you
ba dum tsh
(I swear there's a Bert and Ernie sketch in here somewhere...)
what is that? Is that some stupid youtube machinima?
seriously?
02:23
yes
It's Sesame Street.
that's what it looks like?
Sesame Street is a long-running American children's television series, produced by Sesame Workshop (formerly known as the Children's Television Workshop) and created by Joan Ganz Cooney and Lloyd Morrisett. The program is known for its educational content, and images communicated through the use of Jim Henson's Muppets, animation, short films, humor, and cultural references. The series premiered on November 10, 1969, to positive reviews, some controversy, and high viewership; it has aired on the U.S.'s national public television provider (PBS) since its debut, with its first run moving to premium...
@TheGreatDuck In the 70s, sure =)
ugh
even worse
I just thought it was some amateur with puppets
DId you not notice the hands...? They're muppets.
02:25
so... they're body suits?
No. Muppets are marionette-puppet hybrids. (Hence "muppet".) Head/mouth is controlled by inserted hand, puppet-style. Hands/limbs are controlled by strings or rods, marionette-style.
Oh, so that's why they're called that
I never actually knew
Note carefully the pair of sticks in Jim Hensen's left hand =)
Oh that makes sense
02:28
who?
Here's a nice one:
@TheGreatDuck Jim Hensen?
James Maury Henson (September 24, 1936 – May 16, 1990) was an American puppeteer, artist, cartoonist, inventor, screenwriter, film director and producer who achieved international fame as the creator of the Muppets. Born in Greenville, Mississippi, and raised in Leland, Mississippi, and Hyattsville, Maryland, Henson began developing puppets while attending high school. While he was a freshman at the University of Maryland, College Park, he created Sam and Friends, a five-minute sketch-comedy puppet show that appeared on television. After graduating from the University of Maryland with a degree...
i mean, which guy is jim henson.... XD
@TheGreatDuck The one holding the pair of sticks, clearly
02:30
in the photo
@AkivaWeinberger <ding, ding!>
=D
@TheGreatDuck second from left
ah ok
@AkivaWeinberger i couldn't see the sticks
I'll tell you... I've had the chance to watch ten minutes of Muppetry being shot. The choreography is jaw-dropping, all the performers keeping their characters in-frame and themselves out-.
I watch something like ^^ and think the ballet's got nothing on them.
I mean, think about how fast those chicken-performers need to scurry in there!
@BalarkaSen Suppose we write $S^0=a\cup b$, $~S^1\setminus S^0=x\cup y$, and $S^2\setminus S^1=A\cup B$ (those being the decompositions into connected components)
(so $a$ and $b$ are singletons are $A$ and $B$ are open in $S^2$)
If $h$ is the Hopf map, we can write $S^3$ as the union of $h^{-1}(a)$, $h^{-1}(b)$, $h^{-1}(x)$, etc
which looks like two open solid-torus regions, separated by a torus, divided into two by two slanted circles
If I need to represent the vector of the initial position of a projectile, would I write it as $\vec{p_{i_P}}$? Likewise for a target: $\vec{p_{i_T}}$? Is there a convention for this?
02:40
We know the Hopf map isn't nullhomotopic. Is the converse true? Is any map $f$ that sends those regions of $S^3$ to the corresponding regions of $S^2$ not nullhomotopic?
So I guess that would be $f(h^{-1}(A))\subseteq A$, etc
Oh hi, yo
is my current rep bad luck?
ok, I'm back. let's try this again
I'll start from $k=-1$ this time.
@JorgeFernándezHidalgo 66,606, wow
Hm, maybe 60 shy?
I mean, uh, yes. Yes, it is bad luck. :P
but it reads 66.6k
Begone, demon!
Daminark leaves
As the Wolfram page indicates, this has a branch cut along the negative real axis. If I approach it from below, I'll end up on the $k=-2$ branch.
02:46
Does anyone here know vector math?
If I approach it from above, though, things become interesting. On the one hand, the definitions given there immediately let me say that $W_{-1}(x+iy)\to W_{-1}(x)$ as $y\to 0^+$.
The question is then: Which branches go to $W_{-1}(x)$ as I approach from below?
I do, but I don't know the answer to your question @jakebird451
And if I look at that page, I find that there's two of them.
On the one hand, if $x<-1/e$ then $W_0(x+i y)\to W_{-1}(x)$ as $y\to 0^-$.
(they write it as x-iy with y>0. same difference)
Maybe $\vec{p_{P,i}}$ or $\vec{p_{i,P}}$ (or maybe the same without commas) looks better
Never mind
On the other, if $-1/e<x<0$, then $W_0(x+iy)$ is an analytic function and it just goes to the real-valued $W_0(x)$.
Instead, we need to go all the way to the $k=1$ branch: When $-1/e<x<0$, then $W_{1}(x+i y)\to W_{-1}(x)$ as $y\to 0^-$.
So therefore: If I'm on the $k=-1$ branch and I approach the cut along $(-\infty,-1/e)$ from above, I'll end up on the $k=0$ branch.
Once I'm on there, I can then approach the $(-1/e,0)$ cut on the $k=0$ branch and I'll end up on the $k=1$ branch.
Alternatively, when I'm on the $k=-1$ branch I can approach the $(-1/e,0)$ branch cut from above and I'll end up at $k=1$ immediately.
Once I'm on the $k=1$ branch, I can wind around the $(-\infty,0)$ branch cut without crossing from below and instead cross from above. This will place me on the $k=2$ branch.
From there on, things are simple enough. In fact, past that I'm in the usual log situation: If I wind around the origin, I'll end up at the next branch.
All of the weirdness is in the realm of the crossings between W0, W1, W-1.
@akiva So yeah, Lambert-W function has a confusing branch structure :S
03:30
confuzzled reax only
(You might have heard of the shoelace formula already, and know why it's true, but it's still a good video)
03:49
I made a question (math.stackexchange.com/questions/2318046/…) that covers my specific question about vectors. I just need to get pointed in the right direction.
And specifically, how to use $|\vec{v}|$ in equations.
 
1 hour later…
05:28
@AkivaWeinberger That's a nice picture. Hmm. Here's a fact: if $f : S^3 \to S^2$ is my map, $a, b$ are regular values of $f$ so that $f^{-1}(a)$ and $f^{-1}(b)$ are 1-dimensional compact submanifolds (circles) in $S^3$, then I can compute the linking number of the link $f^{-1}(a) \cup f^{-1}(b)$ in $S^3$. This is a number independent of the choice of $a, b$ and depends on the homotopy class of $f$.
In your case, you're requiring the pictures with $f^{-1}(a), f^{-1}(x), f^{-1}(A)$ etc etc looks exactly like $h^{-1}(a), h^{-1}(x)$, etc etc yes?
If that holds for a generic decomposition $S^2 = A \cup B \cup x \cup y \cup a \cup b$ of $S^2$, then $f^{-1}(a)$ and $f^{-1}(b)$ are going to be circles linking once in $S^3$, and the Hopf invariant (as it is called) of $f$ is going to be 1, and $f$ indeed would not be nullhomotopic.
Generic meaning, if you perturb the positions of $a, b, x, y, A, B$ a little bit the picture remains unchanged (note that I'm not requiring that's the picture for all decompositions)
OK, so, let's say $M$ and $N$ are smooth $n$-manifolds, $\omega$ is a closed $n$-form on $N$, and $f,g:M\to N$ are homotopic maps. The degree formula should give that $\int_M f^*\omega = \int_N g^*\omega$.
I think this should get Cauchy's integral theorem over a simply connected set, right?
@Akiva Oh, you're actually requiring something weaker: that $h^{-1}(a), h^{-1}(x), h^{-1}(A)$ etc etc are contained in $f^{-1}(a)$, f^{-1}(x)$, f^{-1}(A)$ etc etc. Then I do not believe that anymore. It should be true if the pictures are equal for a generic decomposition, but not necessarily if one contains the other, I do not think.
@Daminark Wellll, in Cauchy, you work with holomorphic forms instead of actual forms, but I think that's right.
The point of Cauchy if I remember correct is that for holomorphic $f$, $f(z)dz$ is a closed form. And closed forms are exact over simply connected open sets.
05:43
I think the degree argument above is what gives you that closed = exact on simply connected spaces, no?
If we know the rank of a matrix say $A_{n,n}$ then can we say anything about the rank of $A^{t}A = ?$
At least on curves I think I've done the proof that exact forms have integrals which are path-independent
But if a space is simply connected, this is true for closed forms as well since you just homotope the curve
Oh hmm
Is it true that given a closed curve $c$, that it is the boundary of a domain $D$ on which Stokes' may be applied?
@Daminark I don't see how you get closed = exact over simply connected sets using that.
Oh I forgot to state that this is an iff type thing
Yes. This is the Jordan-Schoenflies theorem.
05:50
Well, path independent integral is the same as saying the integral over a loop is 0
actually you guys are talking of which topic ?
A mixture of complex analysis , vector calculus , Homotopy , Topology ?
So a form is closed iff its integral over any loop is 0. If your domain is simply connected, this will be true because you homotope the loop to a point, which checks out because your form is closed
Basically, yeah
aka differential forms
@Daminark Oh, I am sorry. Yes.
Integral over any loop is 0 does imply it's an exact form I'm integrating.
Nice, so this works out alright. Alessandro mentioned that there's a homology version of this, yeah?
Degree theorem? Yeah.
05:58
I was thinking Cauchy though it'd make sense that this follows from degree. How does it go?

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