« first day (2496 days earlier)      last day (2821 days later) » 

18:00
Welp, just found out my prospective research topic was already studied about 60 years ago.
oh wow. hopefully I'll be able to travel this year. I miss going to conferences and seeing new places.
Dinner now. Bye :)
Later :)
Is there a way to separate the real part from the imaginary part of a complex number?

I know one way for special cases but it involves several 1000 iterations and it is not systematic so it can't be used for arbitrary complex numbers.
@MatsGranvik $\frac{z + \overline{z}}{2}$?
18:14
@Fargle Is over line the absolute value.
@MatsGranvik It is the complex conjugate.
@Fargle Yes but that is cheating. It won't do. I need something algebraic, a formula.
The complex conjugate requires knowing where to put the minus sign.
What do you know about the complex number?
@SteamyRoot I know that it is the value of the Riemann zeta function.
I need a formula for the imaginary part of the Riemann zeta function: $\Im(\zeta (s))$
@MatsGranvik Neither the complex conjugate function $\bar z$ nor the real part function ${\rm Re}(z)$ are holomorphic (aka complex differentiable). Nearly every interesting function is, and combining holomorphic functions gives you more holomorphic functions.
18:24
@Hippa you're a physics guy, right?
@ShaVuklia Kind of :-)
haha, well can I ask a question? I didn't find an answer on the physics chat, so I might try here
@MatsGranvik That pretty much tells you nothing about the complex number itself.
@ShaVuklia sure. The physics chat is usually too advanced for "simple" questions >.> I never find answers there
@Hippa haha true
So we have a magnetic field (the green area) with points into the page
and we move this loop with velocity $v$ to the right
now they say the following:
18:27
And if a formula for the imaginary part of the Riemann-Zeta existed that wasn't just "$\operatorname{Im} \zeta(s)$", it'd be widespread by now.
Do you already know some complex analysis?
@MatsGranvik
So $f_\text{pull}$ is the pulling force
@AkivaWeinberger Not really.
and what I don't understand is, why we don't integrate over the entire path, i.e. $\oint f_\text{pull}\cdot dl$
they seem to only integrate over the path the charge follows as it goes from $a$ (left corner) to $b$ (right corner)
While I would think that we would have to consider a closed integral
Their whole point is that it equals emf:
And in the case of emf, obviously we only have to consider $a-b$, because on the horizontal segments the magnetic field doesn't have the "potential" to do work, and on the right vertical segment there is no magnetic field at all
So it makes sense to take $vBh$ as emf
However, in the case of the pulling force, I would think that we need to consider the other parts too (horizontal segments, and right vertical segment)
18:31
@ShaVuklia But the operator only applies the force on electrons on the AB segment ?
that is true
but surely the electrons keep on moving after that?
because of the electric field that ensues
@ShaVuklia They keep moving, but they're not affected by the force anymore after they leave AB
Yea, but why don't we take their movement after AB into account in the energy?
i.e., why don't we consider a closed integral?
@ShaVuklia Why does their movement after AB influence the work done by the force ?
not by the force, but by the pulling
we're calculating the work done by the pulling force after all
18:35
Exactly, so why does their movement after the segment on which the pulling force is exerted affect the work done by the pulling force ?
@ShaVuklia Said another way, imagine that the circuit is now longer in the area that has no magnetic field: does anything change ? (assuming constant overall resistance)
well yes, I would say the work is bigger then, because we calculate how much the electrons displace
and their displacement is now larger
As to your question why; well we simply integrate over the path the electrons take I would say, as they go from $a$ all the way back to $a$
@ShaVuklia ? the pulling force doesn't affect at all the electrons on, for instance, the horizontal segments, or the rightmost vertical segment
of course it does?
It's a force, not a velocity
Look, it the electrons go from the left upper corner to the right upper corner
18:39
Let me break it down in several steps, maybe it will help
Horizontal segments and rightmost vertical segment: the electrons are unaffected by the magnetic field.
Leftmost vertical segment: the electrons undergo a magnetic force to the left. That force is countered by a force of the same magnitude to the right by the operator
The operator only acts on the leftmost electrons
The operator acts on all the electrons simultaneously, no? Because it asks on the entire loop
So it also acts on the electrons that are not affected by the magnetic field
And therefore it also does work on the electrons that are in the horizontal segments, or the right vertical segment?
because those electrons are still moving
apparently I'm really interpreting something wrong here
I might as a friend of mine maybe
@ShaVuklia I kind of get why that sounds weird to you - let me try to reformulate it again
Suppose the operator does nothing
What happens ?
the loop will rotate?
18:45
Why rotate ? What's the force of the field on the loop ?
or at least, the horizontal component of the magnetic field won't be counteracted
so the electrons will be slowed down
What about the loop's movement ?
it will slow down?
Exactly. That's because a force will be applied on the loop, to the left.
18:47
That force only comes from the leftmost electrons, but is applied on the whole loop. However, does the size of the loop in the fieldless area change anything to that force ?
Exactly. That's because the magnetic force only works in the AB segment.
The operator's force is exactly opposite to that force. It only acts on the leftmost electrons, but is applied on the whole loop
but if the horizontal component of the magnetic field works on the loop
then why doesn't it also work vertically on the loop? Is it because the electrons can move relatively freely, so the vertical force only induces a current, and it doesn't affect the loop as a whole?
@ShaVuklia By horizontal force you mean the force applied on the horizontal parts in the field ? Those cancel out since the current's direction is opposite in both branches
I mean uB
actually
I remember a very similar example in Griffiths
where I didn't realise this thing about work
let me quickly quote it
We had a similar situation
where we said we applied a current
such that the (upward) Loretnz force exceeded the gravitational force
And in considering the work done by the battery, they also only consider the part where the charges moved along the upper horizontal segment of loop
instead of considering the other segments too
So I guess my question is why we only consider the charges that are affected by the magnetic field, and not the charges in the other segments, or the loop as a whole
oh wait
in the case of a battery (or generator) I can imagine that they only work on the upper segment
by construction, so to speak
maybe I shouldn't interpret the pulling force as a mechanical pulling force
18:56
It's like a mechanical pulling
There's a very simple mechanic equivalent of our problem.
I know
Imagine you're pulling a block of mass m1 with a force F
Now imagine you add a block of mass m2 to the first one. The work is the same
right, the work is the same because the force stayed the same
and we're still considering the same displacement
Exactly
I have to go eat dinner now :-) good luck
bon appétit!
19:08
The functions $f_n$ converge uniformly on a set $E$ to $f$. Then $f_n^2$ converge uniformly on $E$ to $f^2$?
19:21
@Leullame Have you tried on simple examples ?
@Fargle On second thought that will work as one can write $$\overline{z}=\frac{|z|^2}{z}$$
@Hippalectryon In our case both sequences converge, so not many easy examples of sequences that converge not uniformly. The famous $f(x)=x^n$ does not work because its root does not converge uniformly either
19:36
@Leullame Let's try a more simple example, $f(x)=x$ and $f_n(x)=x+1/n$. What's $f_n^2-f^2$ ?
But I don't know how to compute the absolute value of z.
@Hippalectryon Ah, okay, so no uniform convergence on the whole of $\Bbb R$. What about compact subsets?
With out resorting to $|z|=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$
I was hoping that abs(z) could be computed through Taylor series.
@Leullame It's the same. Do you agree that working on $\mathbb{R}$ and working on an open interval is the same ? (for instance on $]-\pi/2,\pi/2[$ one could use $f(x)=\tan(x),f_n(x)=\tan(x)+1/n$
I agree that for every uncountable set we can just change the names of the points to get the same function from earlier
19:48
Hi, a simple question about math.stackexchange.com/questions/796750/…. The basis in the first answer has 2 elements, and 4 in the second. I see that $dim(W)=2$, but then why the example from the second answer isn't a basis for $W$? It does span $W$ and it's element seem to be independent.. but it cannot be a basis as it has 4>2 elements
@ShaVuklia A party day? That's cool :P Me? Not that bad actually. Working on some interesting & fascinating (at least to me) stuff.
@Hippalectryon And if $f_n$ are continuous and the set is compact? It ought to be true
@Leullame Indeed. Can you find out why ?
@Hippalectryon how is it going? :-)
19:52
@Waiting great :-) and you ?
@Hippalectryon Cool. Well, as you know me, I'm developing some interesting stuff. :D
@Waiting :D
Can't stay at all, restless soul. :D
@Hippalectryon Do you have some new cool soundtracks to listen to? Audiomachine like.
@Waiting Of course :D for instance TSFH released a new album, Vanquish, did I already talk about it ? for instance youtube.com/watch?v=6vCxBQy2SOk
I cannot, since $f_n$ have a different global bound on the set E for each n. (So we cannot say $|f^2-f_n^2|<\epsilon|f+f_n| \leq \epsilon(M+|f_n)|$ is arbitrarily small )
19:56
@Hippalectryon No, you didn't (or I simply don't remember?). I'm looking for it right now. :D
@Leullame Let's write $f_n(x)=f(x)+\epsilon_n(x)$. Then $|f^2(x)-f_n^2(x)|\le2\| f\|_\infty \cdot\|\epsilon_n\|_\infty+{\|\epsilon_n\|_\infty}^2 \to0$
@Leullame ($\| f\|_\infty=|\max_Ef(x)|$)
@Leullame Does that make sense ?
Yes!
Thanks (and good night)
@Leullame Great :-) btw notice how you don't need $f$ to be continuous, or $E$ to be compact. You just need $f$ to be bounded
$a^2+b^2$ can't be factored.
20:10
it can in $\Bbb C$
@MeowMix How?
$(a+ib)(a-ib)$
20:27
What is $(v \cdot \nabla v)v$ where v is a vector? Is it just $v \cdot (\nabla v)$?
20:45
@zed111 It's $\alpha v$ where $\alpha=v\cdot(\nabla v)$. I'm not sure I see where your difficulty lies
hi ale
@Hippalectryon Oh I wrote the wrong expression
The correct one is $(v \cdot \nabla )v$
Hey Zach.
Glad to see you doing math again
have you studied any more math since i last talked to you?
Eh, a little bit of number theory.
Currently learning about greatest common divisors and euclid's algorithm.
20:48
oh, cool
Yeah, but I basically have to buckle down this month and write a bunch of exams to go to school next year.
So most of july and all of august I should be available to study math more rigorously.
@zed111 You're right, it's $(v\cdot\nabla)w=v\cdot(\nabla w)$
And you must be on summer holdiay soon Zach?
@Hippalectryon Since $\nabla w$ is a 3 by 3 matrix, how to dot it with v?
Going into grade 9 next year, right?
20:52
@zed111 A 3x3 matrix ?? What size is $w$ ?
w is a 3-vector
And so is v
$[\nabla w]_{ij} = \partial_i w_j $
@zed111 Nvm I was confused because for me $\nabla\neq\vec{\nabla}$
@MeowMix Hallo
huh
oh sorry
i was doing something
didnt mean to not reply
yeah i have vacation in 2 weeks
Is okay, you are busy.
20:55
and grade 9 next year
Wow that's crazy.
I bet you'll take all IB level courses right?
I bet you graduate high school before I'm done 2 years of university
well the thing is
i cant skip any more years of math
Really?
mhm
district policy
20:57
How many years have you skipped?
only 1
what...
that makes no sense
When I was taking biology in grade 11
there were two grade 10's in the class
who took grade 10 biology during the summer.
I'm sure you'll figure something out like that.
so you have to waste time taking classes you don't need because you can only skip once?
@zed111 to me $v\cdot\nabla=v_1 d/dx+v_2d/dy+v_3d/dz$
20:57
that's insane.
I'm not sure how beneficial it would be though.
well
the kids who go to private schools get to take a placement test
Could someone take a look at this, please? I'd like a detailed solution, since I'm kind of stuck at this homework problem. Help a brother out, please.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2301609/find-the-periodic-solutions-of-the-following-differential-equations
to see where in math they belong
Oh that's cool!
20:59
im going to my local public high school
No problem with that, Zach.
pfft
of course
i dont mind
im just saying
I have a lot of regrets about high school. I had fun and people liked me, but I didn't do much.
I failed a lot of courses and skipped a lot of classes.
@Hippalectryon Thats what it means to me unless the operator is acting on a vector itself.
i didn't really get to know anyone in high school
21:03
@AdamWarlock That's a really well asked question, and you've shown your work well, I'm sure somebody will help you shortly.
But I always stood up for people who i thought were good and I always made sure to be nice to everyone I met. So from a character perspective, I'm happy with the experience. From an academic aspect, I am not.
my experience with high school was
NULL POINTER EXCEPTION
lol
my experience with high school is that everyone is best to stay alone forever
XP
@zed111 Well the way I see it (as a physicist, not a mathematician), the RHS is just an abuse of notation. Taking the gradient of a vector doesn't make sense, and (as far as I know) nabla is a 1xn dimensional vector (n=3 here)
nah
that's not abuse so long as you define $v = <v_1,v_2,v_3>$
In mathematics, the gradient is a multi-variable generalization of the derivative. While a derivative can be defined on functions of a single variable, for functions of several variables, the gradient takes its place. The gradient is a vector-valued function, as opposed to a derivative, which is scalar-valued. If f(x1, ..., xn) is a differentiable, real-valued function of several variables, its gradient is the vector whose components are the n partial derivatives of f. Like the derivative, the gradient represents the slope of the tangent of the graph of the function. More precisely, the gradient...
21:11
pretty sure thats accurate
and not abuse of notation
@Hippalectryon a function that takes in a point and returns a point can have a gradient. Think second derivative in comparison to second gradient...
@TheGreatDuck Well yeah you're right >.>
@TheGreatDuck But then there's the dimension issues with the dot product ? Because I suppose that in your case $\nabla$ becomes a 3x3 matrix and not a 1x3 vector
idk anymore
never thought about this
perhaps it is matrix multiplication?
oooh i know
it's a vector valued function
so it's derivative is a vector
google the frenet seret formulaw
consider it in the context of a vector input giving a vector output.
Hi everyone :) I have a problem with integral. How calculate by parts $\int_{0}^{ \infty } \frac{\sin x}{(1+x)^2}dx$ ?
Are you sure that's the function you want to integrate? The integrand doesn't have an easy primitive...
21:21
@PawełKusz Isn't your function $\sin(x)/(1+x^2)$ ?
@Hippalectryon no. That's not what they posted.
@TheGreatDuck I know :P but what they posted doesn't have any easy solution as far as I know, whereas the latter might
Neither gives a terribly nice answer.
@Hippalectryon fair enough. I don't like to make such assumptions or ask such things.
You can probably express both in terms of sine and cosine integrals, but those aren't very appealing.
21:23
:p
Mathematica returns an answer in terms of the Ei(x) integral for the sin(x)/(1+x^2) case.
I know but i want to show that $\int_{0}^{ \infty } \frac{\sin x}{(1+x)^2}dx=\int_{0}^{ \infty } \frac{\cos x}{1+x}$
Ah damn :( @Semiclassical
21:24
well, note that $\frac{d}{dx}\frac{1}{1+x}=-\frac{1}{(1+x)^2}.$
So the first integral is the same as $\int_0^\infty \sin x\frac{d}{dx}\left(-\frac{1}{1+x}\right)\,dx$.
Doing integration by parts on that is then pretty much immediate.
@Hippalectryon Here is a post that answers my question physicsforums.com/threads/…
@zed111 great :-)
semi
how do you even notice things like that
eh, experience?
@semi
@Semiclassical Thank you, but i dont understand :/
21:34
He uses black magic and sacrifices kittens to Bourbaki
Not sure what else to tell you, then.
For integration by parts, you always start by writing the integral as $\int u\,dv=\int u \frac{dv}{dx}\,dx$.
I know..
Then there's really nothing else for me to say.
21:51
This may seem like a strange question, but is it possible to do partial fraction decomposition on $\frac{\sin(x)}{(1+x)^2}$?
What do you mean by that ? @user193319
Not entirely sure...I want to write it as a sum of two fractions, one having denominator $(1+x)$, the other having $(1+x)^2$.
What about the $\sin$ ?
...Um not sure. That's why I am asking if it is possible.
I guess you could use the taylor series for $\sin$ and get ${x\over 1+x^2}+\sum_{k=0}^{+\infty}a_k x^{2k+1}$
22:11
Hi Dami
Long time no see
22:31
Hey, how's it going?
@Astyx
22:52
@BalarkaSen Hey here's a video youtu.be/LO1mTELoj6o
Hey
How's it going guys?
23:07
Alright @Daminark, just devoured some Zaxby's. Yourself?
Ontology is slowly becoming the strong p-p estimate and Radon-Nikodym
B-huh-wha?
Analysis final tomorrow
Ah. You feel ready?
Absolutely not
Ready to die, maybe
23:21
Hoo boy
Well I'm rooting for you at any rate
Thanks
I know that totally helps
triple plot twist: in the final, I think about your rooting for me, and something about that sentence leads me to figuring out the answer
@Daminark You realize the answer requires taking roots.
23:35
Hi. Any references where some generalised metric (where distance is not a real number) is used?

« first day (2496 days earlier)      last day (2821 days later) »