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17:00
its whats used to formalize probability
bye
SBM
SBM
oh
@Lozansky As for what's required...eh. I'm not great at that.
@Semiclassical Yeah, I agree. So is this correct $(\mathbf{A} \cdot \nabla B_i) \hat{e}_i = (\mathbf{A} \cdot \nabla) \mathbf{B}$?
Not as you've written it, but that's not what you wrote before.
wait
17:01
you missed \nabla in there, I think.
Yeah
\cdot\nabla
There you go.
This is what happens when you copypaste carelessly
Yeah, I think that's fine.
As I say, though, I don't know what conditions are required for this to be rigorous.
I'm unsure as well. They definitely need to be $\mathcal{C}^1$ on $V$ at least
17:04
Sounds sensible. But I'll leave that to whoever chooses to answer the question proper.
Yeah, I have a feeling it's gonna get buried though :P
Yeah, it happens
But at least you've got the formal side of it fine.
@JorgeFernándezHidalgo Thanks @JorgeFernándezHidalgo but is it true that ($\{(−\infty, a] : a\in \Bbb R\}$) not contains all set in $\mathscr B(\mathbb R)$?
I guess what I'd focus on is that, in order for the use of the Divergence to be sound, you need $B_i \mathbf{A}$ to be sufficiently well-behaved for all of $i=1,2,3$
Which really means you need $B_i A_j$ to be well-behaved for any pair of $(i,j)$.
Right, that makes sense
17:12
Another way to look at this, btw, is to think in terms of row vs. column vectors.
In that case, if $A,B,n$ are column vectors then we can write the above integral equivalently as $\int_S B A^T n\,dS$.
So you're effectively asking for the flux of the outer product $BA^T$, and the divergence theorem gives you a volume integral over the divergence of this outer product.
$$2\int e^{x^2}dx=\frac{e^{x^2}}{x}+\frac{\int e^{x^2}dx}{x^2}+2\frac{\iint e^{x^2}dx}{x^3}+\cdots = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n!\int^{(n)}e^{x^2}d^n x}{x^{n+1}}$$
Hmm ok, let's see...
@JorgeFernándezHidalgo sorry in Def2 we have if $X^{−1}(A') \in \mathscr{A}$ for any $A' \in \mathscr{A'}$. how "for any" works in Def1 ? $A' \in \mathscr{A'}$ contian all sets in borel? . my problem is this "for any" in Def1 .
Using Cauchy repeated integral formula:
$$2\int e^{x^2}dx=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n!\int^{(n)}e^{x^2}d^n x}{x^{n+1}}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n}{x^{n+1}}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n-1}e^{t^2}dt$$
17:24
n!/(n-1)!=n.
Next question is whether or not you can resum $\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n}{x^{n+1}}(x-t)^{n-1}$.
@W.R.P.S $\mathscr B(\mathbb R)$ is generated by the intervals of form $(-\infty,a]$
For that it helps to write it as $-\displaystyle \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(x-t)^n}{x^{n+1}}$
Which simplifies to $-\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \frac{1/x}{1-(x-t)}=\frac{1/x}{(1-x+t)^2}$...or at least, it would if I still trusted this.
It feels pretty dubious.
uh I thought you cannot pull the $(x-t)^{n-1}$ from the integral due to the t dependence?
I'm not. I'm putting the sum inside the integral
Ah I see (the two functions are bounded, thus the switching of the sum and integral is valid...)
ok let's see...
17:31
(That said, it feels like something has gone wrong along the way. So, caveat emptor.)
17:45
@JorgeFernándezHidalgo @JorgeFernándezHidalgo is set of intervals in $(-\infty,a]$ form a sigma algebra? I think this class of set isn't closed under countable union , so if we want to generate $\mathscr B(\mathbb R)$ we add some sets, but how check them in $X^{-1}((−\infty, a]) \in A$ for any $a \in \Bbb R$? I can't understand it :(
no no
ok
lets go step by step
the first step is to prove that the set $J$ I defined previously is a sigma algebra
I'm looking for a word, if I have some problem and I say "well x seems like something that heurstically does the right thing, so whenever we have this problem just do x", how would one describe such a solution? ad hoc, sweeping... ?
I think "crutch" is a good word
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n}{x^{n+1}}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n-1}e^{t^2}dt=\int_a^x\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n(x-t)^{n-1}}{x^{n+1}} e^{t^2}dt=-\int_a^x\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-t)^n}{x^{n+1}} e^{t^2}dt=-\int_a^x\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{1-1+\frac{t}{x}}\right) e^{t^2}dt=-\int_a^x\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{1}{t}\right) e^{t^2}dt=\int_a^x\frac{e^{t^2}}{t^2} dt$$
And finally:
Might want to use align for that :P
$$2\int e^{x^2}dx=\int \frac{e^{t^2}}{t^2}dt$$
17:54
what are the bounds of these integrals?
(Uh, previous long message has timed out...)
heh.
In any case, I find it pretty dubious.
were you being careful with switching sums with integrals? :)
(And derivatives with sums/integrals)
The lack of bounds on these integrals is the most likely source for stuff going wrong.
if its wrong (im not sure what it is) my bet is on a switch of sum/derivative with integral breaking the truth
17:56
s.harp: They are supposed to be indefinite integrals. I got all of this from repeatly using integration by parts (which in turn is from finding it pops up from 1D change of variables in the most general case)

That switching I am still not very comfortable with, but my fingers are not quick enough and not experienced enough to do dominant convergence proofs
the other day I was looking $\int_{\Bbb R}e^{-x^2-x^4}\,dx$ and I thought hey, write $e^{-x^4}$ as a power series, use that $e^{-x^2}$ suppresses all polynomial integrals and use the explicit formula $\int e^{-x^2}x^n$ to find a sum for the expression!
turns out the sum you get by doing this diverges
because I wanst careful with switching the sum with the integral
lesson: even in super simple examples things go wrong if you are not careful
It seems I am still quite terrible with infinite series, I guess I need to train more
Hi chat
(Is the equation $\int f(x) = \sum_n \frac{n! \int^{(n)}f}{x^{n+1}}$ really true?
i havent seen it ever
(It all begins from this formula that I have been messing around with inspired from the $\int \sin (\sqrt{u})du$ problem (I have derivations of it elsewhere, will post it if needed))
18:02
hey @Astyx
@s.harp That way be asymptotic series.
1D Change of variables
Let $u=g(v)$ and $A'(x)=a(x)$ Then
\begin{align}
\int a(f(u))du &=\int \frac{a(f(g(v)))(f(g(v)))'}{f'(g(v))}dv\\
& =\int \frac{a(f(u))f'(u)}{f'(u)}dv\\
& =\frac{A(f(u))}{f'(u)}+\int \frac{A(f(u))}{(f'(u))^2}f''(u)du
\end{align}
@Semiclassical can you elaborate? I dont quite get what you mean with your comment :) (sorry: im stupid today)
I think he meant "may be"
@Dodsy this is also confusing to me
18:05
In mathematics, an asymptotic expansion, asymptotic series or Poincaré expansion (after Henri Poincaré) is a formal series of functions which has the property that truncating the series after a finite number of terms provides an approximation to a given function as the argument of the function tends towards a particular, often infinite, point. Deep investigations by Dingle reveal that the divergent part of an asymptotic expansion is latently meaningful, i.e. contains information about the exact value of the expanded function. The most common type of asymptotic expansion is a power series in either...
Btw, if we don't switch the integral and sum, we get this instead:
\begin{align}
2\int e^{x^2}dx & =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n!\int^{(n)}e^{x^2}d^n x}{x^{n+1}}\\
& =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n}{x^{n+1}}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n-1}e^{t^2}dt\\
& =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_a^x \frac{n}{x^{n+1}}(x-t)^{n-1}e^{t^2}dt\\
& =-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_a^x \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{(x-t)^n}{x^{n+1}}\right)e^{t^2}dt
\end{align}
so its like a power series expansion at $\infty$ in the riemann sphere?
Asymptotic series are weird and I'd rather not try to explain in detail. Basically it amounts to: For some functions, one can obtain series expansions which are formally valid but which don't converge.
Even so, those series expansions still end up being good approximations if you truncate them after a certain number of terms.
@Secret are you sure this is correct? when I'm looking at it right now it looks like you are missing a $g'(v)$ in the second line and I dont see how the 3rd follows from the 2nd
@Semiclassical this reminds me of listening to people talk about QFT, basically the terms of a series someitmes go to infintiy but if you cut it off cleverly (without renormalisation ? ) you get something that agrees with experiment or something like that
It's the same thing, yeah.
18:10
It's pretty crazy.
The perturbation series fails to converge and so is only useful as an asymptotic series.
You can sometimes do better than that if you do stuff like Borel summation, as a way of handling those asymptotic series in a more controlled way.
But this way be resurgence theory and a whole lot of crazy crap which I don't understand.
Change of variables 1D including derivation
Given known integrand of the form: $a(f(u))$ Find:

$$\int a (f(u))du$$

Let substitution be $u=g(v)$ such that $f(g(v))=h(v)$. Then $f'(u)du=h'(v)dv\Rightarrow du=\frac{h'(v)}{f'(u)}dv$ (If $\exists u,f'(u)=0$, then $\exists v, h(v)=C$)

Therefore: $\int a (f(u))du = \int \frac{a(f(g(v)))h'(v)}{f'(g(v))}dv= \int \frac{a(h(v))h'(v)}{f'(g(v))}dv$. Let $A(x)=\int a(x) dx$. Then using integration by parts

$$\int \frac{a(h(v))h'(v)}{f'(g(v))}dv=\frac{A(h(v))}{f'(g(v))}+\int \frac{A(h(v))}{(f'(g(v)))^2}f''(g(v))g'(v)dv=\frac{A(f(u))}{f'(g(v))}+\int \frac{A(f(u))}{(f'(u))^2}f''(u)du$$
@s.harp See these slides for what I'm alluding to: faculty.washington.edu/acherman/PCM_Resurgence.pdf
DAMINNNNN
Hey man how arya.
$\sigma$
18:12
I'm alright, how about you?
Yes, I studied physics but unfortunately as an undergraduate I loved mathemtics and all the stuff we did in the undergrad lessons I could formulate in a mathematically satisfying manner
then came QFT
and I realised I dont actually like what physicists call physics
Which is?
QFT is weird.
oh
I wouldn't call it the entirety of physics, though.
18:13
quantum field theory?
Right.
That said, there's a reason why all my stuff tends to be 1D quantum mechanics.
You use feynmann diagrams for that
Namely, so that I understand what the hell I'm doing.
naively wonders does this have anything to do with class field theory?
Alternately, the formula can be easily derived by multiplying the integrand with $\frac{f'(u)}{f'(u)}$ and then integrate by parts

What surprised me on that derivation is how the final outcome does not depend on what change of variable $g(v)$ that is used
18:13
NO
gtfo
D:
@Secret it may take a while for me to read what you wrote
nerd rage
No feynman diagrams, I understand.
naively assumes the "no" is to Dodsy
18:14
Nah, QFT is all about Feynman diagrams.
but you made the effort so I feel compelled to do it D:
@Daminark WRONG
is surprised that Semi is contradicting himself
it was a double valued no
What's happening
first no to feynman diagrams
now yes
18:15
Hi Nate, Demonark, Semiclassic, harp. I'm taking a break from packing.
Oh great!
Yeah I've got no clue what's going on, Semi seems tired
qft has feynman diagrams, "schoolbook qm" has none of that
Hey @Ted!
As for the $e^{x^2}$ formula I got above and discussed with Semiclassical, I basically keep integrating the e^{x^2} and differentiating the $\frac{1}{x}$ term. Repeated application of integration by parts give that infinite series
18:15
Well, given that I just said that Daminark was wrong about said naive assumption... :P
I think I got the jumble, key to success!
-_-
I should start posting the Cryptoquip for people.
In all of its horrible punny glory.
Nice
but if you want you can do feynman diagrams even for stochastical dynamics! so there is no limit to where you can apply them, they really just express some combinatorical shit
18:16
Yeah, virial expansion /cluster diagrams stuff
I like the idea of this.
@TedShifrin What time is your flight?
Which is not that surprising given how much similarity there is between statistical field theory and quantum field theory
The two are very very similar in formulation.
I hate it when early Jumblers give away the answer.
The former just has the advantage of already being Euclidean from the start :P
It leaves 7 AM tomorrow, Nate, so I have to leave the house before 5:30 AM, I guess.
18:17
@Semiclassical im not talking about statistical field theory but the master equation on super simple systems (like for example well mixed rabbits in a cage that can fight and reproduce etc)
@Ted sorry
Also o lawd
no, Demonark, not you. This is hours later.
I think it might still be related.
Oh phew
I posted it over 3 hours ago.
18:18
I mean, you've already got time as a continuous variable in that case.
well I would not disagree with that statement
Did someone do that today?
QIWQ YMOLZWQLZ OILGM ZMWSSX ATSX EAZRUQAZM ELZ HX ILHM U’Y GWX IM’G WR UREMZULZ UREMZULZ YMGUTRMZ
So it's probably related to the Feynman path integral, just for QM not QFT.
"Feynman path integral"
Should I be concerned?
18:19
Hi chat
No, you should be angry!
@Dodsy I got "Scramble" out of that
cite that wikipedia page about no lebesgue measure on banach spaces!
Hey @Alessandro
@s.harp wat? You mean the thing about how you can't have a finitely additive translation invariant measure on $\ell^2$ for which the measure of a ball is positive and finite?
[Random] $$\sup({}^{\omega}j|j\in\Bbb{N})=\epsilon_0$$
Proof: Let some monotonic increasing function $f$. Then:
${}^{\omega}j< f({}^{\omega}j)<{}^{\omega}(j+1)$
Take $j < \omega$

$\epsilon_0< f({}^{\omega}j)<\epsilon_0$

Therefore $f({}^{\omega}j)=\epsilon_0,j < \omega$
18:23
yes, the path integral is formally written as $\int d\psi e^{iS[\psi]}$ where the integral is over a space of paths $C^1([0,1];\Bbb R^n)$
hi @Alessandro
@Dodsy My starting guess for that what be QIWQ = THAT, U'Y = I'D, and IM'G = HE'S
Or I'M, Semiclassic.
Not so sure about Y=D. Could be Y=M.
oh that's much different than where I started
I did U'Y = I'm and IM'G = It's
18:24
That's my only contribution. I have stuffs to do.
Weird
Well, that ABCA pattern shows up a lot
@s.harp Fun fact: one way to get to semiclassical approximations is to do saddle-point analysis of the Feynman path integral
to me this fact is not fun
That way be instantons.
I know
I did a talk once called "Instantons and Morse Theory in SUSY QFT"
18:28
of course, that way also be the fluctuation determinant
I still dont know wtf an instanton is apart from that non-sense blahblah "classical solutions of the eom"
And that thing is such a pain
I tend to approach semiclassical stuff from the WKB approximation. Or at least results derived from that
2
lol
you approach all of your stuff from the WKB approximation!
18:31
Bohr-Sommerfeld quantization ftw
nvmd. bad pun.
@TedShifrin I need Thom's jet bundle transversality thereom for Banach spaces. Ideas on where to find this? Golubitsky-Guillemin?
That's a good place to try, @MikeM. I honestly don't remember their doing Banach, though.
I personally don't know what works and what makes sense.
The changes should be super elementary. I could do it myself, I just don't want to.
Is somebody finite-dimensional?
18:34
No. Not really a big concern. You'll want both kernel and cokernel to be complemented.
@Semiclassical In a mathematics class I was tutoring last semester one the questions on the exam was (an exam dressed version of) "Find the energy levels of the quantised harmonic oscillator using plancks original method"
I don't know if you need eg a continuous family of complements.
I honestly have never thought about any of this.
This is the part of geometry that is almost trivial to extend.
Riemannian geometry, exponentials, those are the hard things...
Not sure I know what that means exactly
I mean, doing it via Bohr-Sommerfeld is easy
18:37
springer.com/us/book/9780387964997 Seems plausibly in here
But I don't remember what Planck's method was
I'll check our library later
Something along the lines of equipartition?
Break phase space into regions $\Lambda(a,b)=\{(x,p)\mid a≤ \text{energy of }(x,p) ≤b\}$, then define $a_1 $ so that $\Lambda(0,a_1)$ has volume hbar, define $a_n$ so that $\Lambda(a_{n-1},a_n)$ has volume hbar and then the energy $E_n$ is the expectation of the energy in $\Lambda(a_{n},a_{n+1})$
you get the right values, including the zero point energy
we thought it was pretty neat while we corrected it
@JorgeFernándezHidalgo @JorgeFernándezHidalgo $J={s : X^{-1}(s)\in A }$ I couldn't .i'm trying to prove it . but my problem is not $\mathscr {B}(\Bbb R)$ = $\sigma((−\infty, a] : a\in \Bbb R)$ i know it, but mybe I don't fully understand it, Ok i'm trying to prove J is sigma algebra Thanks
18:39
@TedShifrin Yeah I think it's in there. Sorry to bug you. I'm back out.
I dont know what Bohr-Sommerfeld is exactly, but my suspicion is that its the same
Hi chat
Hmm. I'm surprised that gives the zp energy right.
@MikeMiller About this book: "The main concern in all scientific work must be the human being himself. This, one should never forget among all those diagrams and equations"
To sum up Bohr-Sommerfeld: You require that the action of the classical orbit (the phase space volume enclosed by the orbit) be quantized in units of Planck's constant.
18:42
@s.harp it's just a quote
@MikeMiller I know, I thought it was a funny way to introduce the book though. Especially since its such a specialised book
fair enough
But to make that work you need to say that it's a half-integer multiple.
If it were an introductory book it wouldnt be as noteworthy^
it's far enough from my specialty but I'm still getting something out of it, probably :)
18:44
@Hippalectryon o/
@Semiclassical interesting, its so strange that these things work at all
@Hippalectryon how is it going? I'm preparing to go jogging and return a bit later.
What makes me especially suspicious is that getting the harmonic oscillator right requires that the difference between the classical minimum and the ground state is half the distance from the ground state to the first excited state
It would be interesting to see what kind of things you can learn from doing old quantum theory like things with modern mathematics, the other day there was a talk about the connection of Riemann Hypothesis with physics, and the guy mentioned doing some old quantum theory stuff to find funky things
I'm quite dubious you can reproduce that if the quantization rule is in terms of integers rather than half-integers
18:47
what do you mean integers as opposed to half integers?
0,1,2,3,... versus 1/2,3/2,5/2...
orly
but I mean how does it connect to things said previously?
as in the volume has to be a half integer multiple of hbar?
Hi @EricSilva. Did you ever settle that question about critical pts?
Well, the classical minimum corresponds to zero energy which is action = 0 so long as the Hamiltonian is just p^2+q^2.
ok its time for me to go home, see you around!
18:49
Later, @s.harp
Hi, I got a really dumb question, but I just need confirmation (like rubberduckdebugging):
`-9x² - (-2x²) = -9x² + (2x²) = -7x²` plis :'(
So - ( - ) = + ( ) ...
thx a lot
@Ted I managed to settle it in the case of eigenfunctions. The idea was that critical points were all non-degenerate from calculating the Hessian. Then when you look at the function along geodesics coming out of an extremum it takes a nice form and you end up being able to show that the sets of Minima and Maxima are connected, so they only have one point
It was a fun problem
In that case the manifold had to be a sphere by Morse theory, I still wonder about if you can bound the number of critical points in a more general case
@EricSilva What's your morse theory problem?
co(homology) gives lower bounds on the number of critical points of a given index on many manifolds.
Besides that it can get quite hard.
19:01
Hi @Ted @EricSilva @PVAL @s.harp @everybody
It isn't really a Morse theory problem, it was just trying to study the critical points of a function satisfying some equation
Hi Astyx
It's an open question (which if true would imply a lot of the most interesting 4-manifold questions) if every simply connected smooth closed 4-manifold admits a Morse function with only minima, maxima, and critical points of index two.
Oh, that's interesting, @EricSilva.
salut, @Astyx
@PVAL: I guess $S^1\times S^3$ would be an interesting case.
Quoi de neuf ?
@Astyx: Tomorrow at this time I'm on my way (almost across the US, then waiting).
19:04
Yeah basically I ended up showing that a sufficient condition for some Einstein manifold to be a sphere was the existence of Eigenfunctions of a particular form
Bientôt le grand voyage ?
@Ted That isn't simply-connected
Exactement, Astyx.
Oh @ simply connected.
Then waiting ?
Flight from Philadelphia to München, @Astyx.
19:05
Simply connected means there is a unique path from one point to another right ?
No, no.
I want to see if one can say more but not sure
It means every closed path is homotopic to a constant path.
There's never unique paths. Maybe unique geodesics sometimes.
@Ted S^1 \times S^3 admits a Morse function with one critical point of index 0,1,3,4 just by summing the usual Morse functions on S^1 and S^3
Interesting, @EricSilva. Did you talk to Neves about it at all yet?
19:06
Constant path meaning ?
@PVAL: Yeah, I was seeing the obvious 1 and 3.
with homological considerations this is the minimum # of critical points of each index for this manifold.
Meaning a path that doesn't move. So you can continuous deform any closed path to a point.
@PVAL: I wasn't seeing how to get only 0, 2, 4, was the point.
Nope, although I'm gonna speak to him later today about this and some problem about conformal metrics and scalar curvature I've been thinking about
What's a typical example of a simply connected set and a non-simply connected one ?
19:08
Sphere and punctured plane, @Astyx.
(Any vector space is contractible — which is the ultimate "simply connected.")
This is why you have all those interesting examples of vector fields on the punctured plane who appear to be conservative but who are not.
Oh right
Thanks !
#deRham
OK, I'm gone for now. I have to eat lunch and do serious packing. Back later, no doubt.
Bye Ted
@PVAL Assuming Morse.
19:11
@MikeMiller I think any degenerate critical points either "look Morse"
or don't "look like critical points"
So the function with the minimum number of critical points should be Morse.
Bon app' @Ted
I guess what I said isn't quite accurate
you can have things which like x^3 on one flow line
and like x^2 on another.
I still feel that the minimum should be able to be done with Morse functions.
No actually that kind of thing doesn't look like a critical point
you can morph the function on the x^3 flow line so it's derivative is increasing along it.
@PVAL You can find a function on twice punctured Sigma_g with only one critical point. The branchin locus just gets much higher.
ramification*
(Think of it as a double branched cover over the disc with one branch point at the center, and take the function to be radius
19:27
The double branched cover over the disk with a single branch point is the disk.
Yeah pretty bad argument.
I just wanna see the gradient
That would convince me
You can totally make a function with 3 critical points though but I can't draw it either
Look at the 4-author book on LS category
They have this construction where you collide critical points together and do it for the surfaces at least.
yeah this was an exercise in Hirsch
@PVAL Do you know a reference for a Banach manifold jet bundle transversality theorem? It's easy to prove but I don't want to include a 3 page proof of a mildly relevant fact.
19:32
(The thing I linked is stronger: you can even immerse the surface in a way so that height function is the 3cp function)
anyhow i'm off now
@Balarka They seem to prove the opposite of what you say
That there exists no immersion for $g>1$
Look at Theorem 3, which provides a polyhedral immersion
for g>1 there is no smooth immersion
weird stuff
I wonder if Arnold's invariants do anything here.
19:42
Balarka is back?
I'm still not sure how to count critical points of these deformations of immersed curves to embedded ones.
only for this conversation
is $\pi_1(X\vee Y)=\pi_1(X)\ast\pi_1(Y)$ always true? (all groups are calculated in the point where the spaces are joined) I can see it is true for locally simply connected spaces
So this immersion should fail to be generic
I think it's false if you take wedge of two Hawaiian earrings or something. You need the $X$ and $Y$ to have nice neighborhoods in the wedge which deformation retracts back to itself
19:44
near where the images of immersed curves are tangent to each other in their respective level sets
@Waiting I'm fine, and you ?
If the spaces are locally simply connected you can just use Van Kampen taking $2$ open sets with contractible intersection
In written division, is there a difference between calculating
`12 - 24 : x ` and ` - 12 : x `
@PVAL What are Arnold's invariants?
They are invariants of immersed plane curves through regular homotopies through generic immersions.
19:50
banishes a @Balarka for naughtiness
Briefly, they give a signed count of how many times a regular homotopy through two immersed curves fails to be generic
rehi @Alessandro
(by having a triple intersection or a self-tangency)
Salut @Hippa
19:50
@TedShifrin Salut
@RaisingAgent: Yes. You divide before you subtract. So it's 12 - (24/x).
Oh hey Ted. :) Good to see you before you depart!
I wish you the best in your travels, and hope you have a safe trip.
Thanks muchly.
when are you leaving @Ted?
@TedShifrin So I divide the -24 first? Does it matter to divide one before the other?
19:54
@Alessandro I'm convinced it's def garbage for H v H wedged at bad point. You have extra elements like 'alternately loop along circles on the 1st H and the 2nd H ad infinitum' which do not exist in pi_1(H)*pi_1(H)
First flight leaves 7 AM tomorrow.
@RaisingAgent: What do you mean? One before the other? For example, if x=6, we'll have 12-(24/6) = 12-4 = 8. There's no other way to do it.
@PVAL Ah interesting.
If you mean to subtract and then divide, you have to use parentheses and write (12-24)/x.
Balarka is never going to take his two-week break.
I am. From silly conversations.
@TedShifrin ^^ this is what I thought, the earlier parentheses confused me. Thx
19:56
That is not what the agreement was, a Balarka.
@BalarkaSen Hm, that loop you described definitely doesn't look like a member of $\pi_1(H)\ast\pi_1(H)$
@MikeMiller Well one of the invariants is a Legendrian knot invariant
one can bend rules a little :P safe flight tomorrow, once again
I put the earlier parentheses to make sure you understood the grouping, @RaisingAgent, but most people won't write those.
a @Balarka: My rules are rigid and not deformable.
@PVAL I'm just talking feelings here, but do you see what I mean? Measuring the change as we do a self-tangency is like measuring the change under RII
19:57
Too any immersed curve with no direct self tangencies you can associate a Legendrian in the manifold of contact elements (cooriented projective bundle of TR^2)
but we have no rule for R1
@TedShifrin I see, hope you have a safe travel
Which is a contact 3-manifold
Thanks, @Alessandro. I'll wave abstractly to you when I'm traveling across Italy :)
19:58
@TedShifrin First rule of the Ted club...
I learned that from Bob's paper :o
now regular homotopies with no direct self tangencies are going to correspond to Legendrian isotopies
@MikeMiller I think the setup is a little different
Doesn't he consider cusp curves with no vertical tangencies
corresponding to Legendrians in R^3

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