I don't know for certain that this doesn't exist, so I'm in a no-lose situation: if this is a rubbish answer then it means that a book that I want to exist does exist. Many mathematicians of a pure bent have taken it upon themselves to get a good understanding of theoretical physics. And many hav...
"Physics for Mathematicians: Mechanics I" is apparently a reworked and expanded version of these notes: math.uga.edu/~shifrin/Spivak_physics.pdf. Now that I know about it, I'm really looking forward to reading it!!! +1 — VectornautJan 24 '11 at 15:36
DogAteMy: Yeah, Spivak asked me to post a chapter for him when he first published his book. I didn't put that link on my updated webpage, but it's still on the old webpage if people stumble over it.
@TedShifrin Did I ever share with you the proof of the Pythagorean theorem based on an annulus?
Wait, never mind, I don't actually know if I can explain it with words without drawing stuff
Wait, Wikipedia has a thing (that's slightly different than what I would have drawn but whatever)
There's this old puzzle that asks you to show that, if length of the "inner tangent" of an annulus (the line segment tangent to the inner circle with endpoints on the outer circle) is $d$, then the annulus has the same area as the circle of diameter $d$.
This can be shown to be equivalent to the Pythagorean theorem, through a very short calculation
So if you prove that puzzle, you've proven the Pythagorean theorem.
The puzzle is true for polygonal approximations of annuli (and here is where the illustrations would come in), so taking limits gives you the puzzle for actual annuli, whence comes the QED.
DogAteMy: It's somehow related to the wonderful calculus exercise that when you drill out a cylinder of radius $r<R$ from a sphere of radius $R$ you get the volume equal to that of a sphere of radius $R-r$.
"but for the purposes of this book on mechanics the material in *A comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry*, Volumes 1 and 2, will generally be regarded as prerequisite" On second thought...
I wonder if you could prove the Pythagorean theorem by first showing the equivalent in spherical geometry and then taking the limit as the radius of the sphere goes to infinity
DogAteMy: it seems ridiculous to use trigonometry (needed for spherical geometry), which relies on Pythagoras rather seriously, and then "deduce" Pythagoras.
Right, @EricSilva, so I'm not sure what we're actually classifying.
I am hoping to hear back from the University of Western Ontario either next week or the week afterwards. I'd rather have only exams to complete. If I get accepted to Western I'll need to maintain an average of 83%.
Fix a bundle E over a manifold M. There is a corresponding moduli space $F^{(2)}(E)$ of connections that satisfy $d_A^3 = 0$ modulo gauge. Tell me about that moduli space.
i've come to suspect that the tangent space defined by the linearization should be infinite-dimensional at an honest flat connection, but most of those deformations should be non-integrable. at a 2-flat but not flat guy though maybe it's actually finite dimensional
The tangent space is the set of End(E)-valued 1-forms $\eta$ such that $d_A \eta \wedge d_A \sigma + F_A \wedge \eta \cdot \sigma = 0$ (the object here is an E-valued 2-form) for every $\sigma$.
And then we can repeat this ad infinitum I guess, "popping" each semicircle into two (not necessarily equal-size) smaller semicircles, keeping the total area the same
and I guess I don't really have anywhere else to go with this, other than to say that I think it kinda looks cool
When working with $U(1)$-bundles and a connection $A$ that is flat to start with, this reduces to "$\eta \in \Omega^1(i\Bbb R)$ such that $d^*\eta = 0$ and $d\eta \wedge d_A \sigma = 0$ for all $\sigma$"
if $X$ is a continuous random variable, the probability of $X$ being in an interval is the integral of a density function on that interval. but set with one element has measure zero, so the integral over it will be $0$
Well, the interval $[x- \delta x, x+\delta x] \text{ as } \lim \delta x \to 0$ has zero length. You can't really say that's no length. It's some small $dx$
more generally, "measure" is a mathematical way of assigning a number to subsets in a way that matches the properties of length / area / volume / probability / cardinality etc.
If you think $[0,0]=\{0\}$ has nonzero length $\ell>0$, then what do you think the length of $[0,\ell/2]$ is?
How can $[0,\ell/2]$ have less length than its proper subset $[0,0]$?
In mathematics the Laplace transform is an integral transform named after its discoverer Pierre-Simon Laplace (/ləˈplɑːs/). It takes a function of a real variable t (often time) to a function of a complex variable s (frequency).
The Laplace transform is very similar to the Fourier transform. While the Fourier transform of a function is a complex function of a real variable (frequency), the Laplace transform of a function is a complex function of a complex variable. Laplace transforms are usually restricted to functions of t with t > 0. A consequence of this restriction is that the Laplace transform...
that doesn't count as "one more time" since it precedes akiva's joke by years
it strikes me as strange that you haven't practiced with laplace transforms if you're being tested on it. wasn't there homework involving it or something?
@user314159 So they can write a travel blog and monetize on ad revenue. Also, so that journalists will write articles about them. Mountain climbers have a good life and they probably make more than you.
I'm 20. I'm not sure how math is going to get me money.
@Zee I've got a bit of a view along the lines of, I want to explore that which interests me. May sound somewhat selfish, but I dunno, while there are parts of math which don't have an immediately obvious pragmatic benefit for society, I also don't believe that the purpose of my life is to just go and provide that
@Captain I've got a similar-ish sentiment modulo the fact that if your field doesn't really have any jobs, you won't be able to engage in the activity of it either
That's somewhat my concern, like, if I were to focus all on traditional math, say going real deep into algebraic geometry, only to find little opportunity for a math career, I might have just lost out on something I would like almost as much, theoretical compsci, and will find myself having to work in something just to make a living which may pay well but not be as intellectually stimulating
I don't particularly like the fact that this is the case, like I want that vocational concerns just fall in line when they come, but that isn't particularly realistic so unfortunately some mindfulness is necessary
For my question, first i calculated $A\equiv x \mod 10$ then i calculated for $y$ using $4x-1 \equiv y \mod 10$. The answer should be $y$ according to my calculations. Is these are valid for solving this problem? @arctictern
$A\equiv 7 \mod 10$ and $y=7$ i got. but book says that answer is 3. I get calculated $$\sum_{k=0}^{20}(a+1)(3^a)=...1$$ directly on wolfram. So $4A-1 \equiv 3 \mod 10$ also according to wolfram. I am confused :=
When i calculte $A \equiv x \mod 10$ i used the fact $3^1 \equiv 3 \mod 10 \dots$ like this: $$1\cdot 3^0+2\cdot 3^1+3\cdot 3^2+ \dots 21\cdot 3^{20} \equiv 1\cdot 1+2\cdot 3+3\cdot 9+ \dots 21\cdot 9 \mod 10$$. Isn't this valid?