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17:00
@DHMO please enlighten me oh great one
What you did does not look correct, @SpaceOtter.
What's that integrand
Hint:
$\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} \cot x = -\csc^2 x$
$\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} \csc x = -\csc x \cot x$
@Lozansky cosecant.
@SpaceOtter what the hell did you just call me in front of @TedShifrin and @AkivaWeinberger
and @AlessandroCodenotti
17:01
@DHMO Haha..........
HAHAHA... wow, double laughs
@SpaceOtter Do you know the integral of $\sec$?
yeah but is it cos*sec or cos(sec)? because the first one is just one
@DHMO You enjoy answering questions on MSE?
@Lozansky cosec = cosecant.
17:01
@SimplyBeautifulArt quite
There is a cool way to derive these integrals using partial fractions. Do you know this, DogAteMy, @DHMO?
@TedShifrin I did not
enlighten me, o great one
Lol okay
There's this really weird and hard-to-guess antiderivative of $\sec$. You can basically just put "co" in front of all the stuff I think (and maybe a few minus signs?)
@TedShifrin I do.
Write $\dfrac1{\sin x} = \dfrac{\sin x}{\sin^2 x} = \dfrac{\sin x}{1-\cos^2 x} = \dfrac{\sin x}{(1-\cos x)(1+\cos x)}$.
4
17:02
@DHMO Just don't be sweeping me off the leaderboard
@Balarka did you work out whether there are subspaces of $\Bbb R^3$ with a finite fundamental group? I remember you were wondering about that a while back
DogAteMy: $(\text{co}f)' = -\text{co}(f')$.
@TedShifrin "Why? Because it works, that's why"
@DHMO Intergrals of inverse trig functions Isn't in my nearest exam so I skipped that section.
So I should be able to do it without it right?
Anonymous
If f(x) is differentiable at a point but g(x) is not. Then is it compulsory for f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) and g(g(x)) to be non-differentiable at that point?
17:04
@TedShifrin that is nice
DogAteMy: I think we can justify that reasonably using the unit circle, considering $\int \dfrac{dx}y$.
@blue Take $f(x)=x^2$ and $g(x)=|x|$ as an example. $f$ is differentiable at $0$, $g$ is not.
@SpaceOtter: No inverse trig involved here.
@blue take $f=0$ for the first one and $f="a point at which $g$ is differentiable" for the second
And yet $f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x^2$ is differentiable everywhere.
17:05
let's come up with pathological examples of $f \cdot f = id$ where $f : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$
@DHMO Need to fix our answers.
@DHMO Who are you talking to?
@SpaceOtter anyone
How do you quote message from earlier in chat?
Anonymous
@AkivaWeinberger But g(g(x)) is non differentiable. Any idea about that?
Anonymous
17:06
Is it always so for all non differentiable g(x)?
@DHMO I feel like, for continuous functions, we just have $x$ and $-x$
Hi all.
@blue Hm, let me think
@AkivaWeinberger can you prove it?
@DHMO is that pointwise product or composition?
17:07
@AlessandroCodenotti composition
oh god what did i write
let's come up with pathological examples of $f \circ f = id$ where $f : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$
I'm sorry for the confusion
@DHMO Wait, no, I mean $x$ and $c-x$
If $a =b.c$ and $p$ is a prime s.t. $p^2$ doesnot divide $a$ then is this true $p$ doesnot divide both $b$ and $c$ ?
@AkivaWeinberger that is nice
Anonymous
@AkivaWeinberger Sure. If we differentiate it we get g'(g(x))g'(x)...here g'(x) doesn't exist and I don't know about g'(g(x))
@BAYMAX: Take the contrapositive of what you just asked.
17:08
@BAYMAX take a=10, b=2, c=5, and p=2.
@DHMO No, clearly there's more actually…
@AkivaWeinberger how?
@DHMO: You're not right.
@TedShifrin how?
There's plenty of super ugly involutions if you don't require continuity
17:09
Read it carefully.
Anyway...
$$\int(-1+u^2)^{-1} du$$
Let $\phi:[0,\infty)\to(-\infty,0]$ be bijective, with $\phi(0)=0$.
@TedShifrin oh god
@SpaceOtter: That is not a correct integral. How did you get that?
Then $f(x)=\begin{cases}\phi^{-1}(x),&x<0\\0,&x=0\\\phi(x),&x>0\end{cases}$ works.
the letter "B" is a swear word in Mandarin
@Alessandro: Did you ever prove that continuity of pointwise limit of sequence of continuous functions thing?
what is $\phi$?
Ok,If $p$ divides $b$ and $c$ then $p^2$ divides $a$ is the contrapositive.@TedShifrin
No, @BAYMAX, if $p$ divides $b$ and $p$ divides $c$ ...
Anonymous
Can there be any such function where $g(x)$ is not derivable at a point but $g(g(x))$ is derivable at that point?
@blue yes.
consider an involution
Anonymous
@DHMO Like?
Anonymous
What's that "involution"?
yes@TedShifrin
17:13
Ah, I see. So:
$g(x) = \begin{cases}x&x \in \Bbb Q\\-x&x \notin \Bbb Q\end{cases}$
So now can you prove it, @BAYMAX?
@blue $g$ is nowhere differentiable but $g \circ g$ is everywhere differentiable
yes contrapostive is true so yes the statement is true
$g(x):=\begin{cases}-2x,&x<0\\-x/2,&x\ge0\end{cases}$ @blue
17:14
@TedShifrin nope, I forgot to be honest. I tried to construct the indicator function of $\Bbb Q$ as a double pointwise limit of continuous function and it even seemed to work, until I noticed my construction would contradict the Baire cathegory theorem if it were right...
I sometimes get into this trap that is while negating I made or , any strong point in this one @TedShifrin
Anonymous
@DHMO Ah, right. But can there be any such continuous function? Your function isn't continuous...
@blue look at @AkivaWeinberger 's function
@TedShifrin u=cosx
$\frac {du}{dx} = -sinx$ so $dx=\frac{-1}{sinx}$
Then $$ \int cosecxdx=\int \frac {-1}{sin^2x} du$$
And $sin^2x=1-cos^2x$
oh and my function is continuous at $0$ @blue
17:15
Well, @BAYMAX, if you have NOT (....), then the negation is NOT NOT (....) :P
Then $g(g(x))=x$ (for example, $g(g(6))=g(-3)=6$), so $g(g(x))$ is differentiable everywhere but $g(x)$ has a corner at $0$. @blue
Latex takes me a while I just started
@SpaceOtter and you still forget to do \sin x
What do you mean, I don't see it
Oh, I see, @SpaceOtter. My apologies. This is exactly the method I suggested up there ^^^^ using substitution with partial fractions. It's identical.
17:16
$sin x$ vs. $\sin x$
@SpaceOtter
yes, I was saying this - negation of $p$ divides b and c is $p$ doesnot divide b and c ,while i made a mistake of writing this like I took negation of each that is $~$divide = not divide and [~and = or] , but it is not correct any point on this?@TedShifrin
@AkivaWeinberger that's nice
I can't follow that, @BAYMAX, sorry.
yes, I was saying this - negation of $p$ divides b and c is $p$ doesnot divide b and c ,while i made a mistake of writing this
17:18
@TedShifrin How do you partial fraction that when the denominator isn't a product?
@SpaceOtter make it a product
But $u^2-1 = (u+1)(u-1)$.
Anonymous
@AkivaWeinberger Right. That's a great example!
Thanks Chaps, can't believe I didn't see that @TedShifrin
17:19
Ok,why the negation of $p$ divides $a$ and $c$ is not this one :- $p$ doesnot divide $a$ or $c$?@TedShifrin
like why not take negation of all!
may be silly but still!
(I know this is an old problem but bear with me)
Prove that $(-1) \times (-1) = 1$
@BAYMAX: Your original sentence was "$p$ does not divide both $b$ and $c$."
The negation of NOT (....) is simply (....).
@DHMO My English teacher said that double negatives turned things into positives, so yeah.
@SimplyBeautifulArt bingo... not
Oh crap.
17:21
@DHMO What axiom system
@AkivaWeinberger ring
(you can try the peano extended to the integers if you like)
where $-x = [[(0,x)]]$
@BAYMAX: There is often ambiguity with the language, but this should be interpreted as saying NOT ($p$ divides both $b$ and $c$).
Yes negation is p doesnot divide b and c ?
or
p doesnot divide b or c
@TedShifrin
You can rewrite it as $p\nmid b$ or $p\nmid c$, but why bother doing that when we want to NEGATE the NOT (....) statement?
@DHMO \begin{align}(-1)\times(-1)&=(-1)\times(-1)+0\\& =(-1)\times(-1)+(-1)+1\\&=(-1)\times(-1)+(-1)\times1+1\\ &=(-1)\times(-1+1)+1\\&= (-1)\times0+1\\&=1\end{align}
17:27
oh I am little confusing I guess,you ask me a negtion of a statement and I will tell@TedShifrin ?
The scale factor from cartesian to spherical is $r^2 \sin \psi$ right?
@AkivaWeinberger That's nice, I'll let you pass if you don't have time to prove the absorbance of $0$
@DHMO Isn't that a ring axiom?
@Lozansky $\mathrm dx \ \mathrm dy = r \ \mathrm dr \ \mathrm d\theta$, if that's what you're looking for
That $a+0=a$?
17:27
not this
no, @BAYMAX, I'm done.
Oh, whoops
You mean $a\times0=0$.
@DHMO Looks polar to me
@Lozansky oh, never mind
ok ><
17:28
@Lozansky you might like this page
@DHMO: The usual thing you have to be careful about is proving that $(-1)\times a = -a$.
@TedShifrin sure
@DHMO Yeah I couldnt figure out the name. Cheers
@TedShifrin I avoided that, I think
You used it only for $1$, I think, DogAteMy :)
I usually write the argument a bit more succinctly, but I think it's essentially the same.
17:30
T/F: $\forall A,B \in \Bbb R^{n \times n}: (A+B = I_n) \implies (A^2 + 2AB + B^2 = I_n)$
Ok
The negation of "A or B" is the statement "Not A and Not B."
In a game of bridge, the 52 cards of a conventional pack are distributed at random between the four players, in such a way that each player receives 13 cards. Show that the probability that each player receives one ace is
$$
\frac{24\cdot48!\cdot13^4}{52!}
$$
We're dealing with equiprobable outcomes, so I know that $\mathbb P(A)=\vert A\vert/\vert\Omega\vert$. I can see that $52!=\vert\Omega\vert$ and also that $48!$ stands for the number of ways we can distribute all cards except the aces amongst the players. Now I don't see exactly where $24$ and $13^4$ come from. Could someone explain th
@TedShifrin That was the multiplicative identity property I used
$1\times a=a$
I know, DogAteMy.
looks like nobody is interested in my challenge
@ShaVuklia $24=4!$ is which ace each player receives
17:32
OK this sounds like a stupid question but how do we generalize multiplication to all of the reals?
@DHMO $a\times0=a\times0+a\times0-a\times0=a\times(0+0)-a\times0$
I mean, for the rationals it's pretty obvious
@MeowMix using which definition of the reals?
$=a\times0-a\times0=0$
I have a suspicion that this person isn't an English speaker: math.stackexchange.com/q/2237104/137524
17:33
$13^4$ is where the ace is found in each player @ShaVuklia
@AkivaWeinberger nice
@DHMO oh right, I didn't make that distinction
thank you!
@TedShifrin are you interested or you know the answer already?
I suppose using Cauchy sequences?
Hey everybody, back!
@DHMO For what, this?
17:34
Of course I know, @DHMO.
@MeowMix then $x y = [[x_ny_n]]$
Hi Demonark.
@AkivaWeinberger yes
oh pfft
Oh. Of course it's false :P
17:34
@TedShifrin of course you're a professor
@AkivaWeinberger think thrice
Um…
I mean, unless $A+B=I$ implies $AB=BA$…
Unless ...
It does.
$A=I-B$ certainly commutes with $B$.
lol I wanted @AkivaWeinberger to come up with the proof on his own
@TedShifrin I'm quite amazed by your speed
have you seen it before?
No, @DHMO, but remember I've written a bunch of textbooks with linear algebra in them.
17:37
@TedShifrin I know
@Semiclassical Oh!
Argh!
DogAteMy: It's a trick trick question.
@Ted so I want to prove (to begin with) that if $f$ is the pointwise limit of the continuous functions $\{f_n\}$ and $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f$ is continuous in a nbhd of $x_0$. My problem is that regardless of how small I pick $\epsilon$ it's not true that there there is an $\tilde{n}$ such that $|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon$ for all $x\in(x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon)$ and $n>\tilde{n}$
I think this is false
29 mins ago, by BAYMAX
If $a =b.c$ and $p$ is a prime s.t. $p^2$ doesnot divide $a$ then is this true $p$ doesnot divide both $b$ and $c$ ?
Which is basically the same as saying that pointwise convergence isn't uniform... Derp
17:38
If $p$ divides both $b$ and $c$ then $p^2$ certainly divides $bc$.
Ok, nevermind, no hints yet, I think I need to change approach entirely
@MeowMix You'd want to prove that that sequence is still Cauchy and that it's independent of the choice of sequences for $x$ and $y$
If all pointwise convergent sequences were uniformly convergent, life would be different, indeed, @Alessandro.
That's very true @Baymax
(Existence and well-definedness)
17:39
That'd be convenient for sure
Everything would just commute and life would be great
We wouldn't need Lebesgue integration, for one thing.
@Akiva Constructing $\mathbb{R}$?
@Daminark multiplication of two numbers in $\Bbb R$
Would that completely take care of the problems with Riemann integration @Ted?
the above is of the form $P \implies Q$ right @Semiclassical@Daminark?
17:41
Are the Siegel zeros (conjectured/believed to be) the same as the Riemann zeta zeros?
Well, the characteristic function of the rationals is the pointwise limit of a sequence of integrable functions, Demonark :P
and while contrapositive we do negation $ Q \implies $ neagtion of $ P$
@DHMO I appreciate that you're doing this by way of Cauchy classes and not Dedekind cuts
$p|b$ and $p|c$ implies $p^2|bc$.
@Daminark why? Dedekind cuts are much simpler
(I didn't choose Cauchy. @MeowMix did.)
17:42
Verifying the field axioms are annoying
That's true
Verifying axioms in general tends to be tedious.
That's probably an axiom.
7
It's marginally better with Cauchy stuff
and while contrapositive we do negation $ Q \implies $ neagtion of $ P$ , I s this true @Semiclassical
17:43
Plus, like, Cauchy constructions generalize to metric spaces
I think we encounter those far more than Dedekind constructions
but Dedekind cuts generalize to surreal numbers
Sure. i.e. if $p^2$ doesn't divide $bc$ then either $p$ doesn't divide $b$ or $p$ doesn't divide $c$.
ok so considering now negation of $Q$
Dedekind completion generalizes to stuff in order theory and lattice theory (which is probably one of the reason set theorists prefer cuts over cauchy sequences)
@DHMO So a friend of mine over the last summer did his REU paper on Conway-style game theory and surreal numbers
The definition of a game angered me so much
I'm just like "HOW IS THIS NOT CIRCULAR???!!!! >:("
17:45
@SimplyBeautifulArt lolll
And then I realized it's fine because vacuous truth of the empty set...
There's a fine line between circular and inductive
negation (P $\nmid$ b and P $\nmid $ c) is $P \mid b$ or $P \mid c$ right @Semiclassical
@SimplyBeautifulArt that censorship
17:46
Honestly it felt like all of that subject followed from vacuous truth in the empty set
well, most inductive proofs follow just from $1=1$ or some such, Demonark.
@DHMO Well... if you want to <strikethrough>strikethrough</strikethrough> it...
That's true, but I'm not sure why you're doing that version.
Or however you do it
strikethrough
17:47
The relevant version has "and" and "or" swapped.
Especially Conway induction... Like that stuff was dank and all, I want to check it out, but eek
It was aggressive
yeah I did that t=right@Semiclassical
and , or swapped?
0
Q: How many Digits in $3^{2020}$

Koolman I know n+1 = number of digits in $3^{2020}$ but how to find number of digits . How can we do it without using a calculator .

@SimplyBeautifulArt ...
I fixed it for you
not(p|b and p|c) = not(p|b) or not(p|c)
yes, any mistake in my writing above@Semiclassical
@DHMO That's why you should make your MathJax neat xD
well, my point is that what I just wrote isn't the same as what you did.
17:50
@SimplyBeautifulArt I didn't intend it to be edited
@Semiclassic: You'll see if you scroll up a lot that I said at least twice that the negation of NOT (....) was merely (....).
@DHMO Nope, editing police coming through
sorry but I am unable to find the difference.yes negation of $p \nmid b$ is $p \mid b$
and negation of and is or , so what is wrong in my statement?
Like I said, it's not wrong. It's just not relevant to the problem you posed above.
17:54
like can you point where I got deviated,
Like we need to do negation of $Q$
Your question earlier could be stated as whether or not "If p^2 doesn't divide bc, then p doesn't divide b or doesn't divide c" is true
and while doing that we need to negate $\nmid$ ,and right?
The point, though, is that the implication is not "p doesn't divide b AND p doesn't divide c"
it's OR.
actually this one -
19 mins ago, by BAYMAX
29 mins ago, by BAYMAX
If $a =b.c$ and $p$ is a prime s.t. $p^2$ doesnot divide $a$ then is this true $p$ doesnot divide both $b$ and $c$ ?
T/F: The interval [-1,1] under the operation + forms a group
17:57
I'm having trouble discerning whether this is a valid approach to prove the following. For any points. $x$,$y$ in $\mathbb{R^{k}} let in $(1.)$ $$(1.)$$ $d_{1}(x,y) = max{|x_{j} - y_{j} | : j = 1,2,...,k}$ and $d_{2}(x,y)=\sum_{k}^{j=1}|x_{j}-y_{j}|$ show $d_{1}$ and $d_{2}$ are metrics in $\mathbb{R^{k}}
That's exactly what I was paraphrasing.
"p does not divide b and c" is not the same as "p does not divide b and p does not divide c."
@DHMO it's not closed wrt that operation
@AlessandroCodenotti bingo
"2 does not divide 4 and 5" is true. "2 does not divide 4 and 2 does not divide 5" is false.
My intial idea was to use the definition of a metric space and for the beginning of the proof let $\mathbb{R^{k}}$ reside in a set $S$ and go from there
18:11
yes@Semiclassical , I agree but I have not done that?
13 mins ago, by Semiclassical
"p does not divide b and c" is not the same as "p does not divide b and p does not divide c."
Ok ok
why aren't they same? My whole mistake was that!
sorry
why they are not same?
Well, the example I just gave should suffice.
Nice thank you very much @Semiclassical , I have to brush up that everyday.
sorry@TedShifrin
It's the annoying fact that the not(A and B) is equivalent to not(A) OR not(B), rather than not(A) AND not(B).
A family $\mathcal A=(A_i:i\in I)$ of events is called independent, if for all finite subsets $J$ of $I$,
$$
\mathbb P\left(\bigcap_{i\in J}A_i\right)=\prod_{i\in J}\mathbb P(A_i).
$$
I'm wondering why do we need $J$ to be a finite subset? Infinite products are defined after all, and we also have the following:
$$
\mathbb P\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty A_i\right)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb P(A_i),
$$
where $A_1,A_2,\dots$ are disjoint events in $\mathcal F$.
so ,$a = bc$ and $p$ be a prime such that $p^2 \nmid a ,$$p \nmid b$ and $p \nmid c$ and now I think this is false!
I think this is the different version of my first one
18:17
Here's a relevant example for your purposes. We have 24=4*6, and 2 divides both 4 and 6, and we have 4 divides 24.
just did an edit!
On the other hand: 4*5=20 is divisible by 4 despite the fact that 2 doesn't divide 5.
Whereas 2*5=10 isn't divisible by 4 and 2 doesn't divide 5.
So we can't conclude "4 doesn't divide bc" if we only know that 2 doesn't divide c.
so is my above statement false!
Perhaps. I'm a bit unsure which statement you're considering.
The original statement you provided is certainly true.
3 mins ago, by BAYMAX
so ,$a = bc$ and $p$ be a prime such that $p^2 \nmid a ,$$p \nmid b$ and $p \nmid c$ and now I think this is false!
18:19
Yeah, that's not terribly clear.
so ,$a = bc$ and $p$ be a prime such that $p^2 \nmid a$ then $p \nmid b$ and $p \nmid c$ and now I think this is false!
Sure. 4 doesn't divide 2*5, but 2 divides 2.
as doing contrapositive $p \mid b$ or $p \mid c$ doesnot imply that $p^2 \mid a$
Nice one! thanks@Semiclassical
Now I need to brush up!
ok bye , have a nice day!.
18:37
I've got a question. Why does:
$\sum_{n=1}^N \{N/n\}<N$, where $\{N/n\}+\lfloor N/n \rfloor=N/n$? Or rather, is there a neat way to explain it?
Anonymous
@Studentmath $0 \leq \{\frac{N}{n}\} <1$
Yeah bu-
Jesus I am stupid. For some reason I thought of $\sum_{n=1}^N n\cdot \{N/n\}$
Thanks @Blue
Anonymous
np :)
I was like "wait but then I have to eliminate so many options!"
It's actually less than $N-2$, if $N>2$.
Anonymous
18:57
Can a certain point of intersection of $f(x)$ and $f^{-1}(x)$ not lie on $y=x$ ?
Anonymous
Can someone think of any example like that ?
@Blue well the may intersect at every point, or not intersect at all, too

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