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12:00
There's a typo here, of course. I meant $\sum b_i y_i^2$ (here $y_i$ are variables which are linear combinations of $x_i$).
simplify* sorry.
@Alessandro Agreed.
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen I noticed. Nvm, I'm watching the MIT OCW video on diagonalization.
Anonymous
Thanks a lot!
Great. No problem :)
12:01
If $x$ is real, then $x^2=(x^{\frac{2}{n-2}})^{n-2}$ and $x^yz^y=(xz)^y$
Oh, right, thanks.
i wouldnt call that a simplification
so given such conditions, one can bubble the $x^2$ term into the power
Oh, but, I'm trying to put together the term $x+1$ and $x$ in one term
$(x+1)^{n-2} \cdot x^2 = x^{\text{something}}$ or $(x+1)^{\text{something}}$
I need to do it in order to get a recurrence relation in my problem.
Anonymous
@Topologicalife That doesn't seem possible....
12:09
@Topologicalife you can't
@Topologicalife can you show us your whole problem?
Anonymous
Anonymous
How did they apply LMVT with $f'(\theta h)$ ?
@blue I'm not trusting your source anymore
Anonymous
I have been solving these papers for the last 4 hours. I'm really fed up with the questions too =P.
Anonymous
12:11
hehe
@blue $\theta h$ is just a way to parameterize a number between $0$ and $h$
$0 < \theta < 1$
$0 < \theta h < h$
Given the ODE $(1-x^2)y'' -2xy' + \lambda y = 0$ find a solution given a power series in the variable "(x+1)" centered at $x = -1$.
so let $u=x+1$
we want a power series in the variable $u$ centered at $u = 0$.
i.e: the solution is in the form $P(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k (x+1)^k$
Anonymous
@DHMO Hmm, I understand that...but in LMVT how can they write $$f'(\theta h)=\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{h-0}$$
12:13
@blue that is LMVT itself
And the ODE is $(2u-u^2)y'' - 2(u-1)y' + \lambda y = 0$
@DHMO I have to do it specificaly centered at $x = -1$.
$\theta h$ lies in $(0, h)$
Anonymous
@DHMO Oh wait, $c=\theta h$
Anonymous
Darn
12:13
@Topologicalife yes, which means $u=0$
Anonymous
my head isn't working
Anonymous
gotta go and sleep
Anonymous
thanks people!
@DHMO yeah, I know! I mean I want to do it (compute it) centered at $x=-1$ without to that subtitution.
@Topologicalife why wouldn't you want that substitution?
it's so convenient
you can substitute it back after it
12:15
Because then I get the step where I'm stuck and I want to solve it, not avoid it.
substitution ain't avoiding nothin'
why would you want to complicate things
I.e: $P'' (x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} k(k-1)a_k (x+1)^{k-2}$, then how I do simplify $x^2\cdot P'' (x) $
none of your variables match
you use $n$ and then $k$ and then $x$
when they should be one single variable
that's better
alright
$x^2 = (x+1)^2 - 2(x+1) + 1$
(that's what you get for not using substitution)
12:18
That's really clever.
lesson: USE SUBSTITUTION
:) Yeah, but I need to check if I get the same solution (it is given without to do that subtitution). Thanks, so much appreciated.
not using substitution is ridiculous
Well, I do it because one reason.
what reason?
12:21
They gave me this recurrence relation: $\dfrac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}=\dfrac{k^2+k-\lambda}{2k^2+4k+2}$, and then they apply the Gauss criterion for convergence of series...
alright
I'm sure using $u=x+1$ will give you the same relation
But they can't apply it since the first coefficient of the greater power (i.e: 2) is not 1.
Actually it doesn't.
(I already did it)
alright
so now I will check if they gave a wrong recurrence relation.
@DHMO uhmm actually it should give me the same recurrence relation. It can't depends of a change of variable, right?
Right
12:25
I got this recurrence relation: $a_{k+2} =\dfrac{(k+1)k - \lambda}{(k+2)(k+1)} a_k$
Which doesn't seems to be the same since my odd terms are all 0.
Maybe you could show us your steps
well, if their "$k$" is even...
for both approaches
I checked my recurrence relation with the solution a book gives to Legendre differential equation and it is the same.
Now I have to do this approach we just talk about.
chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/36741598#36741598 There is $\sum_{k=2}^{\infty}$ instead of $\sum_{k=\color{red}{0}}^{\infty}$
Is $\Bbb Q[x]/\langle{x^{200}+1}\rangle$ even an extension?
@BalarkaSen
12:40
$f(x,y) = \begin{cases}
& \frac{1}{3}\text{ if } (x,y)= (1,1), (1,1), (2,2)\\
& 0\text{ if } x= otherwise
\end{cases}$

$cov(X,Y)=E(XY) - E(X)E(Y)$
$=(0\times 0\times \frac{1}{3})+(1\times 1\times \frac{1}{3})+(2\times 2\times \frac{1}{3})$
$=\frac{5}{3}$
Anbody good with statistics?
Does that look ok for covariance?
What is $f(1,3)$?
oops i forgot to -E(x)E(y)
@DHMO double oops, the first (1,1) should be (0,0)
there's a lot of typos in the first line (definition of $f$)
@DHMO Sure, that's a field extension of Q. Why not.
@BalarkaSen but it's reducible
12:43
x^200 + 1 is not reducible in Q...?
@BalarkaSen x^200 + 1 = (x^40)^5 + 1
Ah. Well, shit.
Then it's not a field, yeah.
Is it true that if $F=\Bbb Q[x]/\langle{P(x)}\rangle$ is a field-extension, then $[F:\Bbb Q]=\deg P$?
$f(x,y)=\begin{cases}
& \frac{1}{3}\text{ if } (x,y)=(0,0), (1,1), (2,2) \\
& 0\text{ if } (x,y) = otherwise
\end{cases}$
that's better
12:47
haha
but can be improved
oh yeah?
@DHMO Sounds right to my ears.
I have forgotten algebra tho
$f(x,y) = \begin{cases}
\dfrac{1}{3} & \text{ if } (x,y)=(0,0), (1,1), (2,2) \\
0 & \text{ if } (x,y) =\text{ otherwise}
\end{cases}$
@DHMO much better
12:48
@Kane I agree with you for once
@DHMO I'm trying to find the covariance of X and Y
I know
I think it's 2/3
but you need to show your steps
@DHMO

cov(X,Y) = E[XY] - E[X]E]Y]
= (0*0*1/3) + (1*1*1/3) + (2*2*1/3) - 1 * 1
= 0 + 1/3 + 4/3 - 3/3
= 2/3
12:52
alright
I'm actually trying to find correlation, but this is the first step
var(X) = E[X^2] - (E[X])^2
= (0^2 * 1/3) + (1^2 * 1/3) + (2^2 * 1/3) - 1^2
= 0 + 1/3 + 4/3 - 1
= 2/3
is that correct
$corr(X,Y)=\frac{cov(X,Y)}{\sqrt{var(X)\times var(Y)}}$
$corr(X,Y)=\frac{\frac{2}{3}}{\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}\times \frac{2}{3}}}=1$
Joint probability question: How to plot the following probability distribution where every letter you saw here is either 0 or 1?
$$P(a,b\vert A,B)=\left\{\begin{matrix}\frac{1}{2},a+b \mod 2 = AB \\ 0, \textrm{otherwise}\end{matrix}\right.$$
I'm seeing more letters than I should
how can my correlation be one? that can't be right
sorry, I mean a,b,A,B
13:02
@Kane how did you calculate $\operatorname{var}(X)$?
var(X) = E[X^2] - (E[X])^2
König-Huygens formula
@DHMO is it possible to have a correlation of 1 if the probability function is always 1/3?
Or theorem even, some might say
@Kane I have no idea
13:16
@DHMO yes, it's homeomorphic to $\Bbb Q[\alpha]$ where $\alpha$ is a root of $P$ and simple (field) extensions have the degree of the minimal polynomial of the element you're extending with iirc
@AlessandroCodenotti thanks
but what is $P$ has no root?
$P$ has roots somewhere (in the field extension actually)
are you considering complex roots?
Not necessarily
Ah, wait, you started with $\Bbb Q$ as base field, then yes, the roots will be complex at worse
if $\displaystyle \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(j)}(c)}{j!} (x - c)^j = 0$ shall I prove that $f^{(j)}(c) = 0$? or is it trivial?
13:26
I mean $\Bbb Q[x]/(x^2+1)$ is isomorphic (thanks to the first isomorphism theorem) to $\Bbb Q[i]$
I've been thinking of something
@AlessandroCodenotti I see, thanks
@LegionMammal978 I would be quite shocked if you haven't been thinking of anything
@Topologicalife it is trivial.
It's not that trivial
If you've done the work before, it becomes trivial
I thought "trivial" is just a shortcut for tedious proofs
Okay, thanks. Another related question. If I have $a + \displaystyle \sum_{j=1}^\infty a_j x^j = 0$, then why $a = 0$ and $\displaystyle \sum_{j=1}^\infty a_j x^j = 0$?
13:35
That's not true
I understand that $\displaystyle \sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j x^j = 0$ implies $ a_j = 0 \forall j$.
Take $a=-1$, and $a_i = \delta_{i,1}$
Sorry :D
@Astyx I thought $\delta$ is not a function
13:36
@Topologicalife differentiate both sides
Evaluate at $x=0$
Take a continuous, total function $f:[0,1]\rightarrow\Bbb R$. Now, how could one determine the length $L_f$ of a string obtained by plotting the function over $[0,1]$?
For instance, if $f(x)=x$, then $L_f=\sqrt2$. As another example, if $f(x)=c$ for any constant $c\in\Bbb R$, then $L_f=1$.
The sum is zero, so that implies $a=0$
The rest follows
@Astyx that is because is a functional equation, right?
@DHMO Why wouldn't $\delta$ be a function ?
@Topologicalife I guess so
13:38
> From a purely mathematical viewpoint, the Dirac delta is not strictly a function, because any extended-real function that is equal to zero everywhere but a single point must have total integral zero.
You'd normally have quantifiers before, to determine what $x$ is
I mean, it must be true for all x.
$\delta$ Is a distribution.
@LegionMammal978 what is a total function?
Oh that's not the Dirac function, which does not exist
13:39
what is it then
Kronecker delta I think.
$\begin{array}{rcl}
a + \displaystyle \sum_{j=1}^\infty a_j x^j &\equiv& 0 \\
\displaystyle \sum_{j=1}^\infty j a_j x^{j-1} &\equiv& 0 \\
\displaystyle \sum_{j=0}^\infty (j+1) a_{j+1} x^j &\equiv& 0 \\
\end{array}$
Then use the previous theorem
Uhm and the coefficientes are unique because the identity principle.
@Topologicalife Then again you need quantifiers around, else it becomes ambiguous what you mean
13:40
@DHMO Here, let's just say that $f(x)$ is defined for all $x\in[0,1]$
So no singularities
@DHMO you don't really need to differentiate, you only need to evaluate at $0$
@LegionMammal978 that is just arc length
$L_f = \displaystyle \int_0^1 \sqrt{1+\left(\dfrac{\mathrm df}{\mathrm dx}\right)^2}\ \mathrm dx$
@LegionMammal978 take the sup of the lengths of the polygonal paths inscribed in the graph of your function as a subset of $\Bbb R^2$, this will give you an integral formula that you can surely find if you google arc length
And find another person if your function is not differentiable
@Astyx alright
Okay, originally thought arc length was only for circular arcs :)
13:42
@AlessandroCodenotti what if the function is not differentiable
@Astyx what is this
What is what ?
Okay, thanks guys :)
@Astyx never mind
As long as it's at least piecewise linear you're fine
Otherwise the arc length won't really work
Riemann Siegel theta:
$$\vartheta (t)=\pi \left(\left\lfloor \frac{t \log \left(\frac{t}{2 \pi \exp (1)}\right)}{2 \pi }+\frac{7}{8}\right\rfloor +\frac{1}{2} \left(-1+\text{sgn}\left(\Im\left(\zeta \left(i t+\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)\right)\right)-\frac{\Im\left(\log \left(\zeta \left(i t+\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)\right)}{\pi }\right)$$
13:45
@AlessandroCodenotti piecewise linear?
Apart from differing singularities.
@AlessandroCodenotti I can't have $x^2$?
What's wrong with my first sentence $DHMO ?
@DHMO piecewise differentiable*
@Astyx $\sqrt \cdot$ is well-defined even for negative numbers?
13:56
Meh :p
Happy holidays to those who celebrate
Yeah, happy easter
I was in bed last night thinking and came up with something pretty trivial
It's still better than nothing at all
Let's say you bisect an equilateral triangle horizontally, is the top triangle made also equilatera?
14:03
@Dodsy yes
provided that the base of the original triangle is horizontal
I was thinking about finding the length of the bisecting line
Which I thought about for an hour I'll have to admit before I realized how easy it was
that happens
it was still nice to think about I suppose
So then the length of the bisection would be equal to one minus the height of the bisection divided by the height of the equillateral triangle multiplied by the base, right?
you skipped too many details and assumptions
[1-(y/h)]b
14:10
alright
You're right first we have to note that all sides of the triangle are the same and that the base of the triangle is horizontal
To find the height of the equilateral we take $b^2 - 1/2b^2$
you don't need all sides of triangle being the same
No this could also work with a right handed triangle
So any triangle with a horizontal base
Good point
Challenge : prove any closed set of $\Bbb R$ is the set of the zeros of a $C^{\infty}$ function
What is $C^\infty$?
14:14
Okay my thought process started as thinking that the smaller triangle made will have a ratio to the larger triangle it was 'cut from'
@Astyx Consider the function $x \mapsto d(x,S)$ where $S$ is the closed set
Uh, @DHMO, I got the same recurence relation they gave me.
@Topologicalife nice
Which means the sides will also have some ratio to the sides of the original triangle
Infintely differentiable @DHMO
14:15
Oh, never mind
Even the cantor set?
It is closed, isn't it ? :)
I'll let you ponder on that, I have to go now !
salut
Now I have $\dfrac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}=\dfrac{k^2+k-\lambda}{2k^2+4k+2}$, but I think the Gauss criterion for convergence requires the first coefficient of the greatest power must be 1 (both in denominator and numerator). So Can't I apply it? This is the Gauss Criterion: gyazo.com/f4b3a9ce24374809b862219ad15e28e7
Anyways it turned out to be trivial
If you google it it doesn't even show up because it's probably something a 5th grader who has taken a geometry course could solve
I was telling zach that up until 8th grade I only ever did multiplication sheets in school :P I had a lousy education in public school
14:34
-1
Q: Question on quadratic equations .

KoolmanA quadratic equation with roots $m$ and $n$ where $mn=4$ satisfies the equation $\frac {m}{m-1} + \frac {n}{n-1}=\frac {a^2 -7}{a^2 -4}$ . We have to find the number of integral values of $a$ for $m$, $n \in (1,4)$. By comparing the given I found the quadratic equation as $x^2 -(a^2 +1)x +4 =0...

In this how they got inequalty 1 and 2
Hi @Daminark
How's it going ?
Hey @Astyx! I'm alright, how about you?
Fine, eating too much chocolate probably :p
There's no such a thing as too much chocolate!
Lolol
i guess you're right - gets some more
14:49
Is the same the recurence relation $a_{k+2} = \dfrac{(k+1)k - \lambda}{(k+2)(k+1)} a_k$ for $k=0,1,2,\dots$ and $\dfrac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}=\dfrac{k^2+k-\lambda}{2k^2+4k+2}, 2a_1 + \lambda a_0 = 0, 8a_2 + a_1 (\lambda -2) = 0$?
I don't think so.
it doesn't give the same $a_2$. In the first case is given by the recurrence relation and in the second one is given by the pair of two equations given at the end.

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