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Anonymous
10:00
Can the functional equation be solved?
@blue in general a functional equation has 1,000,000 solutions
@blue is that your whole question?
Anonymous
@DHMO Well I have been given that f(1)=1
Anonymous
@DHMO No
Anonymous
I'm showing the whole question
Anonymous
One sec
10:01
You should have shown your whole question in the beginning
Anonymous
Anonymous
@DHMO Really sorry
that isn't the whole question
Anonymous
Uploading the options
Anonymous
Anonymous
10:03
Yep
Anonymous
That's it^
Anonymous
@DHMO
can you find another value of x such that f(x)=1?
I guess not
Anonymous
@DHMO f(1)=f(2(1)-1)=1
Anonymous
So
Anonymous
10:04
no
Anonymous
How to deduce the continuity stuff?
give me a minute; i am thinking
I'm guessing the question is to give the answer that is correct for all such $f$ ?
Well, I know at least one function $f$ that satisfies $3$ of those conditions :P
@SteamyRoot you can't satisfy 3
A and B are contradictory
C and D are contradictory
Oh, wait, $2$ of them, yeah
forgot the "only" bit
10:07
@blue can you fill in the blank? f(2) = f(___)
me too
Anonymous
f(2)=f(3)..not useful
Anonymous
If 2x-1=2
Anonymous
Then x=3/2
yes
now can you work on f(3/2)?
essentially, f(x) = f((x+1)/2)
Anonymous
10:10
Oh right
Anonymous
f(2)=f(3/2)
and f(3/2) = ?
Anonymous
No
Anonymous
Ok lets see
Anonymous
If we use f(x)=f((x+1)/2)
Anonymous
10:12
x=3/2
Anonymous
Then we get f(5/4)
$f(3/2) = f(5/4) = f() = f() = f()$
@blue if we continue like this, what would we get?
Anonymous
Doesn't help
@blue it does
Anonymous
10:13
Oh
Anonymous
It tends to 1
so?
Anonymous
And f is continuous...
bingo
@SteamyRoot Was?
Anonymous
10:14
So at infinitely many points f(x)=1
Anonymous
But not at all points (?)
we don't need all points
It's a shame... with a slightly different problem I could've probably made a nice function that was only continuous at $1$.
@SteamyRoot tell us
It just uses the idea that you can make a function that is continuous in a single point
Like, the indicator function on the rationals is continuous only at $x = 0$.
But, it doesn't work here. oh well
10:16
@SteamyRoot surely there are a lot of functions that are continuous in a single point
Anonymous
So only option A is correct? @DHMO I'm not sure about the continuity part
@SteamyRoot not that
@blue the continuity part cannot be decided
do you understand why f(2)=1?
Well, yeah, but that's one of the standard examples
Which is nice enough to modify easily
Anonymous
@DHMO Yes, that I understood
@blue why?
And I'm thinking why can't I use the same argument to argument that f(x)=1 for all x?
Anonymous
10:17
@DHMO Because f is continuous at x=1
@blue alright
I could prove that f(x)=1 for all x>1
no
for all real x
@SteamyRoot can you make up a function satisfying the conditions but is not constant?
@blue that would make D correct...
Not easily, unless I'm missing something
Anonymous
@DHMO How?
@blue using the same method really
Anonymous
Say we start with $x=\sqrt{2}$
10:20
yes
Anonymous
Yes
Anonymous
It is working for sqrt(2)
yes it is
so your question is quite fxcked up
Anonymous
Cool
Anonymous
=P
10:23
would you consider putting to the main to have them verify?
Anonymous
@DHMO Okay. But your solution seems correct!
"Let $f: \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ be a function which satisfies $f(x) = f(2x-1)$ for all $x \in \Bbb R$ and $f$ is continuous at $x=1$. Is it true that $f$ must be constant?"
@blue ^
Anonymous
0
Q: Is it true that $f$ must be constant?

blue"Let $f: \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ be a function which satisfies $f(x) = f(2x-1)$ for all $x \in \Bbb R$ and $f$ is continuous at $x=1$. Is it true that $f$ must be constant?"

Anonymous
Ok?
thanks
Anonymous
10:35
Anonymous
Does $g'(0)$ exist or not?
Anonymous
$g'(x)=xf''(x)+f'(x)$
Anonymous
$f''(0)$ doesn't exist
Anonymous
Is it okay to say $0.f''(0)=0$ and $g'(0)=1$
Anonymous
Any idea @DHMO ?
10:37
wait a minute
i am thinking
$g'(0) = \displaystyle \lim_{h\to0} \frac {g(h) - g(0)} {h} = \lim_{h\to0} \frac {hf'(h) - 0} {h} = \lim_{h\to0} f'(h) = f'(0) = 1$
Anonymous
@DHMO Yes, by that it is 1
by what?
Anonymous
By that method
Anonymous
But from $g'(x)=xf''(x)+f'(x)$
Anonymous
It isn't so evident
10:40
You cannot apply chain rule.
@BalarkaSen it was product rule?
Product rule, yeah.
Product rule is applicable iff the factors are differentiable.
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Oh I see
@blue do you want a question from me in the same vein?
Anonymous
@DHMO Sure
10:46
@blue see this answer
so your question is pretty much done
@blue let f(x) = x^2 sin(1/x), and f(0) = 0.
is f'(x) continuous at x=0?
Anonymous
f'(0)=0
Anonymous
ok after that...
@blue how?
Anonymous
(h^2sin(1/h)-0)/(h-0) as h->0
Anonymous
So it becomes $h\sin(1/h)$
10:49
yes
Anonymous
So that is 0
Anonymous
as sine lies between -1 to 1
agreed; continue
Anonymous
And h->0
Anonymous
Then we differentiate f(x)
Anonymous
10:50
And check for continuity
Anonymous
$2x\sin(1/x)-\cos(1/x)$
Anonymous
lim x->0
Anonymous
The cosine is oscillating
Anonymous
So cannot be continuous
nice
Anonymous
10:52
good question :-)
Consider $f(x) = x^2\sin \left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)+\dfrac{x}{2}$
(a) Find f'(0)
(b) Prove that f is not increasing in any interval containing 0
Anonymous
Not increasing or not decreasing?
Anonymous
That seems like an increasing function
it is not.
Anonymous
11:01
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen How does it seem decreasing/non increasing ?
It's not strictly increasing. There are "ups" and "downs" on any interval containing 0.
@blue your eyes deceive you
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Wait a second. What does interval containing 0 mean ? You mean like [0,2) ?
Anonymous
Yes it is not strictly increasing
11:03
(0, 2) does not contain 0.
(-1, 1) does.
Or (-epsilon, epsilon) for any epsilon >0
Anonymous
[0,2) ?
Yes but in general half open intervals are dumb intervals. Usually when one says "interval around 0" one means an open interval containing it.
Anonymous
Yeah, so taking the derivative does the job
Anonymous
It is an oscillatory function
Anonymous
And so obviously not strictly increasing
11:07
I can give you oscillatory functions which are strictly increasing.
Anonymous
I mean the derivative is oscillatory
Right :)
Anonymous
It takes both positive and negative signs
@BalarkaSen you can?
f'(0) isn't defined, is it
11:09
@Thorgott it is
In which sense
Anonymous
x+sin(x)
@Thorgott f'(0) is 0.5
@DHMO For sure. Think of something which looks like $x^3$ near each integer.
@BalarkaSen how do you define "oscillatory"?
11:11
I don't. How do you? :P
functions which are increasing and then decreasing and then increasing etc
By that definition trivially there can be no strictly increasing oscillatory functions :P
actually it is wiggles
agreed @BalarkaSen
Do you derive that as a limit?
11:13
@Thorgott no, f'(0) is really 0.5
How do you arrive at that result?
1/0 isn't defined
Anonymous
@DHMO The variation of a function which exhibits slope changes, also called the saltus of a function. A series may also oscillate, causing it not to converge. mathworld.wolfram.com/Oscillation.html
Anonymous
So even $x+\sin(x)$ should be oscillatory
some kind of functions of bounded variation
Anonymous
It is a vague term though
11:18
$f(x)=x+sin(x)$ has derivative $f'(x)=1+cos(x)$ which is always non-negative, so the function is monotonically increasing, yet not strictly
Anonymous
@Thorgott The question is: Can it be called oscillatory?
It exhibits periodic slope changes, so I could bring myself to say so
Anonymous
@Thorgott I'd agree
Anyways, $[x^2sin(1/x)+x/2]'=2xsin(1/x)-cos(1/x)+1/2$, so how exactly would $f'(0)$ be derived when $1/0$ isn't defined and even the limit $lim_{x\rightarrow0}cos(1/x)$ doesn't exist.
Anonymous
@Thorgott Use the basic definition of derivatives
Anonymous
11:32
The limit definition
Anonymous
It is not a continuously derivable function
How can I do that when $f(0)$ isn't defined either
look at the limit from the left + limit from the right
I've got a rusty question. I want to show that $\pi =2+4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(1-4n^2)}$ using the Fourier series of $cos(x/2)$.
So I managed to get to $\pi^2=4^2(1/2+\sum_{n=1}^\infty |\frac{(-1)^n}{(1-4n^2)}|^2)$ And for some reason I get stuck there. I forgot how it works with infinite sums..
Would appreciate a tip
11:57
@Thorgott I forgot to put f(0) = 0. It is my fault.
Oh, alright, then $f'(0)=0.5$ makes sense
Random and weird question: Does there exists nonlinear operators that cannot be represented as a power series of linear operators?

i.e. suppose $A$ is a linear operator. A power series of linear operators will be something like: $\sum_{i}^{\infty}a_iA^{i}$ where $a_i$ are the coefficients. Of course, the power series has to converge for it to be well defined
Or maybe I should've approached it differently, but it looks like one step away from the right answer
0
Q: How to represent non-linear operators computationally?

Yan King YinI have a finite dimensional vector space V, and want to compute a non-linear operator $R: V \rightarrow V$. I want to have a "general" form of this operator R. I think of the following series expansion: $$ R = a_0 I + a_1 T + a_2 T^2 + a_3 T^3 + ... $$ where T is a linear operator over V. But ...

Ok nvm, false in general
@Secret I thought power series of linear operators must be linear?
12:07
@DHMO yeah, that's what the MSE said (and hence why what I said previously is false)
Alright
Is $\{a+b\sqrt2:a,b \in \Bbb Z\}$ dense in $\Bbb R$?
@Secret
$1<\sqrt{2}$ but no $x$ such that $1<x<\sqrt{2}$, thus no
I don't understand
A set $S$ is dense if $\forall x,y\in S, x<y, \exists z\in S, x<z<y$?
that is a necessary but not sufficient condition, but go on
12:20
wait, not sufficient? Ok I think I have a knowledge gap here...
For all intends and purposes, $[0,1) \cup \{2\}$ satisfies that
12:41
Hmm, the topology of $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ is the subspace topology in $\Bbb{R}$.

Since I can find e.g. $\{1\}=(0,2) \cap \{1\}$ and $(0,2)$ is open in the standard topology of $\Bbb{R}$, therefore all singletons in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ are open wrt $\Bbb{R}$...
Is that to me?
not quite, because it is not an answer
None of your statements whatsoever make any sense to me.
Are you saying that the only element of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt 2]$ in $(0,2)$ is $1$?
No, I just pick $\{1\}$ as an example to illustrate that all singletons are open wrt $\Bbb{R}$ in the subspace topology
Read the first line of your link.
12:48
Yes, $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}] \subset \Bbb{R}$ thus it is a subspace of $\Bbb{R}$. Thus its most natural topology is the subspace topology (the topology induced from the topology of $\Bbb{R}$, which is usually assumed to be the standard topology if it is not mentioned)
Continue proving that $\{1\}$ is open.
The open sets in this topology is then given by the intersections of one of the open sets in the larger set (in this case, open intervals in $\Bbb{R}$) with the subspace (in this case, $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$). Now $\{1\}=(0,2)\cap \{1\}$ where $(0,2)$ is open in $\Bbb{R}$ and $\{1\} \subset \Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ hence $\{1\}$ is open in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ wrt this topology
You are supposed to intersect one of the open sets in $\Bbb R$ with the subspace $\Bbb Z[\sqrt2]$.
Not with $\{1\}$.
ok sorry, using (0,1.5) instead. Then $(0,1.5) \cap \Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]=\{1\}$
Not really.
What do you think $\Bbb Z[\sqrt2]$ means?
12:57
$\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]=\{a+b\sqrt2:a,b \in \Bbb Z\}$ ?
Yes.
And what does $\Bbb Z$ mean?
Ok, I missed out the element $2-\sqrt{2}$, let me try again
nope...
$2-\sqrt{2}$, $3-2\sqrt{2}$, $5-3\sqrt{2}$ ... something strange happens...
Ok, I am not sure how to prove it, but it seems $\lim_{(a,b)\to (a',b')}a-b\sqrt{2} =0$
Hello all !
@Secret what the hell is $a',b'$?
The expression $a-b\sqrt{2}$ can get arbitrarily close to 0, However, once again, I have no idea how to test all neighbourhoods of $0$ (because the open sets in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ are countable sequences of singletons) and thus showed that $0$ is a limit point
put it in another way, the observation of the elements $a-b\sqrt{2}$ suggest $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ is dense in $\Bbb{R}$, but I am not sure how to prove it
13:09
@Secret do you want hints?
I think so
Show that there are infinitely many elements in $[0,1)$.
13:55
Hi!
in which course(s) are usually tensors introduced in a mathematical curriculum?
In physics, they typically make an appearance once you start doing relativistic physics as well as upper-level electrodynamics or mechanics e.g. multipole moments.
(More upper-level relativistic physics, though. You don't need tensors to discuss length contraction/time dilation.)
@DHMO There are no continuous bijection $f: [0,1) \to \Bbb{R}$ thus we consider the following discontinous bijection: Let the countable sequence $(x_n)=\{0,0.9,0.99,0.999,....\}$. Define $f(x)$ such that $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$ and $f(y)=y-0.5$. Next define $g(f(x))=\tan (\pi f(x))$. This thus give a bijection to $\Bbb{R}$ and hence $[0,1)$ has $\mathfrak{c}$ many elements
In math, I think the main place you'd start seeing it is in differential geometry?
i mean, there's a little bit of it in linear algebra to the extent that matrices are rank 2 tensors. But that's a bit too cheap.
@Secret oh I see we have a misunderstanding
I meant show that there are infinitely many elements of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt2]$ in $[0,1)$.
Is there a reason to have that as [) rather than ()?
14:05
@Semiclassical no
mmkay.
So you want to show that there are infinitely many integers $a,b$ such that $0<a-b\sqrt{2}<1$. (probably said this above somewhere.)
Well I guess that's what I am stuck at, because there seemed to be no nice pattern between $a_n,b_n$ such that a sequence $(a_n+b_n\sqrt{2})\to 0$

I mean, yes, I can see how $2-\sqrt{2}$, $3-2\sqrt{2}$ are getting towards zero, but $4-3\sqrt{2}$ overshoots it
One cheap way, I think, would be to obtain a sequence of such $a,b$ via the continued fraction of $\sqrt{2}$.
@Semiclassical no need to do that
there's a much more elegant proof
@Secret proofs don't have to be constructive
Hence why I said cheap :)
14:07
look for the wider world
I like constructive proofs, though.
macroscopic view
not microscopic view
I would presume that this holds for any $a+b\sqrt{q}$ with $q>0$ square-free.
@Semiclassical that would hold for any $a+br$ with $r$ irrational.
14:10
@Semiclassical ok... please, next time tag me ;)
Woops.
I think you could still exhibit such an infinite sequence via the continued fraction for $r$, but you wouldn't be able to give an explicit formula.
Whereas you could for $\sqrt{q}$.
whereas my macroscopic non-constructive argument would still work
$q$ doesn't have to be square-free though.
You're right, it just can't be a perfect square.
But without loss of generality it's square-free, I think?
Anyways. If you use the continued-fraction expansion, the sequence for $\sqrt{2}$ starts as
$-1 + \sqrt{2},3 - 2 \sqrt{2},-7 + 5 \sqrt{2},17 - 12 \sqrt{2},-41 + 29\sqrt{2},99 - 70\sqrt{2},-239 + 169 \sqrt{2}, 577 - 408 \sqrt{2},-1393 + 985 \sqrt{2},3363 - 2378 \sqrt{2}$
bah
(one has the alternating signs because the continued-fraction convergents for sqrt(2) are alternatively over/under estimates.)
Amusingly, if you take $r$ to be the golden ratio $\phi$, you get the sequence $\phi-1,2-\phi,2\phi-3,5-3\phi,5\phi-8,\ldots$
So that in this case the coefficients are, up to signs, just the Fibonacci numbers.
Not surprising if you know much about Fibonacci numbers, but still fun.
More broadly you can express the coefficients via an appropriate recursion relation and thereby express them in powers of $r$.
14:33
How to show $\cos^4 x +\cos^2 x =1$ when $\sin x=\dfrac{\sqrt5 -1}{2}$ ?
Write $t=\sin^2 x$, rewrite the first equation using this, and find the roots of the resulting quadratic in $t$. Only one of these will have a corresponding real value of $x$.
hey can someone help me with a "simple" step in this paper:
http://fermatslibrary.com/s/a-proof-that-euler-missed
Page 2, column 2. I can't seem to make the substitution work. How does it work? u is a function of both variables, so how is it valid to treat x as constant?
@Semiclassical Ok, I think I have a proof by contradiction (but it is nice to see the sequence you have wrote down via continued fractions (which I have not thought of because I am not that good at continued fractions yet):

Suppose there are finite number of elements of $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ in $(0,1)$. Then since this set is finite, it must have a minimum. Let the smallest element be $a+b\sqrt{2}$. Therefore $0<a+b\sqrt{2}<1$. Now if we sqaure this element, the new element $0<(a+b\sqrt{2})^2=a^2+2b^2+2ab\sqrt{2}<a+b\sqrt{2}$, contradicting the assumption that the set is finite. Now since $\
Nice
In fact, this proof by contradiction happens to be constructive, since the sequence $((a+b\sqrt{2})^n)\to 0$
14:38
One hole I see: A finite set need only have a minimum if it is nonempty.
@Semiclassical very nice.
So you should also argue that there's at least one element in (0,1).
Ah right
Not that that's really a challenge.
This also reproduces the same sequence I gave above, interestingly.
@Semiclassical sorry but I don't want to "solve" that quadratic equation. I need to "make" quadratic equation from that $\sin x=...$
14:41
What?
@Fawad 1. find $\sin^2 x$.
My first guess to your observation might be perhaps there's a connection between powers of elements in $\Bbb{Z}[q]$ and its continued fraction expansion.
2. Substitute it by $t$
3. Plug it in to verify.
@Secret Yeah, almost certainly.
Is anybody interested in my proof?
14:42
Sure.
Fix $b$. There must be an $a$ such that $0 < a + b \sqrt 2 < 1$.
Since the possible values of $b$ is $\Bbb Z$, it is countably infinite.
What's the domain of $a,b$?
$\Bbb Z$
Hmm, okay.
How do we show there must be an a obeying that inequality that corresponds to any $b \in \Bbb{Z}$?
14:45
Because $b\sqrt{2}$ is a real number.
@Secret $b \sqrt 2 \pmod 1$
Archimedean property
So it has a definite floor.
Yeah, that's cute.
I like the constructive aspect of @Secret's approach, but this is definitely better in generality.
@DHMO you didn't understand 😓 I know $sin x=..$ and need to make quadratic equation in terms of $cos x$
I am in general terrible at non constructive proofs (though after reading it I can often understand it) because of how I am used to have something "tangible" to manipulate around with when solving problems
@Fawad $\sin ^2 x + \cos^2 x = 1$
14:48
Hi
cos⁴x+cos²x=1
(1-sin²x)²=sin²x
^
Hence what I said about $\sin^2 x$.
now
can we move on to my integral?
"Just ask, don't ask to ask."
what is your integral?
14:49
@JackLam cool,thanks
Oh, the Apostal proof.
hey can someone help me with a "simple" step in this paper:
http://fermatslibrary.com/s/a-proof-that-euler-missed
Page 2, column 2. I can't seem to make the substitution work. How does it work? u is a function of both variables, so how is it valid to treat x as constant?
thankgoodness for my clipboard memory
Think about the Jacobian of that transformation.
I tried that
Then it should be apparent that $\int f(u,x)\,dudx=\int f(\cos\varphi,x)\,d(\cos\varphi)dx$.
14:52
...um
I'm know how to get from that line to the conclusion.
@DHMO ok, so by repeating our proofs by translating the inequality up or down any element in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$, we thus showed that all elements in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ are limit points. But how to pick sequences in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ such that it approaches to real numbers not in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$ ?
I don't know how to get from the original form of P+Q, to the intermediate integral.
in terms of u and x
because I can't get rid of a factor of 1/(1-xy)
also the region of transformation isn't even nice
oh, I thought you meant the next change of variables.
@Secret when did we show that all elements in $\Bbb Z[\sqrt 2]$ are limit points?
you said page 2 column 2, but the initial integral is right at the bottom of column 1.
But it should still be a matter of the Jacobian
14:54
apologies, but I was referring to the given substitution
the jacobian gives me the same result as a naive change of integrals
unless you would care to demonstrate otherwise?
@DHMO We have showed 0 is a limit point by the 3 different versions of the proofs that we have done above. There's no reason that the same argument cannot hold for arbitrary (a,b)? (well except for my proof, as the squaring argument will fail for any interval that is not (0,1))
@DHMO You have a sequence of thingies that converge to $0$. Add your favorite element of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt2]$ to each element of that sequence.
Well, the Jacobian is enough to explain why you only care about $\partial u/\partial y$ in said transformation.
@Secret The group is additive. If 0 is a limit point, it must be dense everywhere.
@Secret My proof only showed that there are infinitely many elements of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt 2]$ in $[0,1)$..
Hi @Akiva
14:59
@AkivaWeinberger I know. I'm teaching him.
Ohh
Derp
Sorry
Hence the substitution would give $dx\,du = (\partial u/\partial y)\,dx\,dy = (1+x y)\,dx\,dy$.
And it's called the pigeonhole principle @AkivaWeinberger
No it isn't
I mean, you can prove it with that
SBM
SBM
Um, no

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