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16:00
Right.
On the other hand, the natural numbers with zero are a monoid under addition which people like.
My default convention is that 0 isn't a natural number, though.
this (0 and successor) process can be illustrated visually with a type of simple graph called a path graph
(I'd say it's best to just do "positive integers" and "non-negative integers", but I know that in some languages people take "non-negative" to mean positive!)
I can see the confusion, 0 could be called positive, negative, both, neither, etc...
I don't mind if 0 is included for now
by recursively repeating this sucessor/increment, the other hyper-operations can be used
and by taking the inverses of these functions, the possible values expand beyond the natural numbers, all the way into the complex numbers
Well, it matters in that you either have an operation (adding 0) which leaves the element the same, or not.
And that 'all the way' disguises quite a bit of legwork.
First, you go from natural numbers to the integers by introducing additive inverses. Then you go to the rationals by introducing multiplicative inverses.
+0 is like "repeating increment (1-1) times", I cannot imagine it being missing, but ok, it could be either way for various benefits and losses
16:11
But to get to the reals you have to consider infinite sequences of rationals.
I don't think you can get to them just through 'inverses.'
does it matter though what route you take, all the hyperoperations (all infinite of them) could be discovered then the inverses could be discovered afterwards and it'd be complex numbers either way
oh, well, rational complex numbers then perhaps
@skullpetrol ohh ok i thought it was that but i didn't know how i could convert degrees into minutes thanks
Well, if you're thinking of hyperoperations, you can think of taking an infinite number of smaller and smaller additions.
Hence you get sequences and therefore real numbers, I guess.
But it definitely has to be -hyper-operations.
16:16
So approximately, it's the steps:

1. A value (call it 0)
2. successor on step 1 to yield more values eventually expanding into the natural numbers (or there about)
3. Can visually illustrate this with a path graph.
4. Hyper-operations recursively using the function from step 2.
5. Inverses
6. All the complex numbers.
Now, if by step 3 we had a different type of simple graph, like a cyclic graph, or a fully connected graph, or something more general and less symmetric like a planar graph,
because, for example the function in step 2 was different,
and the rest of the steps continued as before.
What would the result be, presumably not the complex numbers, but in simple terms, is this done, can this be useful?
Is anyone here good with algebraic geometry?
brb
back
hello, please how we know if the space is complete or not
i know that a metric space i say to be complete if every cauchy sequence is convergent
@Semiclassical Any thoughts on this semi-classical?
but for example if i have the space $(R,d)$ where $d(x,y)=|x^3-y^3|$
16:28
Not really.
is it a complete space
This is past the realm where I have anything interestint to say.
What do you mean?
I apreceate your input with the various stages though, I'm just not confident enough to formulate a SE question or understand the answer :P
mathb.in/135784


$$\frac{f^{(n-1)}(z+h)-f^{(n-1)}(z)}{h}=\frac{(n-1)!}{2 \pi i}\int_{C}f(\zeta)\frac{1}{h}\Bigg[\frac{1}{\zeta -z-h^{n}} - \frac{1}{(\zeta-z)^{n}}\Bigg]d \zeta$$


I'm having trouble justifying the RHS side of the formulated difference quotient anyone wanna take a stab :)
Hey any good reference for problem based approach on Integral equations ?
16:34
can someone help me on metric space?
16:47
@Zophikel Should the first fraction in the integrand be $\frac{1}{(\zeta-z-h)^n}$?
If so, then this is just an instance of the Cauchy integral formula
@Semiclassical interesting I didn't consider that could you elaborate further
Suppose you've got a function $f(z)$ which is analytic in a complex nbhd of $z=a$.
all right
what do you mean by nbhd do you mean neighborhood
Yeah.
Then it'll have a Taylor series expansion $f(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(a)\frac{(z-a)^n}{n!}$.
all right
16:53
Now suppose we integrate over a contour $C$ which encloses $z=a$.
all right
@AlessandroCodenotti hello
Hey everyone!
@Semiclassical after we integrate then we have $\frac{1}{(\zeta-z-h)^n}
?
More precisely, consider $\int_C f(z)\frac{dz}{z-a}$. The above series expansion gives this as $$\int_C\left[\frac{f(0)}{z-a}+f'(a)+f''(a)(z-a)+\cdots\right]dz$$
16:56
hello, can someone help me on complete metric space
@Semiclassical all right I see where you are going with this
Yeah.
The only term in there that'll survive this integration is the first one, so you'll get $2\pi i\cdot f(0)$.
On the other hand, you could just as well have divided by $(z-a)^{n+1}$.
In that case, every integral except the $n$th would vanish and you'd get $2\pi i\cdot f^{(n)}(a)/n!$.
By performing a series expansion you able to make the assertion that $\frac{1}{(\zeta-z-h)^n} was just an instance of the Cauchy integral formula
(There's probably a more rigorous way to present that. But for these purposes it's fine.)
Right.
Wikipedia refers to it as Cauchy's differentiation formula.
ahh all right @Semiclassical could you latex this up for me plz
16:58
No.
i'll have to write down to make sure I really get it
Do it yourself.
all right
@vrouvrou I kinda know what's going on with complete metric spaces
Also hey @s.harp
Probably the rigorous thing to do is write $$\int_C\left[\frac{f(z)}{(z-a)^{n}}-\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}\right]\frac{dz}{z-a}$‌​$ and somehow argue that this integral is zero.
Bah, why isn't that rendering.
Oh well.
17:02
@Semi OK it's not rendering for you either lmao
I was like, wait is my thing off?
@Semicalssical how do you get latex to render for mircosfot edge
use the latex in chat link in the room desc.
@Daminark please is this metric space is complete $(R,d)$ where $d(x,y)=|x^3-y^3|$
@Daminark hello, this time you've got me when I'm here :)
17:03
Mark your calendars, we're here at the same time!
$$\int_C\left[\frac{f(z)}{(z-a)^n}-\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}\right]\frac{dz}{z-a}$$
Huh. Now it's working.
@Semiclassical thank you
Okay, I have no idea why that wasn't working the first time.
Note that $|x^3 - y^3| = |x-y||x^2 + xy + y^2|$
So let's say you have a Cauchy sequence $\{x_n\}$
17:06
Huzzah for geometric sums :)
First, a disclaimer, never dismiss the possibility that I do something completely stupid, so this comes with no warranty
But, choose the point $x$ that it would converge to under the classic norm
can someone explain to me what is a homogeneous change of variables? I'm talking in the context of quadratic forms
have you an idea @Daminark ?
Is $\Delta^n$ the polydisc?
I think that should work
Since $|x_n - x|$ tends to $0$, and then $|x_n^2 + xx_n + x^2|$ can be bounded
So it should be complete?
I'll roll with that for now, but double check my argument thoroughly to be sure
17:11
@SoumyoB Looking at a separate source, it would seem that such a change of variables amounts to $$(x_1,x_2,\ldots)\mapsto (x_1',x_2',\ldots)=(\lambda x_1,\lambda x_2,\ldots)$$
so just multiplying them by a common constant?
not even using combinations of more than one variable inside one coordinate of the image under the map that constitutes the change of variables?
Right. In particular, one often works in a context where the relevant variables are $(x_0,x_1,\ldots)$ and one takes $\lambda=1/x_0$. Then $(x_0,x_1,x_2,\ldots)\mapsto (1,x_1/x_0,x_2/x_0,\ldots)$.
Hmm.
that is for example, $(x,y) \mapsto (x+y,x-y)$?
I'm not sure I'd rule that outo, no.
@Daminark but to prove that a pace is complete we must consider a Cauchy sequence and then prove that is convergent
17:13
Hmmmm
@Semiclassical thanks
I've got to do a presentation on classical groups tomorrow morning and hardly any time is left for preparing and I do not know crap about this subject
The utility of a transformation like the above is that you set one of the coordinates to 1.
I've studied too much probability and almost nothing on groups, analysis or any other area of math
I see
In the projective plane, for instance, one uses so-called homogeneous coordinates $[x_0,x_1,x_2]$ where there's the equivalence relation $[x_0,x_1,x_2]\sim [\lambda x_0,\lambda x_1,\lambda x_2]$.
Taking $\lambda=1/x_0$ then amounts to 'projection' into the $x_1x_2$-plane.
@Vrou Look what I did, I said that given $\{x_n\}$ Cauchy to choose the point that it would converge to under the typical norm, which I think ought exist because of the identity (to be fair, I'm a bit lazy to check, so perhaps I'm wrong there, which kills the argument).
Call that $x$
17:16
(The logic of the equivalence being that all such points in R^3 would lie on the same line through the origin.)
@Semiclassical you mean projecting a quotient space of $\mathbb{R^3}$ onto the plane $z=1$?
Sounds right.
I don't know the formal details that well.
I see
And then just say that the other term in the identity is bounded, so since $|x_n - x|$ gets tanked, so should $|x_n^3 - x^3|$, so that's it
thanks for the help
17:18
But, yeah. Taking the intersection of the line through the origin with $x_0=1$ gives a specific point in the plane.
But you could equally well have taken the intersection with the plane $x_1=1$, and there's a different projection for that.
They'd all be intersections with the same line, just different planes.
but wait isn't $\lambda$ supposed to be a constant?
Actually wait @Vrou you should look at cube roots
Like, $\{x_n\}$ is Cauchy in this metric, so $\{x_n^3\}$ is Cauchy in $\mathbb{R}$, so it converges to some $c$
Well, in the projective context it's taken to be equivalence with respect to any $\lambda\neq 0$
Then let $x = \sqrt[3]{c}$
So that $d(x_n,x) = |x_n^3 - c| \to 0$
Boom
So you'd be able to make it work there.
For quadratic forms, though, I don't know.
17:23
i f like this every Cauchy sequence is convergent
@SoumyoB The post here seems to be using it in quite a different way than what I was saying, though: artofproblemsolving.com/community/…
So it is complete
This is something I'm more sure of. I'm willing to put a warranty on this proof which confers no benefits if I fucked up, but it's still a warranty nonetheless
In that version one starts with $(x_0,x_1,x_2)$ and substitutes $(x_1,x_2)=(\lambda_1 x_0, \lambda_2 x_0)$.
@Semiclassical I suppose then it's probably a loosely used term
17:25
hi @ted
Hey @Ted!
I couldn't find any formal definitions after running a google search
well, I searched the entire phrase "homogeneous change of variables"
Hi Semiclassic, Demonark, Soumy.
And the only elementary one I saw was that.
17:26
How's everything going?
What's this homogeneity you guys are talking about?
Something something quadratic forms / classical groups, apparently.
so if i chage the distance $d(x,y)=\ln(1+(x+y))$ i say let $(x_n)$ be Cauchy sequence , then it converge to some c @Daminark
Is there a specific sentence/question?
@SoumyoB Starting here, @ted
17:28
@TedShifrin I had started it
I'm reading Larry C. Grove's Classical Groups and Geometric Algebra
@Vrouvrou: That isn't a distance.
On my iPad I can't do these links.
and it's explaining something about quadratic forms, in relation to which I had read that you can do some homogeneous change of variables to reduce any quadratic form to a diagonal one
ipad@Daminark ?
i do a mistake $d(x,y)=\ln(1+|x+y|)$
@SoumyoB: My guess is that they're talking about projective quadrics. It's just the spectral theorem you use to diagonalize.
Rescaling won't diagonalize.
@Vrouvrou: What is $d(x,x)$?
sorry $d(x,y)=\ln(1+|x-y|)$
17:34
Better.
How is the absolute value of a point in $\mathbb C^2$ defined?
As if it were in $\Bbb R^4$, but you can use the hermitian inner product if you want.
I know all norms on finite-dimensional vector spaces are equivalent. So I guess I can say $|(z_1,z_2)|=|z_1|+|z_2|$ on $\mathbb C^2$.
No, it's standardly $\sqrt{|z_1|^2+|z_2|^2}$.
17:39
If you take $z_1=z_2=1$ you get $|(1,1)|=|1|+|1|=2$ when it should be $\sqrt{2}$.
(It'd work if you took $|z|=|x|+|y|$ but that's not standard)
how i can prove that the spce is complete @Daminark
@Vrouvrou the important information is that $\ln(1+x)\approx x$ for small $x$
and $\ln(1+x)≤x$ for $x≥0$
@TedShifrin could you give me an example? I'm not familiar with projective quadrics
What is the precise thing you're trying to understand? Precise.
17:48
Is it called quadric because there are four real variables?
ie a quintic is something like $x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2+x_4^2+x_5^2-1=0$
@Vrou I already did that, took a Cauchy sequence and showed that it converged to something
No, quadric like quadratic ...
Any number of variables.
so an example of a quintic would be the solutions of $x^5-1=0$
17:50
Any poly of degree 5 is a quintic.
@Daminark i can't see that $|x_n-x|\rightarrow0$
can we prove that ?
So we said that $\{x_n^3\}$ is Cauchy in $\mathbb{R}$, so it converges to some $c$
Meaning $|x_n^3 - c|\to 0$
Now let $x = \sqrt[3]{c}$
$d(x_n,x) = |x_n^3 - x^3| = |x_n^3 - c| \to 0$
but this because we have |.|
here we have $\ln(1+|.|)$
Oh this is a new norm?
Sorry I didn't realize we changed it
Pay attention to what @s.harp said above. Use basic facts about $\log(1+x)$ for $x$ small.
17:55
yes
By the way, we assume you know how to show that $\log(1+|x-y|)$ defines a metric (i.e., that triangle inequality holds).
Hello. I am trying to prove that if G is an abelian group with elements a and b of order m and n, respectively, then the order of ab is the least common multiple of m and n. I am having a little trouble with this, however. Denote the LCM by L. Then clearly (ab)^L = e, since L is a multiple of both m and n, which means that |ab| \le L. I can't figure out how to show that |ab| = L. I could use some hints.

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