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00:00
Mostly just procrastination
00:11
Hi?
@MeowMix What was your last problem? Show that $V^\top$ is always closed?
I'm back
@AkivaWeinberger Yeah, and that $(V^\perp)^\perp$ is the closure of $V$
By the way, does the location for mathcamp change?
Yeah, every year
I hope it's somewhere near me next year....
00:16
They're approximately on a three-year cycle
hi @columbusatemyhw
So, in that cycle, what would next year be?
Hi @Akiva
Hey @Akiva!
@MeowMix Well, so far it's been ME, OR, WA, ME (last year), WA again (this year), IIRC.
skipping Oregon
so I don't know what's happening next year
00:18
I really hope I can attend.
("IIRC" is not a state)
(to be clear :P )
But with the way I've been fucked as of late, it seems unlikely
The International Independent Rebublic of Cauchy
language man
(Also known as complex analysis)
Con el modo que había estado jodido recientemente… @BalarkaSen
(I'm sorry, horrible pun, I should leave)
00:20
can't read spanish
You can't?
@BalarkaSen Just a pun on "language"
I was going to make a joke about how he can't "read it" meaning he can't understand the letters and what not
@MeowMix Did you solve these?
I did.
00:22
I'm not actually sure how to show that $V^{\bot\bot}$ is the closure…
Oh did you also figure out officially why $V$ is dense in $V^{\perp\perp}$?
@Akiva What is this heinous notation?
Oh nevermind
LOL he used the same notation as you did.
I mixed up my $\top$s and $\bot$s for a second there
Oh, nevermind.
No he started with a T and I'm like wyd???
00:23
@Daminark All the other points in our vector space are limit points??
We were talking about $V^{\vdash\vdash}$, right? :P
Eh... $V^{\mathbb{T}}$
The orthogonal complement of the orthogonal complement
$V^{\vdash\top\dashv\bot}$
@Meow I dunno if you can just assert that, you ought prove this fact
00:25
@Daminark I was asking if that is what you meant
@AkivaWeinberger Well, for one, it's a closed subspace which contains $V$. All you need to show is it's the smallest one, da?
Oh yeah, that
Oh, wait, I realize
Hm, if $a\in V^{\bot\bot}$, then $\lambda a\in V^{\bot\bot}$…
00:25
Isn't it obvious because $V^{\perp\perp}$ is just $V$ with its limit points?
There is a slightly overpowered argument that I may eventually spill, but for now you should figure this out.
…which might not actually help me
@MeowMix How do you know more stuff than the limit points aren't there?
@Meow Why is there nothing which is orthogonal to everything orthogonal to $V$ which isn't a limit point?
Like we know that $\overline{V} \subset V^{\perp\perp}$
We need to find the reverse direction, and this is not a trivial task
He said he already proved that it's the closure, right?
(which I have not yet done but I'm thinking about it)
00:27
Let me think
Well, that's what he's trying to prove, and he's gotten one direction of the subset argument
Hint: See what you can prove if $V$ is already closed
@Daminark do you know how this orthogonality relation works in Banach spaces?
I mean, what does $\perp$ even mean in Banach spaces?
@Daminark Ah good hint.
$V^{\perp} = \{f \in E^{*}: \langle f, x \rangle = 0, \forall x \in V\}$ if $E$ is Banach
00:30
Oops
... Yeah I should've seen that coming
I'll try it
$+\!\!\!\!\!\times$ $~~\gets$Close enough
You can also define $F^{\perp} = \{x \in E: \langle f, x \rangle = 0, \forall f \in F\}$ where $F \subset E^{*}$. But you'll notice this isn't the same definition as the previous one I gave.
Nice star
Actually it's not crazy hard to prove that by hand. I figured it out.
00:35
One direction is clear, like if $f_n \to f$ and $f_n(x) = 0$, then $f(x) = 0$
So anything$^{\perp}$ is closed, and we can embed $V$ into its double dual by evaluation so that's fine
one direction is Hahn-Banach
if $F \subset E^{*}$ the double dual is not just the closure of $N$! that's the interesting case
So I want to show that if something is far away from $V$ (i.e. in the interior of its complement?) then it's not in $V^{\bot\bot}$, I guess
Right, @Akiva.
@Eric That's neat
On that track of thinking, you could just try to pick something from $V^{\perp \perp}$ which is far away from $V$ and try to contradict.
00:41
Give a little thought as to what the double perp of $F \subset E^{*}$ is. It's like quasi-interesting @Daminark
Aight, I shall do so
I guess the point is if it's far away from $V$, then dotting with stuff from $V$ should never give $0$.
As for the Hilbert one, this way is not what you should be using @Meow but basically, you can prove that given some closed subspace of a Hilbert space direct sums with its double dual
So $\mathcal{H} = V \oplus V^{\perp}$
But since $V^{\perp}$ is closed always, you have $\mathcal{H} = V^{\perp\perp} \oplus V^{\perp}$
Thus giving that $V = V^{\perp\perp}$ in this case
Then you use continuity of the inner product in the case where $V$ isn't closed to show that $V^{\perp} = \overline{V}^{\perp}$
So then you're good
That's the 3 liner that you use if you have this direct sum decomposition at your disposal, but now continue your way
@Daminark Yeah, but you can also do it by hand. If there was something in $V^{\perp \perp}$ but not in $\text{cl}(V)$ then you could subtract off it's component along $\text{cl}(V)$ to get something perp to $\text{cl}(V)$... but that can't happen as then it'd be in $V^{\perp}$ but it's also in $V^{\perp \perp}$ etc etc
Wait. I think in that component logic I am implicitly using that decomposition.
Womp womp
00:50
Hello everyone!
I mean is this true in a pre-Hilbert space?
Yeah. Whoops-a-daisy. I need that projection of $V^{\perp\perp}$ to $\text{cl}(V)$.
Hey @ThomasRasberry
@Daminark I don't think so.
You frequently use completeness of the inner product to prove the decomposition I think
I'm suspicious because the fact that it works in a Banach space and the proof uses completeness suggests the generalization is in that direction
00:54
I think I have it.
@Daminark
Do tell
if the problem says that an airplane is bearing at an angle of 340 at 325 mph would I draw the line going 340 degrees at the first quadrant
I have been wondering - due to some very unfortunate events outside of my control, my advisor asked me to get a "third, independent" way to have the last proofs on my dissertation checked for vaidity and for organization; it seems I only have three weeks left to do this important task.
because bearing problems go clockwise?
@Daminark So, suppose we have some vector $\mathbf{v}$ outside the closure of $V$
Let us have some $\mathbf{w} \in \text{cl}(V)$
And, a $\mathbf{x} \in V^\perp$
It is known that $\langle \mathbf{x},\mathbf{w} \rangle = 0$
Now, for $\mathbf{v}$ to be in $V^{\perp\perp}$, we require that $\langle\mathbf{v}, \mathbf{w}\rangle = 0$
01:00
@MATHASKER Is bearing clockwise from north?
I think so
Now, that's the same as $\langle\mathbf{v}-\mathbf{x},\mathbf{w}\rangle = 0$
would it be in the 2nd quad @AkivaWeinberger?
@MATHASKER I think so
$\begin{array}{c|c}II&I\\\hline III&IV\end{array}$
I think
Yeah @Akiva
OH
I see
01:05
why thought because if you go clockwise wouldn't 90 be on the bottom line
Wait, no I don't
That would be clockwise from east, not north
(remember that 360 is the same as 0)
ohhhhhh because 90 degrees is north
nvm thanks
For bearing, north would be 0
For like any other math thing, north would be 90, though, yeah
I just learned about the bearing thing just now
01:07
so in my case I would take <325cos20, 325sin20>?
Ugh
Oh hey @Ted
I swear I wasn't ugh-ing at you :P
oh ok that was messing me up cause I didn't know why it went to the 2nd quad
@MeowMix No, why?
Oh hey Zach ... DogAteMy, I think from helping @MATHASKER the last time that to measure bearings we go clockwise.
You still here, @Balarka? cluck
Oops
01:08
I'm only here for a few minutes. Guests arriving soon.
@TedShifrin Yeah...
@TedShifrin yes I remember you helping me I just forgot that we went clockwise from north
@MATHASKER: I asked you if that was right. I'm not 100% sure, but I'm 90% sure. :)
I meant $\langle \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{v} \rangle $
@Meow How does this go on? I'm slightly concerned but continue
01:09
@AkivaWeinberger so If I have to find my component form I would do <325cos20, 325 sin20>
@TedShifrin Google says clockwise from north
(Re)$^2$hi @Ted!
OK, DogAteMy, so I am now 100% sure.
@Daminark I gave up. I'm going to think about it a little more, then get back to you.
Aight
01:10
rolls 6 eyes at Demonark
(Or clockwise from wherever you're facing, if you want "relative bearing" rather than "absolute bearing")
See, Zach, now you have the whole room picking on you. It's good that the onus isn't all on me! :P
absolute bearing is always from north?
Wait first you're a vampire and now you have 6i's?
01:10
I never said I was a vampire. If you've paid attention in here, sometimes I have up to 9 eyes.
@Daminark I think his maximum was 11 or something
Did it get to 11?
And absolute solfege is always from C, as opposed to relative solfege which is always from the tonic
tonic.
Nothing to do with gin & ...
01:11
LOL.
I don't want to look.
Well, at least I keep you entertained.
Or maybe eye-tertained.
@TedShifrin And yet you shall!
Aug 23 '14 at 15:53, by Ted Shifrin
rolls all fourteen eyes
How can you tell when a @Ted is cold?
When he's SHIFRIN (shivering)
LOL, pretty good, Zach :)
@TedShifrin Sorry I'm late, Please let me into the gin & tonic exam, I have studied so hard for this.
@TedShifrin Nah, I have done the statistics before.
01:12
J**** ******* ******, Zach
Behave, DogAteMy.
JFC is short and concise @Akiva
Except you might confuse it with ZFC
Anytime you show up, sure, @Mick.
01:13
(Or JFK? Which is kinda the same thing)
Well, I'm glad I came for such momentous mathematics. Back to the kitchen with me.
Bye again, all.
peace
"Kentucky-Fraenkel Choice"
lol
"Jesus-Fraenkel Kennedy"?
01:14
I asked SO Meta if doing so was in the guidelines of the Exchange community; I since deleted it after realizing that post contained personal data on a forum, but the main spirit of the answers seemed to be "no," and I think it was because the commenters misunderstood that I did not mean checking my whole thesis- just a few proofs I am unsure of is all I'm checking for.

However, my central proof itself is quite long, and posting it may be a big no-no here due to its potential length. I am a bit stuck at the point of what the heck I am panning to do. I am kind of "in between" Mathematics SE
♫ Re(2) Do(1/2)Fa(1)Sol(1/2) Re(4) ♫
What's that
What do you call a commutative scam? An Abelian Dupe.
@BalarkaSen Music?
01:17
@ThomasRasberry I think you'll have a smoother time fitting the Stack Exchange paradigm if you instead of asking for direct review, ask for assistance with rigorously supporting the claims you may be unsure of.
never seen those notations
It's solfege
I guess I'm just afraid of anything I post either getting ignored or else downvoted out of exisence. Is there a website, person, etc. who could provide helpful emphasis on the organization, validity, and thorough-ness of a handful of proofs I've made but feel uneasty about
I dunno how to say how long each note should be so I just wrote it in beats in parentheses
The only SE I've seen do well with outright review requests is Code Review.SE
01:18
Ah ok
You should try to write down the solfege for "Culture Shock"
Here's one. ♫ Re($\zeta(x)$) (1/2) ♫
Also @Meow cheers at the abelian dupe
I'm not abel to come up with puns of that caliber
Lol but really it sounds closer to "group" than the classic "Abelian grape"
The best I heard along those lines is "What do you get when you cross a citrus fruit with a bull?"
"A trivial lime bundle on a taurus"
lol
01:27
Look I'm just a really good person. Ok?
Hi all,actually what does this mean "...."
sorry
...
like 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 +...
it means "do the obvious thing"
there is some special word for it
The symbol is called an ellipsis
I don't know what the notion of using it like that is called
01:29
"ellipsization"
I think people used to write "… etc." instead of just "…"
(or whatever the old-times equivalent of 'etc.' was)
(probably '&c.')
$\frac{1}{1-x} = 1 + x + x^{2} +...$
That's only for $x \in (-1,1)$
yes
In LaTeX, you either want \dots or \dotsb (or any of a bunch of these idk)
(usually \dotsb)
01:31
\ldots is what I go with
but I was thinking what are those called,in grammar they are ellipsis but here ?
they don't have any name
Still just ellipses
You just say "and so on"
01:31
(Singular ellipsis, plural ellipses)
Don't mix up with actual ellipses
:)
yu
p
I looked it up and I guess the ellipsis can refer to the actual inferred content, or the dots that represent it
01:33
$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n^3}={\cdots}$
@Daminark I really am not sure how to show it
There are some really terrible math puns (that I steal from prof. B Sury)
"The prime number theorem has an one-line proof : the Riemann zeta function does not vanish on the `one' line (Re(s)=1) "
Guys I solved it what do I win
Can I have a hint?
time
01:34
@MeowMix What are you trying to do?
Show that $V^{\bot\bot}$ is equal to the closure of $V$
I showed that $\overline{V} \subset V^{\perp\perp}$
He needs the reverse inclusion
What have you thought about?
@AkivaWeinberger Did you get something that approximately equals 1.2?
(I'm trying to not spoil it for anyone lol)
01:35
@MickLH $\cdots{}\approx1.2$
Yeah I think so
Seems legit
I stained my math notebook with a blueberry
LOL @MickLH
i can't even read what you're writing man
@MeowMix Talk to me about the problem. Help me help you!
Well, to start with, he had a blueberry
and the problem is his textbook got stained with it
01:41
@AkivaWeinberger makes me think of -
Is it too radical if I were to use half a page at the very beginning of my paper just to define all the consistently used symbols? (Nobody objected!)
@Mike Well, I know that all the limit points and $V$ itself are in $V^{\perp\perp}$
OK, great, so $\bar V \subset V^{\perp \perp}$.
Ugh
Could I show that $\bar{V} \cup V^\perp$ is the whole space?
It's not
not even for finite dimensions
01:51
No, wait.
Consider the $x$-axis in $\Bbb R^2$.
I meant something else
You want $+$, not $\cup$
Yeah
I'mma go now
01:54
It's about showing how given a point outside $V^{\perp\perp}$, you can't get arbitrarily close to it with a point inside $V$
@MeowMix Yeah. Here, let's phrase this differently. It should be pretty easy to prove that $V^{\perp \perp} = \overline V^{\perp \perp}$. So it suffices to show that for $V$ closed, $V = V^{\perp \perp}$. So you don't need to talk about being arbitrarily close: just plain equal.
Because if you could it would be a limit point, and therefore it would be inside $V^{\perp\perp}$
Sure, but now you need to prove that :)
Prove what?
That when $V$ is closed, $V = V^{\perp \perp}$.
02:01
Well $V^{\perp\perp}$ is just $V$ with all its limit points
Wait no, that's what I need to prove. Shit.
You need to start somewhere. Lay out what you know on the table and look at that.
I've got an inner-product space $U$ that everything lives inside. $V$ is a subspace of $U$ - I'm going to assume it's closed. I have another subspace, $V^{\perp \perp}$, that I know contains $V$. I want to show it doesn't countain anything else.
I know we just picked on you for writing down a proof by contradiction, but let's do that here - let's suppose there is something else, and work from there. After we have a finished argument we can go back and rewrite this without the contradiction.
If there is anything else, obviously the infimum of the distance between it and any point of $V$ is not zero
But I suppose that's not helpful either
Why is that true, and why is it unhelpful?
Because if it were it'd be a limit point of $V$
Oops I need to fix that
It's too late to edit. I meant $V^{\perp\perp}$
Actually, I guess that's fine without.
You should try to be careful with vocabulary and being very clear. Try not to mold the way you talk about math like people do in here, so informally - at least not quite yet.
"If $v \in V^{\perp \perp}$, but $v \not\in V$, then I know $d(v, V) \neq 0$. For if there was a sequence of vectors $v_n \in V$ with $d(v, v_n) \to 0$, then because $V$ is closed, $v \in V$." I know I'm being really pedantic, but clearer writing makes it harder to lie to yourself about whether or not something's true.
02:16
Ugh I'm feeling incompetent right now
You can't get anywhere by not saying anything (nor can I help). Sound things out.
Well, so we have that for $w \not\in V^{\perp\perp}$, $\inf \;\; \langle v-w, v-w \rangle \neq 0$ for $v \in V^{\perp\perp}$,
Because that's just the distance function squared
Is that correct?
Sounds good so far.
Now, I can make this $\inf \langle v, v-w\rangle - \langle w, v-w\rangle$
You want to write that as "for $w \in V$, $\inf_{w} \langle v - w, v - w \rangle \neq 0$.
(Up above. You wrote $w \not \in V^{\perp \perp}$.)
02:24
Noah Snyder is a person I could know from MSE, right?
is he a chat person?
No, I don't think so.
okie
tyty
That's what I wanted
It wouldn't be true if it was $w \in V$... right?
02:26
Huh? The definition of $d(v,V)$ is $\text{inf}_{w \in V} d(v,w) = \text{inf}_{w \in V} \langle v-w, v-w \rangle$.
Sorry, let me clarify what I meant.
I was assuming $w$ is a point not in $V^{\perp\perp}$ while $v$ is, and said that the infimum distance between the two is non-zero
I don't understand why you're working with anything outside of $V^{\perp \perp}$.
I thought we were doing contradiction?
Yes, but I'm not sure you know what you're trying to contradict.
Wait, no
I meant $w \not\in V$ and $v \in V$, and I was showing that $v$ must have a different dot product than $w$
02:30
I don't understand what the last sentence means.
Like, there exists some element of $V^\perp$ where the dot product of it with $v$ is different than with $w$
Nevermind. :P
You were saying that if we have one inside of $V^{\perp\perp}$ but outside of $V$, then what?
Like, how would you contradict with that?
You were on your way to something. Maybe a proof, maybe not. Why not chase it?
Because you're better at stuff.
lol
I mean
I guess
I'll try
Now, does symmetry hold for dot products?
02:36
Yes
(Real)
Buzz off unless you want to take over, pal.
Sweet. Now we have $\inf_{v\in V} \langle v,v \rangle - 2\langle v,w \rangle + \langle w,w \rangle$ right?
Lolol, aight, I concede. Just wanted to roflcopter for a second
02:39
@Daminark Microsoft Sam says soi soi soi soi
Umm, wait. This doesn't seem so helpful
Actually, this might look like Cauchy-Schwarz
Maybe not.
Nah, not particularly. That just tells you the infimum is nonnegative.
Maybe what I had earlier
I get that $\inf_{v\in V} \langle v, v-w \rangle- \langle w, v-w \rangle \neq 0$
That form feels a little more promising to me, since the space $w$ lives in is defined by a particular property.
I don't know if I'm allowed to "distribute" the infimum
Yeah sure why not
02:45
So obviously $v-w \not\in V$
Otherwise $w \in V$ which is plain wrong
Sure, but I'm looking at this and thinking it would be convenient if $w$ had a particular form.
Hm, ignore what I said. Here's a hint and I'll be off: show that there's a point in $V$ closest to $w$ and tell me everything you can about it.
The closest one... I think they're orthogonal
Is there a closest one?
02:53
If there wasn't it would be open
@TedShifrin On the gin & tonic exam... I think the last ansere 42 fhewewww cant remamber
10
A: IMO 1988, problem 6

some1.new4uThis is a famous problem, here is one of the solutions that I like the most that I read it in a book previously, but later in a topic on here I realized the importance of the problem (The credit goes to T. Andreescu & R. Gelca If I remember it correctly, but I'm not sure, since 11 individuals in ...

How does the minimality of the sum of roots guarantee that k is a perfect square? ^ imo 1986, Q6
@Mike Well first thing I notice is that I can kind of reduce this to a minimum problem
@Meow Remember that not closed doesn't equal open
Also are we assuming that $V$ is closed?
03:01
Well let me just consider the point $x \in V$ such that $\langle w, x \rangle = 0$
@Daminark Yes
Wait sorry for the interruption again, continue
@MeowMix You've lost me again.
All we know is that $w \in V^{\perp \perp}$ is not in $V$, and that $d(w, V) > 0$.
Yes, @Daminark.
Don't prove this for him, but don't let me stop you from doing it yourself
I've done this previously, he's basically hashing out a detail. But I think he did in fact have a good insight
Just needs a slight revision
@Daminark I know :)
Sorry my phone died
I don't have
time.
Thanks a lot for helping and sorry I was a pain in the ass, I'm new to this.
Good night
03:13
@MeowMix You're not a pain.
Send me an email sometime.
Alrighty.
Bye

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