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12:03
I think, naively speaking, we can find 2 charts to cover it, one for the top and one for the bottom, in a similar manner to the icing on a donut partitioning the donut into 2 regions
@BalarkaSen hmm, I can't really visualize it but I'm not entirely convinced
@Alessandro It's like a tubular neighborhood of the 1-skeleton of the torus (that like two transverse strips) with a line from the boundary circle to the 1-skeleton removed. I think it doesn't work; it's not simply connected.
It seems you need to remove two segments like that, from each strip.
So back to 3 again :(
Not sure if I understood charts correctly, for example, do the chocolate icing form the domain of one chart for the torus, and the cake part forms the domain of the 2nd chart?
No, they have a hole
@BalarkaSen aha, ok, I see it now
@Alessandro What if I join a segment from the boundary circle to the wedge point of the 1-skeleton though?
Nah, still doesn't work.
12:16
So you mean this shape cannot be a chart because it has a hole and thus the underlying set is not open?
It is open. It is not R^2.
Hi guys. My book says that each subgroup can be the image of a homomorphism (inclusion mapping), however, not each subgroup can be the kernel of a homomorphism. I don't see why this should be a problem. Consider $H\subset G$ a subgroup. We know that $H$ is not empty. Now consider the mapping $f\colon H\to G:x\mapsto e$. This way, $H$ is the kernel of $f$, and $f$ is a homomorphism, because $f(a+b)=e=e+e=f(a)+f(b)$. Could someone explain their statement to me?
Ah right
Hi chat
Hi Astyx
12:21
Doesn't a homomorphism need to be bijective ? @ShaV
That would be an isomorphism
I think you want G as domain for H to be the kernel
Oh yeah right
If $G$ becomes the domain, then $G$ is the kernel, and not $H$, right
we specifically want $H$ to be a kernel, I would think?
Yes but I think they want H to be the kernel of a map G->something
12:23
@Alessandro Think of a tubular nbhd of the 1-skeleton in the torus as a cross ([-1, 1] x [-2, 2] cup [-2, 2] x [-1, 1]) with the ends identified appropriately. Remove the diagonals from [-1, 1] x [-1, 1]. That's a disk, correct? Now look at a tubular neighborhood of that pair of diagonals inside the cross.
ah like that
That's also a disk. Doesn't those cover my thing?
however @Alessandro I would have one objection for that
can you do something like this @Balarka?
They do consider the inclusion mapping $f\colon H\to G:x\mapsto x$ to argue that each $H$ can be the image of a homomorphism
But I'll ask my teacher I guess.. it's his syllabus after all:p
12:26
@Alessandro It sounds close to what I said above.
@ShaVuklia The kernel is a normal subgroup. Not all subgroups are normal.
Yeah, that's basically it. My picture is yours if you bring those "straight" segments togather to form a diagonal.
So you just have two diagonals
@AliCaglayan I don't know what a normal subgroup is, and I can't follow the wikipedia intro on it
I think we will get that in the next chapter
we haven't had conjugations and the like
@BalarkaSen I agree. So we're back to 2
Coolio.
12:32
@ShaVuklia The point is, for non-abelian (non-commutative) subgroups this will fail
So to construct a counter example try and find a group with a non-abelian subgroup
Then you will have a hard time realising it as the kernel of some homomorphism
Must a nonabelian group with proper nontrivial subgroups have a nonabelian one?
@AlessandroCodenotti not necesserily
just needs to be big enough
Take A5 for example
all its proper subgroups are abelian
But S5 has A5 as a subgroup
@ShaVuklia when you want to construct the subgroups of G as the image of something you should have G as the codomain and are free to choose the domain of your morphism
I think that's the least order group for which it holds.
12:36
@AliCaglayan ah, I see
Neat
(Let me google what Q8 is)
Quaternions
If $H$ is a non-abelian subgroup of $G$. And $\varphi$ is some homomorphism, then for $g, h \in H$ we have $\varphi(gh)=\varphi(g)+\varphi(h)=0+0=\varphi(h)+\varphi(g)=\varphi(hg)$ contradicting non-abelianness of H. Or something like that @ShaVuklia
Obviously $\varphi$ has kernel $H$ and maps from $G$ to some group
@AlessandroCodenotti Unit quaternions to be precise
think of 1, i, j, k and negatives
the 8 comes from the fact that there are 8 elements
and usual rules of smashing i's and j's together apply
i^2=j^2=k^2=ijk=-1
So... if we want to check that a subset $H\subset G$ is mapped as the image of some function, we need $G$ to be the codomain, and when we want to check if $H$ is the kernel of some function, we need $G$ as the domain
hm, I see
we'll have a non mandatory lecture on quaternions next week, followed by one about slice functions on quaternions the week after that (I have no idea what those are, half of the results from google are papers by the professor who's holding the lectures)
@AlessandroCodenotti What is your professors name?
12:45
Riccardo Ghiloni (he's not my professor right now, he was last semester)
I think slice functions are an attempt to get useful things from quarternions
I guess its trying to build up analysis for quarternions
Algebraically I found quarternions to be disappointing most of the time
I know nothing about them, I'll find out I guess
Once it fails to be a field all the interesting results about them are kind of partial
But I am just mouthing off about them because they didn't do what I thought they would this one time and I'm still sour about it probably.
A one-dimensional symmetry group is a mathematical group that describes symmetries in one dimension (1D). A pattern in 1D can be represented as a function f(x) for, say, the color at position x. The only nontrivial point group in 1D is a simple reflection. It can be represented by the simplest Coxeter group, A1, [ ], or Coxeter-Dynkin diagram . Affine symmetry groups represent translation. Isometries which leave the function unchanged are translations x + a with a such that f(x + a) = f(x) and reflections a − x with a such that f(a − x) = f(x). The reflections can be represented by the affine Coxeter...
What one needs when thinking about time crystals
@ShaVuklia do you understand the argument why not every subgroup can be a kernel?
12:50
Yes partly
I see that the non-abeliannes is violated
however, I still wonder about one example
consider $f\colon x\mapsto e$
I'm wondering if the non-abelianness is still violated here?
oh wait
I'm not allowed to have $H\subset G$ as the domain right?
what does $f$ map from ?
well, initially I wanted to write $H$, but I am being told that's not the convention
we need $G$ as the domain, to check if $H$ is the kernel
Well $f$ should be a homomorphism $f:G \to$ whatever
but then $f$ is not a homomorphism with the property that $H$ is the kernel, so my counterexample fails
yea, that's something I really didn't know
then the kernel of $f$ which is $H$ would sit inside $G$
12:53
but it's all cleared up now!
and thanks for the little proof about the non-abelianess
that was useful for me:)
no prob
we have showed $H$ to be a abelian subgroup, but we need to do something more to show they are normal subgroups?
@Secret we are not trying to show its normal
we are showing that not every subgroup is a kernel of some homomorphism
May I ask what year you are in @AliCaglayan ? Mere curiosity
because if it were then it would be abelian
@ShaVuklia first year I suppose
12:59
I see, so we can have not normal subgroups that are abelian being a kernel of a homorphism?
well abelian subroups are normal :P
because if its abelian then left and right cosets are trivially the same
hence the thing is normal
bachelor/master/phd? @AliCaglayan
I guess you would call it the first
@Secret The point I am trying to make is that a kernel needs to be abelian. So if I choose a subgroup of a group to make into a kernel it clearly has a problem if the subgroup isn't abelian.
Yup I can see that
ah cool @AliCaglayan
13:02
@Secret all abelian subgroups are normal but not always the other way round
S5 is a good example
A5 is a normal subgroup
but it is not abelian
hey guys a puzzle?
go for it @BAYMAX
In a farewell meet there are n students and they have groups and it can be like 2 persons in a group , 3 persons in a group and so on and there is a car which goes from Point A to Point B and in that car maximum 4 persons can sit and hence go from A to B.
Then the minimum number of trips from A to B so that all of the n students go from A to B , another thing there can be mixing that is mixing of groups can take place , like a group of 2 and another group of 2 / a single 1 and a group of 3 ... any1?
yes@AliCaglayan
i'm going crazy with the collatz conjecture
it's so simple yet so insanely difficult
13:15
@MeowMix I'm self-educated in math.
i should be studying, but i'm trying to convert v2(x) to an elementary function
I think I stayed enough here (which is a few minutes)
14:18
1
Q: Three Distinct Points and Their Normal Lines

Nick Pavini Suppose That three points on the graph of $y=x^2$ have the property that their normal lines intersect at a common point. Show that the sum of their $x$-coordinates is $0$. I have a lot going but can not finish it. Proof: Let $(a,a^2)$, $(b,b^2)$, and $(c,c^2)$ be three distinct points on $...

Hey i need help ,I have 2 vectors $\overrightarrow{a}$ and $\overrightarrow{b}$
It stated $\left|\left|\overrightarrow{a}\right|\right|=4,\left|\left|b\right|\right|=1$
and the degree between a and b is 120

$ \left(\left(2\overrightarrow{a}+\overrightarrow{b}\right)\,x\,\left(\overrightarrow{a}+2\overrightarrow{b}\right)\right)^{2}=?
$
14:43
what is $x$?
vector product
have you tried expanding the vector product and use the trigonometric version of the vector product formula?
 
1 hour later…
15:55
Hello all, i have a question on phase portraits, it was written : Also the direction of the vectors give the direction of the trajectory as t increases so we can show the time dependence of the solution by adding in arrows to the trajectories.

Im aware that the direction of the vectors in the direction field corresponds to the derivative of the dependent variables. How does this relate to the time dependence of solution?
The derivatives are all time dependant. The derivatives are positive when the system moves towards an increase in the particular variables with time. So the arrows on a phase portrait portray the direction in which the system moves with time.
The phase portrait does not have a $t$ axis, how can u indicate the change of derivative with time on the phase portrait
@LittleRookie It however does have 'axes' for the time dependant parameters. We do not indicate the change of derivatives. We use the derivatives to indicate the change of the target parameters (which do have 'axes').
Yea, so on the direction field, you cant know for sure at a certain directed line segment, it belongs to the derivatives at a known $t$
Hello Everyone, I am confused about the transformation used in method of characteristics. To have change of coordinates, we use the slope dy/dx (=y/1 say) and get eta=xy. But for the second one, in most cases, it is assume that zeta=x out of the blue. My question is, how we arrived at zeta=x? any thoughts?
16:12
@LittleRookie Just to clarify, you are talking about an autonomous system right? Because then, you cannot solve a point in the phase portrait for an explicit time (in the general case) but the arrow says nothing about that. All it says is given a system in this state at some time, it will move in the direction of the arrow, which is independent of the time.
@MeowMix Hey
Anyone want a challenging problem?
Hi @AlessandroCodenotti
16:17
Yes im refering to autonomous system
@TimTheEnchanter
Are you still here @Balarka? I might need an hint with an exercise from Hatcher
@MeowMix maybe, what is it about?
you probably heard it already
For every $k$, find a circle lying on exactly $k$ lattice points
Ah, yeah, Balarka told me about that problem already
I didn't think about it though
for $8 |(k - 4 )$ the problem is pretty trivial
I'm thinking about another one with circles without rationals point at the moment though
16:20
which one would that be?
Hello!!!

Suppose that we have the multiplicative group $\mathbb{F}_p^{\ast}$.
Does it hold that $a$ is a generator of the group iff ord(a)=p-1 ?
Hey @DanielFischer
Long time no see!
Do you maybe have an idea?
That's true @Evinda
Why? How can we show this?
@MeowMix showing that the fundamental group of $\Bbb R^2\setminus \Bbb Q^2$ is uncountable. I'm not sure my approach with circles is a good one
@Evinda Follows from fermat's little theorem I believe.
16:25
the fundamental group of points with at least one irrational coordinate?
fundamental group is like the group of words made by "letters" which are elements of $\Bbb R^2 \setminus \Bbb Q^2$, right?
@Evinda remember that ord(a) is the cardinality of the subgroup it spans
whose group operation is concatenation / juxtaposition of "words"
@TimTheEnchanter How does it follow from fermat's little theorem?
16:30
@MeowMix the fundamental group is the group of equivalence classes of loops based at a point (with the relation being homotopy equivalence), it is usually written as words with letters corresponding to the generators
@Evinda Correct me if I'm wrong, but is $\mathbb F_p$ the set {1,2,3,...p-1} where p is prime, because then $a^{p-1}=1$ iff a and p are coprime, which would make $a$ a generator of the group.
@AlessandroCodenotti I learned it as "words" and "letters"
anyways, I'm not smart so I don't know the answer
I'm just going to work on some LA
I have a very nice LA problem for you but I don't remember it exactly, I'll look it up later
Do you know something about finite fields and vector spaces over them?
maybe a bit
16:58
@AlessandroCodenotti Hmm?
Hi @Balarka
whats up?
MEOW MIX?! how dare you impersonate my friend
17:02
@BalarkaSen I want to prove that $\pi_1(\Bbb R^2\setminus\Bbb Q^2)$ is uncountable
@CausingUnderflowsEverywhere Whaaa?
Dat my friend Zach's picture
@Alessandro In particular proving that there are uncountably many non-null loops is sufficient, correct?
Hint: Try to construct lots of piece-wise linear loops. There are lines which do not hit any rational lattice point.
So I pick a point $x$ in that set ($X$ from now on) to calculate the fundamental group at this point and another point $y$ with irrational coordinates linearly independent over $\Bbb Q$, the circle with center $y$ through $x$ contains no rational points
You could do that.
17:08
@CausingUnderflowsEverywhere Yeah, I am Zach :P
I need to show that there are uncountably many non homotopic circles like that though
I suspect that 2 continuous maps $S^1\to X$ whose image is a circle either have the same image or are not homotopic
thats what any impersonator would say... I'll be keeping my eye on you... (just one. Im not going to dedicate all my vision to you)
@Alessandro Intuitively, two such loops would contain a lot of points with rational coordinates, which are missing from the space
I meant loops whose image is an actual circle in that space, one without rational points
I have no idea what you mean. I am saying why two such circles should not be homotopic.
17:18
If I fix a point in R^2\Q^2 there are uncountably many circles passing through it that don't pass through any rational point
I never disagreed with this. You want to prove that they are not homotopic, right? That's your question.
That's what I was replying to. Intuitively, any two such circles contain a rational point - missing! - in the annulus they bound in the plane.
So I realize those circles as the image of a map $S^1\to X$
@BalarkaSen aha, in the annulus, not in the circles themselves
Right. So you got to make that rigorous, somehow
17:21
Yeah, I was thinking about this, if there is an homotopy between them we have $S^1\times I$ mapped to something which is a mess
@CausingUnderflowsEverywhere Hint: search zach in the search bar and then click on Zach's avatar and see which profile page is directed to
I have to go now, I'll think about it later, thanks
@Alessandro If they are homotopic in R^2 - Q^2 they in particular are homotopic in R^2 - p where p is a rational point they bound.
That's a contradiction
I got to go get dinner too.
Ohh, right
Neat
Buon appetito then
Hey guys
17:30
hey
Hi,I have a percentage based Question problem doubt, who will help me
@TimTheEnchanter Ah I see
I think I've found the ultimate life changing hack for me
Thank you @TimTheEnchanter :)
Shall i ask question,anyone interested
17:32
@Learninguser you just asked one
No now new one @SoumyoB
@Learninguser sorry didn't quite get you
shall i ask now
you just asked another question
@Learninguser I'm just messing with you, go ahead
can i ask here
ok
A shopkeeper every once in a while raises his price by a% and then while reduces all the new prices by a%.After one such up down cycle ,the price of an article goes down by rs 441,After a second down up cycle , the article was sold for rs 1944.81.what was the original price of the article?
@SoumyoB please answer for this question
17:42
just add 441 to 1944.81
I'm too lazy to do that
anyone please answer for this
2385.81
I just added in my head
not saying its correct I just executed soumyoB's calculation thats all
ok but we need to work
@SoumyoB Just wondering, are you an undergrad?
Can't remember if you were an undergrad or grad student
17:46
I'm almost done with my masters @Daminark
Ah, nice
hello please guide me the steps for solution
I don't understand the question as worded
which one
?
"raises his price by a% and then reduces all the new prices by a%"
17:49
yes in question like that only is there
I'm saying like, you just brought the price of something up and back down again? I mean that'll yield a slight change but something's iffy
I dont know thats why i asked you
I'm not sure, like I haven't seen this question so I'm a bit in the dark. Like there's still some change for sure
If you start at $100, and then increase by 50%, then decrease by 50%, you get $75
So if we're rolling with that then maybe
I'm still suspicious that I'm interpreting this correctly
I also thought we can start with 100, but prices is reduced by 441
17:55
Well, a change of 441 is pretty big compared with 1944.81
Well this is a double change
@Semiclassical he means rupees
So if $x$ is the original price
Indian currency
17:57
Then we know that $x - (1+\frac{a}{100})(1-\frac{a}{100})x = 441$
And that $(x-441)(1+\frac{a}{100})(1-\frac{a}{100}) = 1944.81$
The first one does simplify, which is handy
I dont understand about the fract{a} like that, please edit the steps in simple way
'@Daminark
The question was given as a percentage
@Learninguser Enable mathjax on your browser!
Use the Latex in chat link in the room desc to make that render properly
18:00
How to enable ?
So numerically this would translate to a/100
19
A: Any chance of MathJax in chat?

Ilmari KaronenAs a workaround while this request is pending, there exist several client-side workarounds that can be used to enable LaTeX rendering in chat, including: ChatJax, a set of bookmarklets by robjohn to enable dynamic MathJax support in chat. Commonly used in the Mathematics chat room. An altern...

If you look at the right side of the screen, you'll see it talk about $L^AT_EX$ in chat
...like I said, use the link in the room desc
But yeah, if I didn't get this horribly wrong, which is not impossible, then we have that $xa^2 = 4410000$
Which you could use in the second expression to make your life better
18:03
I can see this LaTeX
then
how to enable
Hello all. Question : If an endomorphism f is diagonalizable with 0 as eigenvalue of multiplicity 1 ; is always Ker f (+) Im f = Espace ?
Where (+) = direct sum
ok
anybody got solution for my question
space*
And yet at least when I crunched out the numbers I still have a floating $x$ and $a$
Like, I don't think you can extract a numerical value
Unless I'm screwing up or we're not interpreting the question correctly
The simple thing to do is to rewrite the second condition as $x(1-a/100)^2(1+a/100)^2=1944.81$
thats what I'm assuming.
18:13
Question is correct only
Oh wait you squared things
I didn't notice that
(Am typing from phone, incidentally. So I can't say much.)
But yeah this would give us $x(1 - \frac{a^2}{10000})^2 = 1944.81$
@Learning maybe, but still somehow this feels like a bit of a contrived/bizarre example
Right. From that and the first eq you can eliminate $x$ and solve for $a$
then use that value of $a$ to find $x$.
I think you end up with around (not exactly!) 30%
18:19
what you are talking, i am not able to understand,after finding answer tell me
Wait I'm not sure if what I said there was diagonalizable
Yeah it totally wasn't
@Learninguser 1) translate the conditions in the text into equations. @daminark did that above.
@Lucas I think your result should hold without knowing that you have an eigenvalue of $0$ with multiplicity $1$
2) solve the equations for the unknowns. The best thing in this case is to first solve for the unknown percentage, and from this deduce what the initial price is.
18:27
An operator is diagonalizable if and only if there exists some eigenbasis
You should find a percent change which is about 30%. (That's not the exact figure, which you should find yourself.)
ok , if prices is increases and reduces means we have to multiply
An increase of 30% means you multiply the initial price by 1.30
You are taking initial price as 1
No. I'm saying you'd multiply the initial price by 1.3, whatever that number is
18:32
why we have to multiply
because that's how percent changes work.
Hey @Meow
Review that if it's not clear.
i am in the process of writing a word game
and i used math in it
18:34
Neat
suppose if we consider as initial price as 1 and then prices is increases by a means 1+ a/100
?
@Semiclassical
0
A: Percentage based problems::::

Ross MillikanWhen he raises the price and then reduces it, the price is multiplied by $(1+\frac a{100})(1-\frac a{100})=1-\frac {a^2}{10000}$ You have two sentences that each give you one equation. If the original price is $p$, what is the reduction in the first cycle? What is the final price? Two equatio...

please see this
That's correct.
how he is using 1+a/100
a% of your initial price is a/100 * initial price, yes?
yes
that means initial price as 1
he took
18:38
So if you want to increase by a%, you add this to the initial price.
So that's (initial price)+a/100*(initial price).
ok
then again price reducing and price increasing , how he multiples
Which is the same algebraically as (1+a/100)*(initial price).
x+a/100*x = (1+a/100)*x.
now understood
18:42
ok. If you decrease by a% instead, you subtract rather than add.
So all that changes is you multiply by 1-a/100 instead
why we need to multiply'
(1+a/100)*x+ (1-a/100)*x
this correct
18:46
No. the decrease by a% applies to the price after the a% increase.
you only need x once.
ok
Now understood
then we get
x*(1-a/10000)
which will be equal to
Almost. (1-a/100)(1+a/100)x=(1-a^2/10000)x
correct
after that
18:50
So the final price after the cycle is x-a^2/10000^x
So the price has gone down by how much?
That's in terms of your givens. What about in terms of x,a?
I.e. In terms of what I just wrote above
18:53
No.
that's the final price.
one such up down a cycle less than 441
from initial price
You're missing my point. If the initial price is x, and the final price is x*(1-a^2/10000), what is the change in price in terms of x and a?
yes that is the final price
correct
@BalarkaSen Yeah you're right you still max out at n+1. If you can always get rid of n-cells in a CW decomposition, then you only need n.
Until you can give an answer in terms of x and a, you are not done with this part of the problem.
18:58
after first down a cycle what will happen frame a equation
There is really nothing more I can say. Reread what I've said; until you can answer what I've asked, I've nothing more to say.

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