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00:00
@arctictern 40% my new best
probably could have gotten the four corners if it wasn't for some pesky guy on the top wall
@MikeMiller cool
Reading the inverse function theorem proof right now. I guess the idea is that $f(x)$ is close to its tangent plane, which is invertible, so $f$ is invertible as well. As the inverse of the tangent plane is Lipschitz continuous, so the inverse of $f$ is as well.
Haven't gotten up to the differentiable part yet, but I think that's the intuition
Locally invertible and locally Lipschitz, at least.
So invertible functions whose inverses are not locally Lipschitz don't have invertible tangent planes. Which makes sense; an example would be $y=x^3$ at the origin.
@MikeMiller yeah my answer was correct math.stackexchange.com/questions/2185588/…
Qiaochu Yuan has better argument though
very short
00:46
And it's differentiable because the inverse of the tangent is the tangent of the inverse, which seems plausible geometrically and can be proven rigorously after what looks like not too much effort
And the derivative is continuous, because the derivative of the original function is continuous and that doesn't change after inverting the planes
00:58
Hey guys, I have a question concerning multivariable functions and possibly group theory:
@Akiva so do homeomorphisms preserve open sets?
Consider an antisymmetric function of the form $a(x,y)=-a(y,x)$. Suppose x,y are coordinates of the xy plane, how to work out the spatial group symmetry being induced by the antisymmetric relation above?
@MeowMix Yes
In fact, one could define a homeomorphism to be a bijection that doesn't destroy or create open sets
My initial suspicion is it is some kind of centrosymmetry, that is, the function flip sign whenever it is reflected about the origin
(i.e. $f(A)$ is open iff $A$ is open)
01:00
And this is between two topological spaces, right?
Yeah
@Secret What do you mean by the spatial group symmetry
Like, the symmetry group of the function's graph?
yeah, something like translation, sheer, rotation, inversion etc.
a symmetry group that acts on the points of the function
Of the function's graph or the function's domain
Looking at the graph, we have that $(x,y,a)$ is in the graph iff $(y,x,-a)$ is
@AkivaWeinberger I understand the topological limit definition
So the matrix $\begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\\1&0&0\\0&0&-1\end{bmatrix}$, I guess.
Which is a rotation.
01:03
I think the image of the function, that is when one plot it, the surface formed by the function (is that what we called the function's graph)
Yeah, that's the graph I'm talking about
It's a 180 degree rotation about the vector $(1,1,0)$, I think.
Is a continuous function a homeomorphism from $\Bbb R$ to itself?
there's only one non-identity symmetry in general. So your symmetry group would be isomorphic to Z_2.
All continuous bijection between $\Bbb R$ and itself is a homeomorphism, if that's what you mean
Oh yeah :P
because it must have a continuous inverse
01:06
Normally, we require the inverse to be continuous also for it to count as a homeomorphism, but I think that in this case it follows
By the way, all bijections of $\Bbb R$ are either increasing or decreasing?
That is, everywhere negative derivative or everywhere positive derivative
Yeah. (Continuous ones)
Not in general.
@MeowMix Well, now you're assuming they're differentiable
Continuity is sufficient yes.
to force bijections to be monotonic
01:08
If we instead seek for the symmetry group of that function's domain (which should be $\mathbb{R}^2$) is that symmetry "reflection about y=x"?
Monotonic functions (aka increasing or decreasing) need not be differentiable
yup yup :)
@Secret Well, I'm not actually sure what that would mean, to be honest
ok I see
@AkivaWeinberger good point
they could be scattered everywhere
01:10
wait. Are you sure that there exist nondifferentiable strictly monotonic continuous functions?
It sounded like a thing at first but upon further thought I'm not sure.
strict monotonicity is a pretty strong condition after all
(That are also bijective)
like I'm pretty sure that
strictly monotonic forces smoothness except on a set of measure zero
at max
@YashFarooqui Well, we could have the graph be the union of two rays
but I think there should be a nowhere differentiable example as well…
that's still smooth. And you won't find one
I can prove that to you
The Cantor staircase function plus $x$ would also work
Strictly monotonic
Plus $x$, I said.
@YashFarooqui How would it be smooth?
01:16
except on a set of measure zero
Ah.
You could modify the Cantor staircase function for that.
The except on a set of measure zero is like a pretty important thing.
Think about it
Modify the Cantor staircase to work on a fat Cantor set
you won't be able to without violating strict monotonicity
(and then add $x$)
01:18
@AkivaWeinberger do you have any cool analysis question?
Here
suppose that f is finite on an open interval (a,b)
@YashFarooqui Hm, seems like you're right
Not sure what's wrong with the modified Cantor function thing, though
oh okay so you probably saw the proof
I don't know either
we can think about it
@YashFarooqui I didn't see a proof,
here's one linked to me by stackexchange
01:20
I saw someone on Stack Exchange say that a proof existed in a book somewhere
take a minute or two and convince yourself?
differentiability is ugly...
but it's similar enough to the definition of integration that it's kinda ok I gues
so I think that
the construction of the staircase falls apart on nonmeasure zero sets
I think I'd want to read that book from the beginning to understand that
this is a cool lemma
I should study more real analysis XD
oh here's a quick soft question I had
Speaking about reading a book from the beginning. I think I need to reread my DFT book because I don't know what I have been reading in the past 3 days due to too many interruptions on the flow emotional state
01:28
I seem to remember in a - I want to say analysis? - class I learned about interesting results involving Taylor series with zero radius of convergence
and now I'm just wondering
Factorial coefficients
supposing I have such a function, is there a way to get a handle on the taylor coefficients of that function?
the usual complex analytic way won't work
@MeowMix Can you find a continuous bijection between two subsets of $\Bbb R^2$ that is not a homeomorphism? (If an example has not already been given to you)
and differentiation is ... well possible but eww
differentiation is not bounded and approximations become ugly.
so a homeomorphism would also have a continuous inverse, right?
01:30
Yeah
so i wanna find a continuous bijection whose inverse is not continuous
yeah Akiva, the ogf for n! is f(x) = integral from t = 0 to inf of e^-t /(1-xt)
Oh, $\Bbb R^2$
that's complicated
Since you just take the Laplace Transform of the exponential generating function
01:31
They might not be complicated subsets @MeowMix
@YashFarooqui I thought $\sum n!x^n$ had zero radius of convergence, though
I constructed an example from hell
check that the function I described
is not defined for x != 0
my finest construction yet
01:32
they shall call me the "king of counterexample"
What does continuous mean in $\Bbb R^2$? The image of the neighborhood around a point is a neighborhood around the image of that point?
@MeowMix That's not even true for continuous functions in $\Bbb R$. Take $y=x^2$; neighborhoods of zero don't map to neighborhoods of zero
Forever Mozart, what is your counterxample? ^.^ since you seem like you want to share
takes many pages to describe
yes meow mix, basically
01:34
i'm just here to brag :)
The real definition is that the inverse images of open sets are open (or the inverse images of neighborhoods are neighborhoods)
okay! I just wanted to give you the outlet if you wanted to share. Congrats!
are you familiar with basic topology?
Yeah, but in R^n it's not that big of a deal to mix those up
yes
but the intuitive definition ("points near each other map to points near each other") should be fine
01:35
I can describe the property of the example then
@ForeverMozart Is it possible to drew on paper, or it has too much fractal like structure?
@YashFarooqui See my $y=x^2$ example above.
If $X$ is a connected space and $p,q\in X$ then $X$ is irreducible between $p$ and $q$ if no proper closed connected subset of $X$ contains both $p$ and $q$.
f(x) = x^2 is a 1 dimensional function and it is continuous everywhere in a topological sense (I am fairly sure - unless topologists are incredibly bad people). I don't see the problem.
01:36
I proved that there is a connected $X$ that is irreducible between every two of its points, but such that every compactification of $X$ is reducible between every two points of $X$
this is a major breakthrough in my research
yeah I mean congrats
but also ugh that counterexample must suck
it sits in $\mathbb R ^3$ but cannot be drawn
@YashFarooqui I mean, it's continuous but it doesn't satisfy Zach's (Meow Mix's) proposed definition.
01:37
like not suck as in be a bad counterexample but suck as in be a horrible function
@YashFarooqui it has very strange structures
@MikeMiller does that sound interesting?
ok. I agree. I will admit I didn't read the definition too closely - I misread as "the neighborhood around a point lies in the neighborhood of its image"
*"lies in a neighborhood"
it sounds cool Forever Mozart. I can't really imagine a space like that but I guess that's the point
its totally crazy. over a year of work to reach this point
and still the big conjecture remains...
unproved
well. Research takes time and you made a step!
01:42
[Random conjecture] Anything that cannot be drawn on a piece of paper must be either a dense set, a structure that has fractal like properties, a product of an infinite process (e.g. consider alexander horned sphere)

From what is described here, it might seemed this conjecture is false

Well, when you got the paper out, I would really love to have a look at that space you proved
I like pathological counterexamples
I have a feeling that the big conjecture is true now, cause I'm pretty good at finding counterexamples.
@Secret it is fractal, yes
@Secret if I sent you my papers then I would reveal my true identity ;)
ok then
but maybe
@ForeverMozart Jeremy from the park?
01:45
Just guessing at your identity
By your reaction I see I must have been right
lol
sounds like an idiot savant
Jeremy from the park who swindles people for money over chess
some of the best chess players in the world are homeless in parks
fact
[Now formalising the pictorial representation conjecture] There exists no undrewable mathematical objects $X$ that is not a result of an infinite process, that is not infinite, that is not a fractal or fractal like or that is not a dense set

Definition: A mathematical object $M$ can be drawn on a piece of paper if its entire mathematical description (given as a class or propositions, relations, equations, axiomatic systems and so on) and properties can be mapped to corresponding pictograms that are subsets of $\mathbb{R}^2$ such that there is no missing information
I need to figure out how to define "fractal like", though: It covers many pathological examples such as the weistrass function, the devil staircase, the alexander horned sphere, nowhere continous functions, the set of rationals and irrationals etc.
You'd then need to define pictogram, but I kinda like where you're going with this
A pictogram is any subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ that can be (...)

O that is not as trivial, I cannot just say "can be drawn on a piece of paper" as that will make the definition cyclic. I need to think about that...
Which does brought out an interesting question, that might be at the intersection of art and maths: What do all physically or digitally representable objects have in common
02:00
The acronym PICNIC is kind of funny
It's a type of computer problem
"Problem in chair, not in computer"
02:38
@AkivaWeinberger The one I heard is PEBKAC
"problem exists between keyboard and chair"
[Random] To differentiate a function that is a sequence, use finite difference. Now what about differentiate a function f(n) that is a series where n is the number of terms. To be investigated
@AkivaWeinberger @Secret basically I only thought about the elements of order 2, and completely forgot about the other elements.
@Secret you mean a function $\Bbb Z \to \BbbR$?
02:53
A sequence of sequences? @Secret
Let's all go on a PICNIC :)
@AkivaWeinberger I think he just means $f(n) = g(1) + g(2) + \cdots + g(n)$
i am preparing such a great paper
going to change life on Earth
Wow!
haha yes
02:55
What's that paper about?
scroll up to around 20:30
@ForeverMozart you do know that local time doesn't work
in an international chatroom
Ok..all the best for your paper... Beautiful mind
does anyone watch that show
Halt and Catch fire?
Also you can be revealed once your paper comes to the wider bulkier internet ... he he :)
03:00
I'm binge watching and it's really amazing
I thnk you must be Vendetta
@ForeverMozart
Just kidding!
i'm not looking to create anarchy
checks calendar tomorrow's gonna be a rough day
Is it related to Mathematics Halt and catch fire ?
it is related to computers in the 1980s
03:02
Any Mathematical show guys , any1?
Is it a movie?
no a tv show on AMC
3 seasons total
its sort of nerdy so you might like it
Oh..nice will give a try
it's very good
has anyone seen this? imdb.com/title/tt1801123
looks interesting
Just heard that it's related to LPP Travelling Salesman problem..
P=NP i cannot prove it though
too hard for me
03:08
What's that?
Conjecture
yes
famous problem
Happy $\pi$ day to all!
everyone thinks its true
but nobody can prove it, which sucks
Everyone thinks P != NP
A lot of people thought bpp != p too
03:10
haha pipe dreams
P=NP when P=0 or N=1
Where's my prize money
@YashFarooqui I thought that was also unsolved?
Ha Ha ... :)
But idk much about the problem aside from the fact that it's provable that basically every method anyone has thought of will fail
@AkivaWeinberger wow
03:11
BPP is P, it was proveb
very deep
But anyways
My solution is to use time dilation to speed up algorithms.
Quick question. A book I was reading said that \log(|\zeta(\sigma + iy)|) = sum over k>=1 sum over n>= 1 of (p_k^(-nsigma))/n cos(ny log p_k)
My question is where the isin(ny log p_k) goes
03:13
Hey guys..everybody relax as I am BAY_the_MAX. :)
Sigma >= 1 so everything's nice except at s=1
Like why does it contribute nothing to the absolute value?
Oh writing that out helped
No nvm it didn't. Where did the sin go?
greatest paper ever arxiv.org/abs/1004.4206
read the abstract lol
So basically quantum immortality.paper?
`Many Cats' interpretation of Quantum Mechanics LOL
I think it claims to prove mortality
Seriously though can someone help with the zeta sum or is it just an error in the book? It seems too minor for a full question, plus I'm on mobile
03:17
@DHMO yup, that's how a sequence is defined
Is there a way to attach pictures?
click on upload button
@ForeverMozart that abstract is pretty funny! the paper though actually looks fairly interesting.
@AidenGrossman 12 pages... someone had too much spare time
@AkivaWeinberger Well the thing about series is that it basically act like an integral, except with a counting measure. I do vaguely recall there's a fundemental theroem of finite difference that allow you to take finite diference of series. What I had not checked yet is whether they work on series which converges for all n finite and diverge otherwise
The harmonic number, fibonacci number and other related series defined numbers are interesting in that they only diverge if n is infinite
03:22
What is the conversation about? Can't you just consider the partial sums or Cauchy sums?
@Secret can you diverge if n is finite, for any sequence at all?
You can
*can't
Unless you sum infinite things?
@YashFarooqui Well I am thinking about the notion of differentiating a series. I knew derivatives are well defined for functions and sequences (where it is known as finite difference), what I am not sure is whether they are also well defined for series that diverge only at infinity
Finite differences is the way to go. The finite differences of infinite series behave like you'd expect- consider the sequences of partial sums, you can't converge to anything else.
So one can talk about something like $\Delta f(n)=\sum_{i=1}^n f(i) - \sum_{i=1}^{n-1} f(i)$ for any $n$, without need to worry about ordering issues of the terms which commonly plague divergent series?
03:28
You mean conditionally convergent? And I don't believe so but let me try proving it in case I'm wrong
Also those are finite sums
@DHMO you can diverge for some specific sequences. For example alternating the signs of the recirpocals of posotive integers produces a convergent series. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergent_series
Every convergent series has to have the sequence you are summing go to zero
So the sequence of partial sums of delta f(n) goes to f(0)
Err -f(0)
@AidenGrossman I think he is asking whether you can have a series consists of finite terms and can still diverge
well you can have a sum of two variables, but a finite sum of finite sequences won't diverge.
@Secret Okay, I guess I did not read the part about n being finite.
03:31
Anyways like if you just stick to partial sums you can reafrange all you like
Ah I see
Another question about derivatives is the following: How will one compute:

$$\frac{d}{dn}f^n(x)$$ where $f^n$ is acting $f$ n times
still @YashFarooqui You can check out Paul's Online notes on sequences and series they are nice.
Rate of change of derivatives with order of derivatives?
@Secret
Speaking of sequences, for some reason the book I'm reading says log|zeta(sigma + i y) | = sum over k sum over n p_k^(-ns)/n cos(ny log p_k)
@BAYMAX rate of change of f wrt number of iterations
ok
$\frac{df}{dx}$ is rate of change of $f$ wrt x right?
03:37
yes
Now. The log expansion makes sense but I don't get why the imaginary part of the sum is basically irrelevant. Shouldn't |(p^k)^(-n(sigma +iy)| just be |(p_k^nsigma)|?
This is obviously true which makes me feel like I am missing something very obvious
$\frac{d^{2}f}{dx^{2}}$ is rate of change of $f^{'}$ wrt $x$ , right?
@YashFarooqui My first guess will be the imaginary part somehow cancel out, they often do in many cases
as they often end up as a phase factor
Zeta is the riemann zeta function as usual. And yes, that was my first thought too, but it doesn't seem to be the case
I believe it's something to do with |log(1-z)| not being quite what I expect- otherwise it's an error in the book
Log is here
The logarithm excluding negative real axis where log(1)=0
03:40
@BAYMAX For a bit of a context, imagine computing the rate of change of the function along the k direction in this question
I think that was implicit but never hurts to be explicit. Anyways the imaginary part doesn't magically cancel or the real part would too
nice @secret you are reviewing your questions
interesting though
yeah, sometimes looking back at questions you ask will generate a new question or idea to be tested
that's really one of the ways I came up with so many weird ideas
That's cool .
For example: This PSE question is actually inspired from watching Doctor Strange
1
Q: Experimental test for a universal scale closed timelike curve?

SecretSo recently, in chat, I was interested in about what if our universe contains only one CTC (thus making it unlike the Gödel metric, van Stockum dust where there can be more than one CTCs found) and that is the time dimension of the whole universe wrapped back onto itself (meanwhile the spatial di...

03:46
Anyways cancellation can't occur since log p_k is irrational
Since p_k is the kth prime
I'm wondering if the author meant log|Re(zeta)| but that wouldn't make much sense either
@arctictern are you here ?
ish
satisfied with my 67%
I am proving the following Let $f : A \rightarrow B$ be a morphism of rings. Let M,N be A-modules prove that $(M \otimes_A N) \otimes_A B \cong (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B)$
Okay I proved that the map given by
left, right or bimodules?
$\phi : (M \otimes_A N) \otimes B) \rightarrow (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B) $ given by $(m \otimes_A n) \otimes_A b \mapsto (m \otimes_A b) \otimes_b (n \otimes_A b)$ is well defined
left
03:51
@Adeek that doesn't strike me as well-defined
I proved that this map is well defined I am having troubles constructing the inverse map
why ? Fix arbitrarily $b \in B$ consider $\phi_b : M \times_A N \rightarrow (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B)$ given by $(m,n) \mapsto (m \otimes_A b) \otimes_B (n \otimes_A b)$ this map is bilinear so it induces
it induces a map $M\otimes_A N\to (M\otimes_AB)\otimes_B(N\otimes_AB)$, sure, but then that is not linear in $b$ so it fails to futher induce a map out of $(M\otimes_AN)\otimes_AB$
$\bar{\phi_b} : M \otimes_A N \rightarrow (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B)$ given by $m \otimes_A n \mapsto (m \otimes_A b) \otimes_B (n \otimes_A b)$ Then we can let b vary and we construct now $\psi : (M \otimes_A N) \times_A B \rightarrow (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B)$ given by $( (m \otimes_A n),b) \mapsto \bar{\phi_b}(m \otimes_A n)$
this is linear in b as well as linear in $M \otimes_A N$ no ?
$(m\otimes b)\otimes(n\otimes b)$ is not linear in $b$
but why is my map $\psi$ above not bilinear ?
03:58
does $\psi(m\otimes n,2b)=2\psi(m\otimes n,b)$?
ohh no
that doesn't work
we get 4
because you have two $b$s being tensored ("multiplied"), so it's not linear (it's "quadratic")
oh I see
I thought that was very natural map I guess not !
that is why I can't construct a natural inverse
maybe something like this will work ?
$(m \otimes n) \otimes b \mapsto (m \otimes 1) \otimes (n \otimes b)$ ?
@arctictern ?
dunno, I don't know how to see surjectivity of that
hmm I will try bunch of maps and see
04:08
what are the $B$-module structures on $M\otimes_A B$ and $N\otimes_A B$?
The B-module structure on $M \otimes_A B$ is defined as $b (m \otimes b_1) \mapsto m \otimes (b * b_1)$
oh, then goodie
why ?
ohh
ohh yess then the map that I defined works just fine
that's kind of weird though, because it seems to collaps $(M\otimes_AB)\otimes_B(N\otimes_AB)$ quite a bit
Yeah that makes sense because otherwise I think that if we define other B-module structure then $(M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B (N \otimes_A B)$ then it will be "bigger" than $(M \otimes_A N) \otimes_A B$
@ramanujan_dirac here ?
04:15
Yup
So the map $(m \otimes n) \otimes b \mapsto (m \otimes 1) \otimes (n \otimes b)$ works
based on how we just define the B-module structure
I just have to go through the details now
note $(m\otimes b)\otimes(n\otimes 1)=(m\otimes 1)\otimes(n\otimes b)$ so it's actually symmetrical
ohh i see okay
Ahh
yeah I was just gonna say @arctictern
that is very cool
it is kinda weird that some objects in tensor product collapse in some non-trivial manner if we consider different build up.
btw @arctictern I am currently learning homological algebra it is so amazing with what I have seen so far.
I can't wait to explore more of it.
04:50
@arctictern This multiplication aspect of tensor product is really evident in the example above. For example surjectivity is clear since $(n_1 \otimes_A b_1) \otimes_B (n_2 \otimes_A b_2) = b_1(n_1 \otimes_A 1) \otimes_B (n_2 \otimes_A b_2) = n_1 \otimes_A 1 \otimes_B (n_2 \otimes b_1b_2)$
how would you want to do #7 here?
@MikeMiller are you TAing for calculus ?
nope, but a friend is
i have no idea how to do that reasonably
I wouldn't do it using power series I would just compute the derivative notice a pattern and get explicit formula I think for this one it is very doable to do it like that
04:59
i don't think that's true for this one at all.

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