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10:00
@user400188 P({a,b,c,d}) = ?
{ {}, {a}, {b}, {c}, {d}, {a,b,c,d}, {a,b,c}, {a,b,d} {a,c,d}, {b,c,d}, {a,b},{a,c},{b,c} }

Very long
wrong
I am unsure what the mistake it
where is {c,d}?
3rd last
It didnt show up in the copy paste I made from the earlier question
Appart from that was there any fundamental error?
10:06
you still missed 2 sets
but let's move on
{c,d} {a,d} {b,d}
{apple, orange} \ {orange} = ?
I am not sure what the \ means
I have heard it called excluding though
so {apple}
it's called set difference and you are right
LaTeX is \setminus
you will also see {apple, orange} - {orange}
I've always wonder what set difference is
10:09
the elements in the first set removing the elements in the second set
have you done any cs?
I've just wondered how it was achived using only $\land\ \lor\ \not$ Plus whatever extra stuff is needs from first order logic.
CS?
Computer science?
yes
@anon Sorry, I was at the ER with my wife. She's okay, just had a breathing problem.
I have done a tiny bit. But not a lot
@user400188 we don't use those on sets. That's the last time I say it.
do you speak Python?
10:11
No that is not a launguage that I have covered
let's move on to set comprehension
aka set building
have you heard of it?
@DHMO nope
@user400188 so we say {x|x is a fruit}
or {x:x is a fruit}
then orange is in that set
Im not sure if I can read that notation
x such that x is a fruit?
10:14
: means such that
we say "the set of x such that x is a fruit"
yes
so {x|x is a fruit} intersect {x|x is red} = ?
{x|x is a fruit and x is red}
No,red is not a fruit
@user400188 correct
can you name some elements of the set you just built?
@Fawad you need to study English ;-)
Hello @DHMO
10:18
they are all red fruit.. Im not sure how to name them.
Red apples I guess
nice
can you use set comprehension to define A union B?
{A|A is B) would make conjuction. I am not sure hwo to do union yet
no that is not how you do it
yes
I hope he didn't read…
I read it and was about to say I agreed then DHMO answered
forgive me
also I thought again of "," meaning OR and it made sense to me

Plus I have been reading {x|x is a fruit} as:
x(x=fruit). Which is equivilant to X(fruit)
WHich I know is wrong but I cant get my head around why it wont work
10:23
@user400188 what the hell did I just read
used convention that multiplication is AND
comma means and
and the last sentence is nonsense
Yes it means AND but in set theory the notation used in sets seems to mean or
depends on context
A{x:x is even} and B{x:x is prime} what is union @user400188 what is A︶B ? And A︵B?
10:26
what the hell is x(x=fruit)
︶ means union,︵ means intersection
$x\land (x\iff fruit)$ is equivilant to $x\land x\land fruit\ \lor\ x\land(\lnot x)(\lnot fruit)$

That was what the nonsense was meant to mean
what the fun
ROFL
@user400188 You do have a unique way to create nonsense.
I call those "elaborate nonsense"
10:28
Its how I think about everything to be honest
thats why im so worried about syntax most of the time
I have to be able to translate correctly
It actauly does work: the result of the simplification is just x AND fruit. Which acording to my nonsense is the same as x intersect fruit.
{x|x is a fruit} means nothing more than the set of x such that x is a fruit
is fruit a larger set than x? and is x possibly larger than the set x is a fruit?
if so then then the set of x such that x is a fruit could be thought of as the intersection of the two sets
well it contains all the fruits really
x is a variable
10:33
@DHMO what you are explaining is common math or related to computer science?
common math
can also be related to computer science
How?
Haskell is written using many of the conventions and concepts of set theory.
@user400188 you understand set theory?
Not really. I haven't done any courses on it. And From what I have talked about here the stuff I thought I did undertand was in fact wrong..
10:44
@user400188 here is the answer: A union B = {x|x in A or x in B}
Shouldnt that be subset as opposed to in?
Just want to confirm: if $x \in K(x)$ then $x$ is algebraic over $K$, correct?
it depends, $\pi\in\Bbb Q[\pi]$
@user400188, yes. $x \in A \cup B$ implies that $x \in A$ or $x \in B$
Oh yeah, since $\pi$ is not algebraic over $\mathbb {Z}$
Hi chat
10:49
Thanks, @AlessandroCodenotti.
however if $|K[\alpha]:K|$ is finite then every element of the extension is algebraic over $K$ (the extension is said to be an algebraic extension)
@HarryEvans If A and B were sets; and I wanted to define thier union: would x, such that x∈A or x∈B be enough? Or would that just define the union of two single elements (and not every element)?
(not every algebraic extension is of finite degree, can you find an example?)
Yes, @user400188. That's the definition of being in $A \cup B$
Remember that $x$ is an arbitrary element
it seems there should be a for all somewhere
or is the the for all part somehow described in the way we write it: $A \cup B = \{x|x \in A\ or\ x \in B\}$
10:52
@AlessandroCodenotti Is $[\mathbb {R} : \mathbb {Z}]$ an algebraic extension
not every real is algebraic over $\Bbb Z$
@user400188, definitions are "if and only if"
also $\Bbb Z$ isn't a field, are we doing field or ring extensions?
ah thank you: the = should be a $\iff$
Sorry, it should have been $[\mathbb {R} :\mathbb {Q} ]$
10:56
you already know whether that is an algebraic extension, is every element of $\Bbb R$ algebraic over $\Bbb Q$?
No @AlessandroCodenotti, because $\pi$ is a counterexample
right, so that's not an algebraic extension
What about $[\mathbb {Q} (\sqrt {2}, \sqrt {3}, \dots, \sqrt {n}, \dots : \mathbb {Q}]$?
that works
also $\bar{\Bbb Q}:\Bbb Q$
Still whacking my brain over a homework for my Complex Analysis class, though
@AlessandroCodenotti, are you someone I can consult?
11:00
I know nothing about complex analysis sorry
but if you have more abstract algebra doubts I might be able to help
Thanks, @AlessandroCodenotti!
Anyone who could help with Complex Analysis?
@DHMO Thank you for the help.
11:28
I'm glad everything is okay @robjohn
11:52
@AlessandroCodenotti is the axiom of subset a schema?
12:08
@HarryEvans Complex Analysis is a broad topic. Do you have a more specific question?
Hey there, @robjohn! Yes, I did have a few
@skillpatrol thanks
@robjohn I'm currently working on a homework and I need someone's help. First, suppose we have the power series $\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac {B_n z^n}{n!}$ which converges to $f(z) = 1$ if $z = 0$ and $f(z) = \frac {z} {e^z - 1}$ whenever $z \ne 0$. We need to show its radius of convergence is $2 \pi$
I don't know if Hadamard's formula works here. In fact, we need to also show that $B_n = - \frac {1} {n + 1} \sum_{k = 0}^{n -1} C(n+1, k) B_k$
12:28
@HarryEvans show that $f$ is holomorphic inside the open disc of radius $2\pi$ then use Cauchy's integral formula
@mercio, Unfortunately, we haven't studied Cauchy's integral formula yet
w h a t
shocking
I think I can show that $f$ is analytic/holomorphic inside an open disc of radius 2$\pi$
how did you prove that $f$ is holomorphic implies $f$ is analytic ?
iirc we have to use some kind of cauchy formula for that
In our class, we defined an analytic function as synonymous to being holomorphic
12:32
uh
maybe I meant $f$ differentiable implies $f$ analytic ?
Our last theorem is if $f(z)$ is the pointwise limit of the power series $\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} a_n z^n$, in $D: |z| <R$, then $f$ is analytic in $D$.
but
what's your definition of analytic-holomorphic ?
So if the power series converges on a certain disc of convergence, it is analytic
because convergence of power series on an open disc is my definition of analytic
Analytic: the function is differentiable at every point in $D \subseteq \mathbb {C}$
12:36
that's holomorphic
so have you proved the converse of your last theorem ?
In our class, though, that's how it's defined, and that's why analytic and holomorphic are synonymous terms
Not yet, @mercio, but we stated it as something to prove
I see
I guess your only tool then is to get an estimation of the growth of the $B_n$
@mercio So what you mean here is to show that $f'(z)$ has radius of convergence equal to 2$\pi$?
how did you show that your sum converged to $\frac z {\exp(z)-1}$ ?
@mercio, it's a given
12:39
bwrrrrrrk
How do I upload a picture here?
put it on imgur then give a link
but if you haven't proven that $R > 0$ it's useless to know what the sum converges to
<img>http://imgur.com/a/I1EnB</img>
<blockquote class="imgur-embed-pub" lang="en" data-id="a/I1EnB"><a href="//imgur.com/I1EnB"></a></blockquote><script async src="//s.imgur.com/min/embed.js" charset="utf-8"></script>
You can't use markup here
The first one is easy...the succeeding ones are damn difficult
12:41
Try the Upload button next to Send
wait so you haven't even got a definition of $B_n$
Did you see the file? imgur.com/a/I1EnB
Yes, $\{B_n\} \subset \mathbb {C}$
@HarryEvans this?
Yes, @MickLH. How'd you do it?
you linked the album and not the image
12:45
I fed the URL of the raw jpeg image into the Upload dialog on here, I think just pasting the raw jpeg link does the same
But you can skip the hassle, and just upload from your PC, it goes to imgur anyways
oh wow i never noticed the upload button
I don't see an upload button on mine...maybe I'm too basic...not enough reputation?
But, @mercio, @MickLH, do you guys have any idea? I mean, I can show that the radius of convergence of $f'(z)$ is 2$\pi$, correct?
is there a reason you aretalking about $f'$and not $f$ ?
Both $f$ and $f'$ have the same radius of convergence
yeah
12:51
oh forget about that idea...$\{B_n\}$ is a complex sequence...
have you showed the identity theorem ?
so far you haven't showed any magically strong theorem about holomorphic function so really I'm not sure how you're supposed to show a)
Is this the Identity Theorem: If $f$ is analytic on $D \subseteq \mathbb {C}$, $f = 0$ on $S \subset D$ contains an accumulation point in $D$. Then, $f = 0$?
yeah
I don't see the link, though
me neither I was just wondering
well you can show that $R$ can't be greater than $2\pi$
12:56
So I just take an open disc bigger than $2\pi$, and show that the power series diverges?
if it were you would be able to evaluate $f$ at $2i\pi$
then, multiplying by $(\exp(z)-1)$ (which has infinite radius of convergence)
you get $f(z) \times 0 = 2i\pi$
contradiction
Do I show that the series converges at any disc smaller than $2\pi$?
i really don't know how to do that without cauchy integral formula
So, let $z = 2\pi i$ thus, $f(2\pi i) (e^{2\pi i} - 1) = 2\pi i$
yes, assuming $R > 2\pi$
13:02
We can simply get $f(2\pi i)$ is not defined
Thus it is divergent there
Coolio
I'd rather be outside walking pokemon now that the gen 2 update has been released...what a waste of a fine Saturday morning :(
13:24
0
Q: A group of order $595$ has a normal Sylow 17-subgroup.

user113578 Proof Verification: A group of order $595$ has a normal Sylow 17-subgroup. $|G|=595=5.7.17$ The divisors of $595$ are $1,5,7,17,35,85,119,595$. $17|n_{17}-1\implies n_{17}=1,35\\7|n_7-1\implies n_7=1,85,119\\5|n_5-1\implies n_5=1$ If possible let $n_{17}=35.$ Then there is at least $35.1...

Can any1 explain the last three lines of Donantonio's answer please?
13:36
@BAYMAX, by the Sylow theorems, since 17 is a factor of 595, we determine how many Sylow 17-subgroups there are. The possibilities are 1 or 35. Now, there cannot be 35 Sylow 17-subgroups since that would be a contradiction
@BAYMAX, all of these are consequences of the Third SYlow Theorem
@Fawad hey Ian here
*I am
Ok
@Fawad should I ping anybody while asking questions
Ask your question,if someone can help then they will help you
No,not anybody
13:39
if 35 Sylow 17 subgroups are there then no of elements total in these Sylow 17 subgroups will be $35 . (17-1) = 560$ non trivial elements?
@HarryEvans
@BAYMAX, If there are 35 Sylow 17-subgroups, then if there are at least 85 Sylow 7-subgroups, then $35 \cdot (17 -1) + 85 \cdot (7 - 1)$. What is the total?
@satyatech the latter is correct
@DHMO which one the above one or below one
below
13:47
@HarryEvans 1070 elements and hence a contradiction!
@BAYMAX, yes, that's right
@DHMO ,but Sir (don't think I am going to make wrong thing correct) in my book what it did was the above one and used G.P ,there was a G.P ,which led to the answer. Let me post the image for better understanding.
Sir :p
This seems very wrong to me
13:52
@satyatech remove the second line
@Astyx that's how Indians talk.
I know, I just find it amusing
The notations are confusing in your picture
@DHMO I couldn't understand which line to remove and which notation s are confusing
What they mean is $C$ happens n times then $A$ happens
And usually one does not write this as $C\cap C \cap \dots \cap C \cap A$
because this is simply $C\cap A$
Sorry friend I am seeing only dollars and slashes
Check Chatjax on top right
13:55
@satyatech ^
One would rather write this as $P(X_1 = C \text{ and }X_2 = C \text{ and } \dots \text{ and } X_{n-1} = C \text{ and } X_n = A)$
Or $P((X_1 = C) \cap (X_2 = C) \cap \dots \cap (X_{n-1} = C) \cap (X_n = A))$
Friend the problem is I am using a smartphone and my desktop is damaged ....😑
Oh I see
Any site to covert latex to math
Do you see images ? ^
13:59
Yes
Cool
Where the Xi are the random variables of each event
@Astyx Thanks ,now I understand
Glad to hear it :)
Hi @Astyx what's up?
@Astyx Exercise: monstrer que l'intersection des ensembles X et Y existe
14:02
Hi @Fawad, enjoying my penultimate day of holidays, and you ?
@DHMO Montrer* Et tu veux dire avec les axiomes de ZF ?
Preparing for exams
@Astyx oui, avec les axiomes de ZF
Haha typo :p
Je ne les connais pas par coeur, tu peux me ré-envoyer le lien que tu avais hier ?
By the way, I'm still unsure about how to proceed with my homework for my complex analysis course... imgur.com/D2fNUGh
Can anyone help? Thanks again! imgur.com/D2fNUGh
@HarryEvans What have you tried so far ?
14:06
Well, #1 is simple. #2a, we show that the power series diverges for $z = 2\pi i$
But #2b and #2c are quite challenging, @Astyx IMO
Merci @DHMO
@HarryEvans Wait just a sec :)
Thanks, @Astyx
I shall get breakfast. I wanted to walk outside and catch pokemon, though. Ruined, because of this homework.
@DHMO C'est pas juste une application de l'axiome des sous-ensembles $A\cap B = \{x\in A | x\in B\}$ ?
@Astyx marveilleux!
14:10
merveilleux :)
(Yeah, French is frustrating)
@Astyx, is that really French? I mean "merveilleux"
Yes it is
Whoa, coolio!
@DHMO What reason do I have to expect that the arbitrary sets X and Y must intersect and henc have nonzero intersection A?
@Secret when did I say that A is nonzero?
14:14
If A is empty, then there is no element u, and the line that follows in that sentence will break down
@Secret u has no domain
and the line that follows would be a vacuous truth
The vacuous truth will hold even if u is in only one of the sets X or Y?
because if u in X and u not in Y, then by the truth table of "and", you get "false" as a result, even if u in A where A is empty is vacuously true, thus you have true=false, and I don't know how that will be consistent
potentially trivial question: must a topological space in which every closed proper subset is compact be compact?
I don't think that's true but I don't see any easy counterexample
Maybe that's actually true, I need a space that can't be written as a finite union of closed sets, but then it also has "few" open sets
@Secret Can you give me a specific example?
14:32
Consider X={1,2,3} and Y={4,5,6}. Clearly they are disjoint sets, thus A is empty. Now let u=4, then u in Y but not in X, thus "u in Y and u in X" is false. Now for the left side of the $\equiv$ there is no element in A, thus for all u in A, (property) is vacously true. Thus we have true $\equiv$ false, which is absurd
@Secret no, A is empty, so "u in A" is false
ignore my comment about "vacuous true"
ok now it makes sense
@HarryEvans Try and compute $$\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}{1\over n!}{-1\over n+1}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}{n+1\choose k}B_k z^n$$
Hmmm...@Astyx, I don't know
And read the hint of the original question
14:36
I don't know $\{B_n\}$...
That's not an issue
And you might want to add $\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}{B_n\over n!}z^n$ coming to think about it
Another hint : ${n+1\choose k} = \dots$ ?
you're trying to do part (b) in the imgur link on the starboard? if so, plugging the desired formula for $B_n$ into the power series works as verification, but it doesn't tell you how the recursion was derived in the first place - which is what you find out when you follow the directions
@Secret are you typing a long paragraph?
I see that you're trying to relate the series you wrote with the Cauchy product
not really. astyx just replaced $B_n$ with the desired formula inside the generating function for $B_n$
14:45
Oh yeah
@Astyx, sorry, I don't see how $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac {B_n z^n} {n!}$ comes into the pic...Oh, I am so frustrated!!!
Also, I don't get your hint of $\begin {pmatrix} n + 1\\ k \end {pmatrix}$
@HarryEvans You see how that $\sum$ is supposed to be a fraction right? It's supposed to be $f(z)=\frac{z}{e^z-1}$. The Cauchy product involves multiplying by another function. What other function $g(z)$ do you think we're going to multiply $f(z)$ by?
Hint: $f(z)$ is expressed as a fraction. What do we tend to multiply fractions by?
Their conjugate?
SOrry, I'm so stupid
Just throwing random things here :'(
we tend to multiply top and bottom of a fraction by a conjugate
think simpler than though
like, solving $\frac{1}{2}x+\frac{3}{2}=-\frac{5}{2}$ simple
if you don't like fractions, what would you do to that equation?
by the denominator
right
multiply $f(z)=\frac{z}{e^z-1}$ by $g(z)=e^z-1$.
14:51
So, $g(z) = e^z - 1$?
mmhmm
you end up with $f(z)g(z)=0+1z+0z^2+0z^3+\cdots$ on the one hand
use cauchy product to figure out the taylor coefficients of $f(z)g(z)$ on the other hand
But isn't $f(z)g(z) = z$?
Oh, I see what you did there
yes, I explicitly said what I did there
:P
14:53
So we use a Maclaurin series representation for $e^z - 1$, is that correct?
Sorry I went away
That's OK, @Astyx
Arctic is surely better than me at explaining
If events A and B are mutually exclusive, and $P(A) = 0.75, P(B) = 0.02$, then $P(A and B) = 0.77$, right?
14:56
I shall try that
But, please stay there huhuhu
Sure
@SylentNyte The values of P(A) and P(B) are irrelevant. If A and B are mutually exclusive they can't happen simultaneously, so P(A and B)=0
$e^z - 1 = \sum_{i =0}^{\infty} \frac {z^n} {n!} -1$
@SylentNyyte, no it's 0
yea i thought so..
14:58
@Astyx huh?
@SylentNyte, no, since they're mutually exclusive $A$ and $B$ don't happen together
it just seemed a bit weird that he'd (ny teacher) give different examples of P(A) and P(B), yet keep them mutually exclusive and keep asking for p(a and b)
do you mean independent, sylent nyte?
no,
i mean mutually exclusive
lmao
So there's no probability of them happening together, $P(A \cap B) =0$
14:58
ooohhh
i think he made a type
because he included saying that P(A and C), and p(a) and p(c) are independent
well, ill answer the questions assuming he made a type
typo*
thanks for helping
@SylentNyte if you answer a question assuming they worded it incorrectly, say so. another possibillity is that it's a trick question.

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