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03:00
@user400188 I have a backpack. One of the things inside it is a notebook. You know what "one of the things in [blah]" means.
so {1}∈{1,2,3} would be allowed but not {1,2}∈{1,2,3}?
@user400188 no
1∈{1,2,3}
{1}⊆{1,2,3}
{1,2}⊆{1,2,3}
∈ means εlement
that's just going to confuse him/her more
what did I say?
I am almost certain I have a textbook that uses ∈ fior element or subset
03:05
element yes, subset no
I have the book here with me now but I'm still looking for an instance where it is used
@user400188 then that book doesn't follow the conventions that we use
just because something's in a book doesn't mean we all agree with it
the conventions I'm telling you about are almost universally accepted. either you're misremembering your book or your book is some combination of ancient or foreign.
well anyway. I will use ∈ for element and ⊆ for subset or element now. Thanks everyone.
@user400188 ⊆ is subset not element...
03:07
cannot a single member of a set be considered a subset of it?
no
apple is not a subset of {apple, oranges}
apple is not a set at all
but DHMO you just wrote {1}⊆{1,2,3}
{1} is a set
@arctictern hey
ah I see now
03:09
@user400188 {1}⊆{1,2,3} is true, 1⊆{1,2,3} is false, {1}∈{1,2,3} is false, 1∈{1,2,3} is true
{1}⊆{1,2,3} differs from 1∈{1,2,3}. Though it feels odd that the {} have such meaning.
@user400188 i like to think of sets as plastic bags
(but this analogy has problems on its own so don't view it as golden truth)
@user400188 actually, {1}⊆{1,2,3} and 1∈{1,2,3} are equivalent
! Thats what I was about to ask about
so do the {} on thier own give no new atributes to what is in them?
@user400188 we say that X is a subset of Y, if every element of X is an element of Y
03:11
{1}⊆{1,2,3} means every element of {1} is an element of {1,2,3}, and since 1 is the only element of {1}, that's equivalent to saying 1 is an element of {1,2,3}, i.e. 1∈{1,2,3}.
@user400188 that's right, it just says that it's a set
@user400188 no idea what you mean
@user400188 "is an element of" is something fundamental that cannot be defined
in the ZF theory, at least
darn
I wanted to know if |is an element of" and "is a subset of when the subset only contains 1 element" were defined differently.
"is an element of" is fundamental
the definition of "subset" doesn't care about the number of elements
so they are defined differently
in symbols (which would probably confuse you so just ignore it), we say $X \subseteq Y := \forall a: a \in X \implies a \in Y$
If $X$ only has one element, namely $b$, then $\forall a: a \in X \equiv a = b$
So $\forall a: a \in X \implies a \in Y \equiv \forall a: a = b\implies a \in Y$
have I gone too far @user400188
03:17
Whats the meaning of := and is ⟹ in this context meaning "implies" or soemthign else?
You haven't gone to far yet but it seems you are about to. Let me write all that down and work through it first before you continue
$:=$ means "is defined to be"
$\implies$ means "implies"
does it have the property a⟹b = $\bar a$+b ?
@user400188 I don't think you are supposed to know the definition of subset... that rigorously...
yes
Ok cool. Also I like to know things rigorously. And I don't have to know anything here becuase I'm doing this recreationaly.
oh, nice!
in that case, do you think you have enough mental power to go over the ZF axioms lol
03:22
I'd raryher wait till I understand the meaning of all the symbols first.
sure
For instance, does the : in ∀a:a∈X⟹a∈Y extend the whole way? i.e. ∀a: (a∈X⟹a∈Y)?
nvm, I think I got that now, f(A) is of course =f(A), thus f is indeed a bijection between A and f(A)
@user400188 ya, I was too lazy to put up the parentheses :p
@Secret hi, do you know how empty set is defined?
weird; if X does not exist then the statement flase ⊆ Y is true
or did I break something?
03:24
what do you mean?
@DHMO $\emptyset = \{a : a \not\in \emptyset\}$ ?
hey, that's circular
I wrote implies like this a⟹b = a¯+b and got: ∀a: (NOT (a∈X) OR a∈Y)
@Secret I mean in terms of the axioms, but I feel that it would also have to be circular
@user400188 yes, continue
then concluded that if a∈Y was false and so was a∈X. Then false ⊆ false.
Hang on; that actualy makes sense
03:28
9
Q: What is an Empty set?

Sufyan NaeemWe define the term "Set" as, A set is a collection of objects. And an "Empty set" as, An empty set is a set which contains nothing. First problem I encountered: How the definition of "Empty set" is consistent with the definition of "sets" if "Empty set" contains nothing and a "set" ...

It seems it is indeed defined as what I have wrote previously
(or you can use $\not\exists x : x \in \emptyset$
@Secret thanks, but as I said, I want to construct the empty set from the axioms
@user400188 have you confused "a∈Y" with "Y"?
still; if I instead had a∈X was false and a∈Y was true I would get false ⊆ true which is weird.
"a∈Y" being false doesn't mean "Y" is false
Ah yes your right I have
von neumann or what axioms?
03:29
@Secret ZF
when I right Y I mean a∈Y.
@user400188 then how can you say false ⊆ true?
In many popular versions of axiomatic set theory the axiom schema of specification, also known as the axiom schema of separation, subset axiom scheme or axiom schema of restricted comprehension is an axiom schema. Essentially, it says that any definable subclass of a set is a set. Some mathematicians call it the axiom schema of comprehension, although others use that term for unrestricted comprehension, discussed below. Because restricting comprehension solved Russell's paradox, several mathematicians including Zermelo, Fraenkel, and Gödel considered it the most important axiom of set theory. ...
Isn't that axiom basicallty set builder notation?
@Secret yes
By writing; a∈X = False, a∈Y = True
then X⊆Y := ∀a: False OR True
Since the false coresponds to X and the True Y I get
false ⊆ true
03:32
In axiomatic set theory, the axiom of empty set is an axiom of Kripke–Platek set theory and the variant of general set theory that Burgess (2005) calls "ST," and a demonstrable truth in Zermelo set theory and Zermelo–Fraenkel set theory, with or without the axiom of choice. == Formal statement == In the formal language of the Zermelo–Fraenkel axioms, the axiom reads: ∃ x ∀ y ¬ ( y ∈ x ) {\displaystyle \exists x\,\forall y\,\lnot (y\in x)} or in words: There is a set...
wait I made an error one sec
ok I felt like the above link will confuse user400188 because $y \in x$
@user400188 no, the "false" does not correspond to "X".
actuakly I think I am ok with $\in$ and the other one having different meanings depending on the disipline now
You cannot replace "X" with "false"
"X" is a set
"false" is a logical state
@Secret I'm talking to you, not wiki
03:34
I replaced a∈X with false. AKA a is not an element of X
also there is a missing negation in that above thing I wrote
@user400188 then you cannot replace $\implies$ with $\subseteq$
I dont think I did. But if so where would I have done it?
@user400188 you said "$a \in X \implies a \in Y$", and then said "false $\subseteq$ true".
you changed the middle symbol as well
$\subseteq$ is for sets
oh no; what I did was write a∈X⟹a∈Y and changed it to NOT(a∈X) OR a∈Y
don't you see that you wrote " false ⊆ true"
03:37
then when I followed that through to the definition of ⊆ I got what you were talking about
its shoul;d actualy be true ⊆ true becuase I forgot one negation
you're still misusing the symbol ⊆
one sec
X⊆Y means that ∀a:(a∈X⟹a∈Y)
if you wrote "true ⊆ true", that would mean "∀a:(a∈true⟹a∈true)"
Axiom of specification gives:
$\emptyset = \{u \in w | (u \in u) \wedge (u \not\in u)\}$
But I don't understand, aren't $u$ an element of some set $w$ thus one cannot write something along the lines of "u is (not) a member of u"
X⊆Y:=∀a:a∈X⟹a∈Y
To X⊆Y:=∀a:NOT(a∈X)+a∈Y
Then I substitute true for a∈X and true for a∈Y
which gives X⊆Y:=∀a:False+True
and then I am able to write false ⊆ true
03:40
@Secret in ZF everything is a set
@user400188 I do not see how the last line follows from the rest of the lines
Thats probaly where I made the mistake then
I jusrt wanted to know if it could be done really
ugh, I am obviously not good at set theory...
If instead I stopped at X⊆Y:=∀a:False+True
How would I continue on?
what would be the definition of X⊆Y in this case?
@user400188 I do not see what you are trying to do, nor why you are substituting true for a∈X and true for a∈Y
I did in fact do that
thing is a "implies" b is the same as NOT(a) OR b
03:43
yes it is
so one of the ture's becomes a false
oh sorry I read your comment wrong
I substituted them that way to see what happens. Just to get a feel for what the formula meant
@user400188 but there is a "for-all" quantifier in front
and it is not extraneous
@Secret then who is?
I left the for all there becuase I was unsure how to removed it.
@user400188 maybe you would understand the definition better if I translate it into English?
@DHMO alessandro, cause he is the only one who seemed to be able to talk about CH and AoC stuff confidently?
03:47
@Secret ok
Ok; go ahead
@AlessandroCodenotti I don't understand how the empty set can be constructed from the ZF. They claim that I can do it from Axiom of Infinity and Axiom of Subsets, but I feel that it would be circular, since Axiom of Infinity uses the empty set.
@user400188 X⊆Y ≡ ∀a:(a∈X⟹a∈Y)
"X is a subset of Y" means that "for any object a, (the fact that a is an element of X implies the fact that a is an element of Y)"
so in english; what does one do when a is not an element of X?
The rest all makes sense in english. Its just that one case
@user400188 what do you mean by "what does one do"?
how would I describe it or use it I guess
03:51
I don't understand your question
Perhaos it would be best phased in the following way:
sorry, be back in a moment
ah ok.
you can continue
What I am having trouble with is a⟹b can be written as $\bar a+b$. So in english it would translate to:
"X is a subset of Y" means that "for any object a, (a is not an element of X or a is an element of Y)"
03:55
yes
but if a is not an element of x then how is x an element of y?
they dont have the a in comon when read this way
is the second "x" supposed to be "a"?
no thats supposed to be an X. I am reading from the left hand side of the definition
you mean how is X a subset of Y?
Ah yes I mean that. Sorry that I made that mistake again
03:58
let's use an example to demonstrate the definition
X = {d,e} and Y = {d,e,f}
sorry, a moment
we see that X is a subset of Y
let us verify if indeed "for any object a, a in X implies a in Y"
or equivalently, "for any object a, a not in X or a in Y"
let us consider the object d, that is, when a=d.
we see that "a not in X" is false and "a in Y" is true, so the whole thing is true
let us consider when a=f, can you make a similar judgement?
not a in X is true and a in Y is also true
04:04
so the whole thing is still true
what about when a=g?
not a in X is true and a in Y is false but the whole thing is still true
nice
so we have verified that definition for this case, agreed?
@Secret are you interested in set theory?
not very much ,given I stil yet to get my head around infinite sets in munkres
alright
and my function proofs are stupid
04:07
I mean, we showed that is results in true for a few cases and I understand what the other cases will give if thats what you mean by verified
@Secret how can you be interested in bijection if you are not interested in set theory?
@user400188 yes, that is what I mean by verify
Thing is; proving a statement as a whole to be true doesn't seem to have the same meaning. The definition could have just been X⊆Y := True and we would have the same situation.
@DHMO Well, I only know just enough set theory to make sense of functions, but I have never get into the hardcore stuffs like $\sigma$ algebras, lesebegue measures yet. Also I have not reach the AoC chapter of Munkres thus technically I know nearly nothing about AoC
Is 2^n choose k always even?
@user400188 so let us deal with another case, when X={d,g} and Y={d,e,f}
proving it requires much rigor, which is why we are only studying some cases @user400188
just to understand the intuition behind the definition
@MikeMiller I believe so
though proving it would require some discussion on the number of 2 in prime decomposition
@user400188 can you prove that X is not a subset of Y?
04:12
@MikeMiller apply lucas theorem (or adapt a weaker version of the proof of lucas if you want to be elementary)
Unfortunately I'm not sure how I would go about a formal proof of that, but the basics would be that X contains g and y does not so X is not a subset of Y
Student emails me asking why there's equations on the sample quiz for this week which haven't been covered in class
@user400188 you just did a formal proof
kind of
$n!$ is always even for $n\ in \mathbb{N}$ as you always will multiply 2 somewhere. Since even*any=even and 2 is even, it follows that all factorials are even
Reply: Sure, they haven't been covered in this course. That's because this is the second semester of the course, and those equations were a huge part of first semester.
04:14
@user400188 so can we agree that the definition is not equivalent to "X subset Y := true"?
The extent to which students try to decouple first and second semesters of intro physics always amazes me.
@secret but 2^n choose k is not the same as n!
@user400188 so do you have any questions?
I have not finished yet as my thinking ran into a roadblock
@Secret so am I correct that your primary interest is in algebra?
04:16
Yes, specifically properties of elements in an algebra
and their geometric implications, if any
Nearly every interest of mine (except for quantum stuff) all have one common goal in mind: They help in worldbuilding
In particular, weird algebraic structures allow me to rationalise alien geometries
So...you use a human creation to figure out what aliens might create? :)
You might as well said everything I learnt (except quantum stuffs and chemistry, which is perhaps the only genuine interest that is not tied to scifi) all feed back to creating scifi and making sense of anything that people call weird
Ok one question:
For the case in which X={d,g} and Y={f,h} and we let a=d.
in such a case, if a is made to be f
X⊆Y comes out as true
no darn it i subs wrong again
Such aim also means I tend to ask about very weird things because I use those weird things to understand how normal the normal things are.

In particular, pathological counterexamples often help me to visualise the nice results in some theorems
congratulations @user400188
04:22
it is strange that X⊆Y=True when X does not have any common element s with Y
@user400188 I don't agree?
but if it were asked as a question: is X⊆Y? the answer would be true when X does not have any elements in common with Y
ok back to the problem: Well, $2^n$ choose $2^n$ is $1$ which is odd, thus we have a counterexample
I don't think so @user400188 consider X={d} and Y={e}, then X is not a subset of Y
@Secret obviously you have to pick k not trivial
04:24
if we let a=e in your case
then a is an element of Y is true and therefore the statement as a whole is true
@user400188 you forgot that we require the statement to be true for all a
ah
Now I see the mistake I was making. Thank you
well at least now I will know the definition well.
nice
I hope I didn't tire you all out. Thanks again though.
@user400188 so do you have other questions?
04:30
only unrelated ones
go ahead
uh, $2^n-k$ can be odd or even, and for $(2^n-k)!$ it must be even as all factorials contains $2$ except $0!$ and $1!$. Now $(2^n-k)! < (2^n)!$, and permutation is defined as ${}^mP_r=\frac{m!}{(m-r)!}=m(m-1)(m-2)...(m-r+1)$. Plug $m=2^n$ and $(m-r)=2^n-r$, then the even term $2^n$ always survives, thus $2^n$ choose $k$ is always even for $k\neq 2^n$
well, I was told somewhere that = and ≡ are different. Somewhere else I was told that $\leftrightarrow$ and = are the same.... Then I was told in another place that ≡ and $\leftrightarrow$ are the same. Obviously one of these definitions is wrong or out of context.
@Semiclassical @arctictern are you familiar with set theory?
I want to know how they differ and if any are the same
04:32
@DHMO what's your question
@arctictern construction of empty set from ZF axioms
@user400188 context matters much
same. I don't know how the empty set is constructed in ZF, and more importantly I'm not really interested in it.
ok thanks
04:35
@DHMO Indeed. I suppose what I want to know the most is how they differ in set theory or logic.
@user400188 in set theory only = is used to denote equality of sets
in logic = doesn't mean much, and $\equiv$ and $\iff$ are equal
(you can occassionally see logic in set theory and vice versa)
thats why I asked for both
so are we clear
hmm; so lets say I have a function and its domain and range match another function but they differ in shape. Can I then write they (along with their function definition) are equal?
there sets would match
@Secret @MikeMiller the elementary abelian group $\Bbb Z_2^n$ acts regularly on itself, and this induces an action on the set $\Gamma$ of $k$-subsets of $\Bbb Z_2^n$. under this action of $\Bbb Z_2^n$ on $\Gamma$, the only time there can be an orbit of size $1$ is when $k=2^n$ (quick exercise). otherwise, all orbits must be even, hence $|\Gamma|=\binom{2^n}{k}$ is even.
04:38
you moved to another context @user400188
its a bit of a grey area for me becuase i was introduced to sets with function definitions
@user400188 their domain and range are equal but the functions themselves are not
I see. That basicly answers the question.
Although in set theory is there a different meaning for $\equiv$?
not that I am aware of
I've heard it read out as "defined as" But I don't see the difference between this and =
I see
04:41
well, = is for objects
triple bar would be for statements
I used triple bar for the definition of subset above
I noticed
thats what put the question in my head
I'm also a bit confused about the difference between object and statement. They seem the same.
a statement can be true or false
and an object cant?
pretty much
I fear I have always read "object" as "a statement about the object"
or a statement about its existance
04:44
hmm...
i dont know about this then
it's a strange distinction; and I don't think I will ever know the difference.
anyway. Thanks again for the help @DHMO @arctic tern. I'll be heading off now.
bye
@arctictern thanks
05:36
I am not very sure if my proof is rigorous enough, however
@Secret You should write your math images in LaTeX
One problem is I tend to mix up orbits Gx with the (insert name if any) gx, since the latter corresponds to the intuitive meaning of orbits and trajectories (i.e. g pushes x around in the set)
Let $g,x,y \in G=Z^2_n$ and $x$ in k-subset of $G$. Then:

Given regular action
$gx=hx=>g=h $,
$gx=y$ unique $x$

$Z_2$ means $a(ax)=x$ for some $a$ in $Z_2$, and $a(x)=e$ or $x$

$Z_2^n$ means for all $s \in G$, $s(sx)=x$ and $s(x)=y$ or $z$ and there is a $t \in G$ such that $t(y)=x$ or $y$.

The case $t(y)=y$ corresponds to an orbit of period 1 (fixed point)

while the case $t(y)=x \implies y=t(ty)=t(x)$ corresponds to an orbit of period 2 (transposition).

For $k=2n$, $t(x)= y$ or $x$ for all $y,x \in G$. Thus $t(G)=G$ and is a fixed point. Hence all orbits are fixed points.
I think the reason $Z_2^n$ has this property is not because that its action on itself is regular, but because every element in it is an involution wrt one of the $Z_2$ (in particular, local identities are trivially involutions). That ensures you have period 2 orbits
But I might be wrong because of how I tend to mix up orbits and gx
it's the transitivity that's important. let $\Gamma$ be the set of $k$-subsets of $\Bbb Z_2^n$. if $X\in\Gamma$ is a fixed point, then $X$ is a $k$-subset of $\Gamma$ stabilized by $G=\Bbb Z_2^n$, which means it's an orbit of $G$ acting on itself which means it must be $G$ itself which means $k=2^n$.
your sentence "every element in it is an involution wrt one of the Z_2 (in particular local identities are trivially involutions). That ensures you have period 2 orbits" means nothing to me
05:57
@akiva hola
sabes ZF?
estoy tentando de construir el empty set de los axiomas
Your proof is a lot cleaner, and you let the collection $\Gamma$ that takes account of all possible $k$ subsets

For that sentence you highlighted. I am trying to describe the following observation in the klein 4 group:
The red boxed always give me an impression that they "looks" like $Z_2$ in isolation
you'd also get that if you arranged it as e b a c, or as e c a b for that matter.
the klein four-group is just Z_2 x Z_2, after all.
This might be related to the "adjoining an identity element" that arctic tern discussed a month ago

Semiclassical: and yes
I don't know how to describe the red boxes (and the other boxes that can be obtained according to semiclassical's suggestion on the rearrangement). They are not really $Z_2$ but they have a table that look the same as $Z_2$.
and then one just has the further fact that Z_2 x Z_2 / Z_2 ~= Z_2
the Klein four-group contains the Z_2 subgroup <b>, so one can quotient by this (getting Z_2 again).
The same should work for any Z_{2n}.
06:14
Can we say : $$\int_0^{\lambda}\left|\frac{A\sin(at) + B\sin(bt) + C\sin(ct)}t\right|dt \sim K\log(\lambda)$$
06:55
When doing $Z_2 \times Z_2 / Z_2$ I got the cosets {ee,ea}={e,a}, {ae,aa}={a,e}, {be,ba}={b,c} and {ce,ca}={c,b}, hence the set of all cosets {{e,a},{b,c}}. Then I am not sure what to do next to show that the elements {e,a} and {b,c} behave like those in $Z_2$
6
Q: What is a coset?

frogeyedpeasHonestly. I just don't understand the word and keep running into highly technical explanations (wikipedia, I'm looking at you!). If somebody would be so awesome as to explain the concept assuming basic knowledge of group theory and high school algebra I would be delighted.

Ah I see, so that's why those red boxed things popped up everywhere. They are cosets
So that means, all of these boxes (and more have not highlighted) are cosets and this is $\mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$
07:11
hello
Quotioning this by $\mathbb{Z}_2$ I get {{1,7},{2,3},{5,6}} which is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_3$
Quotioning by $\mathbb{Z}_3$ I get {{1,2,5},{3,6,7}} which is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2$
But then, this group is different from the other one on top, but not at the level of cosets and quotient groups, so what exactly is the difference in terms of some group structure?
hmm... their subgroups are different, but isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_3$ (Underlying set {1,2,5} vs {7,2,5}) is this the only difference?
07:40
hi chat
How to learn to type in latex form ?
08:18
@KasmirKhaan Put math between dollar signs and look up the symbols you need, for example using detexify or the not so short introduction
hi tobias
I know few things to do , but where can i find all commands?
am very slow at typing , sometimes i dont post questions because of that
@KasmirKhaan That is just a matter of practice
most commands are listed in the introduction, and as I said, there is also detexify which can be good for looking up a specific symbol
introduction where?
other than that, if you can describe what you want to do in words, there is usually a question already answered on the tex stackexchange
the not so short introduction to LaTeX
Okay thank you Tobias :)
08:31
I think @Calvin Lin is fat.
1690
Q: MathJax basic tutorial and quick reference

MJD To see how any formula was written in any question or answer, including this one, right-click on the expression it and choose "Show Math As > TeX Commands". (When you do this, the '$' will not display. Make sure you add these. See the next point.) For inline formulas, enclose the formula in $......

@robjohn Thank you John :)
Hey guys, I need some help on how to find injective functions between two uncountable sets. Specifically, Munkres Ch. 1 Section 7 Q7. Since in Q6, I have proved the Schoeder Bernstein theorem, and in Q7, by inspection, the set $E \subset D$. I know the first step in solving Q7 is to find an injective function from $D$ to $E$ so I can use the theorem in Q6a.

I first attempted to map all functions in set D that has the image set {0,...} where the rest of the elements are not necessary zero to the subset of functions in E that has image sets {..,x_i,...} where $x^i=1$ and the rest are zeros
$D$ is the set of all functions $\mathbb{Z}^+\to \mathbb{Z}^+$ and $E$ is the set of all functions $\mathbb{Z}^+ \to \{0,1\}$. both are known to be uncountable
09:14
Suppose I don't use cardinal arithmetic, how can I get an injective function from D to E (as I cannot even use the diagonal elements since there are as many of these as the enumerations)?
09:38
Ok let $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ and $c \in \{0,1\}$. Then $D=\{f|f: a \to b\}$ and $E=\{f|f: a \to c\}$. In $D$, for each $a$ I have countably many choices of $b$ and in $E$, for each $a$, I have 2 choices of $c$. It is known that $D$ and $E$ are uncountable.

For $D$, I can also consider the domain to be a union of subsets $K_n=\{f|f: a \to \{n,n+1\}\}$. by recursively define $\{n,n+1\}$ and start with $\{0,1\}$ as the base case. Then there are countably many such $K_n$. Since $D=\bigcup_{i\in \mathbb{Z}^+}K_i$ and a countable union of uncountable sets are uncountable, $D$ is uncountable as
Have you done exercise $3$ yet?
10:03
$\mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)=\bigcup_{k \in \mathbb{Z}^+}S_k$ where $S_k$ are $k$ subsets of $\mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$. I can thus map all $1$-subsets (which there are $|\mathbb{Z}^+|$ many of them) to the sequences $\{...,x_i,...\}$ where $x_i=1$ and all the rest are zeros, $\{...,x_i,x_j,...\}$ for $2$-subsets (which there are $|2\mathbb{Z}^+|$ many of them, the same as $\mathbb{Z}^+$ because a bijection can be established between $\mathbb{Z}^+$ and $n\mathbb{Z}^+$, for all $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$)
@Secret No, the powerset does not have that form
That is the least intuitive attempt at this question I've ever seen, probably.
I thought power sets are set of all subsets, thus $\mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$ must have k-subsets from the emptyset all the way up to the $\mathbb{Z}^+$ itself?
(NB Munkres have not said much about power sets before section 7. other than it is a set of all subsets, and said that the name for the power set will be justified later (which I suspect is in this question)
The definition as the set of all subsets is plenty for this question
10:10
@Secret there are n(n-1)/2 many 2-subsets of a set with cardinality n
Let $A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}^+$.
For any $z \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, either $z \in A$ or $z \notin A$.
That's a pretty big hint on solving the exercise.
@SteamyRoot I don't understand why his bijection is invalid
oh, I understand now
@Secret you assumed finite support
you never accounted for the set {1,3,5,7,9,...}
O yes, forgot there are many infinite subsets of an infintie set with same cardinality...
@Secret finite support is how you can prove that 2^omega = omega...
the apple quarterly is in 10 hours. I'm excited
10:15
ew, apple
it's okay
I'm expecting a bust
@Secret there's a proof that forall S: |S| < |P(S)|
@DHMO Yup, it's theorem 7.8 in Munkres
@Secret it is on proofwiki as well
10:56
Define a function $h$ as follows: Given any subset $M \subset \mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$ $M=B_i\cup A_i$, for some $i \in \mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$ where $B_i \subset A^c$ and $A_i \subset A$. Then by induction from $0$ to $\omega_0$, step through each entry of the subset $M$. If the nth entry is in $A$, then the nth entry in the binary sequence ({x_i}) becomes 1, otherwise it is zero.

By doing this, all subsets of $\mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$ will be labelled by a unique sequence (in particular $\emptyset \to (0,0,...)$, $\mathbb{Z}^+\to (1,1,...)$. All $k$-subsets will map to $(...,\{x_i
11:08
Elaboration: this includes sequences where consecutive entries not necessary zero, thus accounting for all the infinite subsets that are not $\mathbb{Z}^+$ itself
The above proof can be generalised to show bijective correspondence of $\mathscr{P}(\mathbb{Z}^+)$ and $n^{\mathbb{Z}^+}$ ($n$ countable) by partitioning $\mathbb{Z}^+$ with $n$ subets $A_j$ such that any given subset $M=\bigcup_{j \in n} A_{ji}$ and $A_{ji}\subset A_j$
sorry typo: $\omega_0$ should be $\aleph_0$
11:36
However the above strategy will not work for Q7 because a tuple can have repeated entries (unlike sets). It is clear there are countable choices I can make for each entry and there are countable entries, but how should I cram the countable choices into binary sequences?
Hello, In this article from wikipedia titled "Algorism" (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algorism) I don't know what this means? does it mean that Abu Jafar made one as 1, two as 2, three as 3, etc is the way he means or something else
@YOUSEFY an example:
33+28 is 61 because: add 8 and 3 to get 11 and carry the one to the left, now add 3, 2 and the 1 from before to get 6. The result must be 61
At least thats how I understood what the article is talking about

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