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17:02
I meant, if we have a sequence ${u_{b}} \in H$ where $H$ is a Hilbert space which converges weakly (i.e. $u_{n} \to u$) and $|u_{n}| \to |u|$, then $u_{n} \to u$ converges strongly? The answer here is false for a Banach space, but what about a Hilbert space?
$u_{n} \in H$*
I wonder, what does a generic substitution look like in integration. There are so many cases where a substitution works but there seemed to be no easy way to tell why
Meanwhile, for any given integral, one can find its corresponding differential equation that it obeys by letting $y=\int f dx$ and then differentiate and rearrange the integrand
17:16
These differential equations are then separable by construction
In the complex field, are i and -i symmetrical?
it boggles my mind to know that they are symmetrical...
What do you mean with "symmetrical"?
What do you mean by symmetrical ?
it means, for any equality, if we exchange i and -i, we get the same thing
um, $z=i$ is certainly not the same as $z=-i$.
17:21
@Semiclassical well, what i meant is that both statements can be true
Well $(-i)^2 = i^2 = -1$ and this is in some way the definition of $i$
@DHMO Not at the same time, they can't.
So yes, you could flip the complex plane around the real axis and do everything you could without any problems
Then it what sense is that any different from $z=1$ versus $z=2$?
@Semiclassical you have a point
17:23
But you have to be consistent, that's all
maybe I should say that, for any equality without variables, you can swap i and -i and get another equality
and the truthfulness of those equalities will be the same
Well, $i$ and $-i$ is just a choice.
I think what you have in mind is that, as @astyx indicates, one can do complex conjugation of all entries in an equation.
That's only because conjugation is compatible with all usual operations
17:24
@Astyx i'm looking for unusual operations
What he probably wants to say that is that complex conjugation is an R-automorphism of C
Indeed, the only interesting one
@BalarkaSen what does that mean?
The only nontrivial one
:P
That's what I said
;)
Sneaky!
17:25
@DHMO Google is your friend!
The Schwarz reflection principle comes to mind as well.
It's a field automorphism fixing a subfield
@BalarkaSen what are the non-interesting ones?
> It is, loosely speaking, the symmetry group of the object.
Geometrically speaking, In some way that means you can measure angles in the trigonometric or non trigonometric way without changing anything of your results
In that it gives a simple condition under which you expect $F(\overline{z})=\overline{F(z)}.$
17:26
identity automorphism
but is there some unusual... oh!
arg(i) = pi/2
why does symmetry break for this one?
Alternatively, Im(i)=1.
In some sense that's the same as asking why multiplying any equality by $-1$ gives you another equality
Because flipping the real line around doesn't change a thing
17:27
The reason it fails for the arg and im functions is because they're not analytic functions of z.
Take the function on C which gives 1 for i and 0 for everything else.
@Semiclassical hmm...
Hence there's no reason that $F(\overline{z})$ should give the same result as $\overline{F(z)}$.
And also because these functions are not uniquely defined by the reals @Semi @DHMO
Point.
Im(z) and -Im(z) give the same result (zero) on the reals.
17:29
modulus is symmetrical right
Re(z) is also symmetrical
but it isn't analytic
Obviously you can define symmetrical functions that are not analytic, eg $1-\chi_{\Bbb R}$ (where $\chi_A$ is the caracteristic function of $A$)
Yeah.
So the prescription I gave above isn't enough.
I doubt there is a converse implication
17:31
Yeah.
any more?
Depending on what you mean, $f(z)=1+i z$ may work. Then for instance $f(i)=0$ but $f(-i)=2$.
@Semiclassical analytical function need not satisfy F(\bar z) = \bar F(z) either? Like, f(z) = iz. f(\bar 1) = i and \bar f(1) = -i.
hmm... so we need to find another metastructure
Yeah. The reflection principle further demands that $f(z)$ be real on the real axis.
17:34
I think $\Bbb R$ has to be stable by $F$ probably
@Semiclassical That's not what the reflection principle says. It extends f defined on one side of a domain symmetrical about R to the other side.
In any case if the Taylor expansion of f has real coefficients it should work
That might be linked that $\Bbb C$ is algebraicly closed for multiplication. In the same way you can chose either $1$ or $-1$ in $\Bbb R$ without changing anything with addition ?
At least in a neighborhood of 0. By termwise complex conjugating.
Eh. Is there an analytic $f(z)$ which is real on the real axis but for which $\overline{f(z))}\neq f(\overline{z})$?
Oh. By demands, I mean "it doesn't apply if f(z) isn't real on the real axis."
Premise, not conclusion.
That's an interresting question though
17:37
No, by what I said., not by reflection principle. Write down the Taylor expansion.
I guess you could reflection principle it too, along with identity theorem. But this is much simpler.
Hey, I never said I was being simple :P
Hello
But yes, Taylor series is enough.
Do all analytic functions that are real on the real axis have real coefficients ?
Hi @Dattier
@Astyx that's interesting...
17:40
$f(z)-f(\overline{z})$ would be i times a Taylor series with real coefficients in that case.
Hullo @Ted
Salut, @Astyx
In which case I think it could only be real if it's identically zero.
@Semiclassical nice
I think so too, but I don't know enough about analytic functions to be sure about it
17:41
It's only nice if i'm not missing an obvious counterexample :P
Semi C is correct
@Astyx I think yes, you can show that with the conjugate.
Oh, Balarka exists
Otherwise it has a non-discrete zero set
So the only taylor series that is identically 0 is the series of which the coefficients are 0 ?
17:42
Analytic functions have discrete zero set
@TedShifrin I exist, therefore I think.
4
ponders
@BalarkaSen why?
@Astyx Yes.
is it correct that $ Z / Z = Z$ ? where Z is the integer ring
17:45
No.
@Liad No
heya @Alessandro :)
Hi @Alessandro
it is 0?
17:45
Hi @Astyx
@DHMO Look in any standard complex analysis textbook. It's a version of identity theorem.
What do you mean by 0?
$\{0\}$, yeah in some sense
What astyx said.
More like $\{\overline 0\}$
17:45
Au revoir
@BalarkaSen alright
Bye
what confused me is $ Z/Z = \{ z + Z : z\in Z \} = \{Z\} $ because if $g \in G$ then $g + G = G$
Zero set of any nonzero analytic function, I meant
where is my mistake?
17:47
$\{Z\}$ is not the same as Z
There isn't one
huh!
right.
it is the zero of the $Z/Z$ qutient ring. thanks
@TedShifrin What does the Chern-Gauss-Bonnet theorem say?
You're welcome
There's a boundary version, but the compact case says that the integral of the Pfaffian of curvature is an appropriate constant times $\chi$ for an oriented even-dimensional Riemannian manifold.
17:50
Hmm
@BalarkaSen Are you saying that inanimate objects don't exist?
@s.harp I am not an inanimate object, last I checked!
@s.harp is saying inanimate objects don't think.
Yeah, but "I" literally means I.
Not everyone and everything in the world
[Differential equation] Solve for w
$$x^2 w^{(4)}-xw'''+(1-n^2+x^2)w''-2xw'+2w=0$$
To be continued...
17:53
I have open a answer, and I want to know, what's the problem with this subject : "Does a compact metric space, been isometric to a part of a finite-dimensional real vector space?"
@Secret $w$ is a function of $x$ I suppose
a question
@DHMO It is
I like to know
You're lacking a verb, are you not @Dattier ?
17:54
@Secret that's... interesting...
@Astyx Yes I am not english
@TedShifrin Is the curvature matrix here the sectional curvature of each coordinate 2-plane in the tangent space?
I'm not exactly sure what you mean by that question @Dattier
That is a linear homogenous ODE of degree 4. I need to check whether I can find an integrating factor for linear ODE of degree n though...
No, @Balarka. That's only the $\omega_i\wedge\omega_j$ component of $\Omega_{ij}$.
Boundary values / initial conditions?
@BalarkaSen So your existence is conditional on your ability to think?
no boundary and initial conditions atm, I am interested in the general solution. Still working on it though...
@s.harp That's backwards to what I said!
17:56
@Astyx it's Jeopardy
Mathematica gives an answer for generic $n$ in terms of a multitude of hypergeometric $_1F_2$ functions. But it probably is different for integer $n$.
Huh I see your problem
just curious, there exist any infinite-dimensional compact space? please, don't judge me
It was "I have property: exists $\implies$ I have property: thinks"
and indeed Mathematica struggles if I take, for instance, $n=0$.
17:57
So if at any point you do not have the property: thinks you will not have the property: exists
@Dattier Do you by any chance mean : "Can a compact metric space be isometric to a part of a finite-dimensional real vector space?"
@Hiroto: Sure. An infinite product of compact sets is compact (in the product topology).
@Astyx thanks
Glad to help
@TedShifrin Thanks!
17:59
@s.harp Ah, I misinterpreted your use of conditional. Sure.
that sounds to Tychonoff's theorem
How does one prove that the space of bounded continuous real functions is complete ?
@TedShifrin Hm, I see.
@Astyx : an other problem here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2117467/customized-group and I don't know what is the problem
So what's the full thing?
18:00
With which topology? @Astyx
@Secret Actually, it looks like it has at least one nice solution: Namely, $w(x)=1-n^2-x^2$.
Oh yes I forgot, infinite norm (is that the terminology ?)
$\Omega = d\omega-\omega\wedge\omega$, where $\omega$ is the matrix of connection $1$-forms, @Balarka.
I hear it more often as the sup norm
@Daminark: Cuz you haven't done $L^p$ yet ;P
18:02
If I'm remembering right, that means you can do reduction of order in order to trade that 4th order ODE for a 3rd order ODE which doesn't have that solution.
That is true
Then the sup norm, thanks
That's the exercise that Alessandro figured out the other day.
It's odd that we're doing functional analysis first, then measure theory
And you never will really learn multivariable calculus well, which makes me very upset.
18:03
@Dattier Well it's true it's unclear what you're asking
@TedShifrin Makes sense
How do you translate from your native language to English ?
I proved Chern-Gauss-Bonnet (probably for submanifolds of $\Bbb R^n$) in several of my grad courses, @Balarka. Notes probably available if you want to learn more.
@Asty Jeaopardy 2
Yeah, when I'm not completely swamped I need to actually go through the material slowly, especially with integration
18:05
@Astyx Jeopardy 2, I have give an answer, and sorry
Like, we spent some reasonable amount of time on differentiation
@Secret Oh, and so is $w(x)=x$. So that gets you down to a 2nd order ODE.
Huh, translating sentences word for word is often not the way to go
@TedShifrin I'll probably have to get more comfy with moving frames before getting into that stuff. And I'm a lazy bum, so that'd take some time: I'll nag you when I want this stuff!
On the note of being a lazy bum, I should type up some notes on what I've been doing.
18:06
Well, I taught all the moving frames stuff in the course(s), obviously. But you should still do those exercises on surfaces.
Speaking of, I learnt the Frobenius theorem that day (not the proof, reading through Lee to understand it better)
Good, Balarka, now you need to use it to do interesting things.
@Astyx yes my english is poor, and I use google
You should use sentence translators (even though it's best to know the language you're speaking in)
@Dattier tu es francais?
18:08
oui
Comme tout le monde visiblement
@Dattier tu peux parler francais ici... non?
Pas tout à fait, Astyx.
Super
En première approximation, disons @Ted
18:10
grand erreur :)
@Dattier une question... quand on dit "grand erreur", on fait [gran.terreur] ou [gran.derreur]?
Le titre que j'aimerais donner est "un groupe sure mesure"
Grande erreur @DHMO
@Astyx ok
@Astyx C'est ce que j'ai dit au début, et puis je l'ai changé :(
18:12
Je ne peux pas parler français ?
Et il y a un "e" car c'est "une erreur"
@Dattier sure?
C'est une des raisons pour lesquelles le français est emmerdant :) @Astyx :P
je suis aussi nul en orthographe
mais aprés pour "sure" c'est une faute de frappe
Et le Français aussi ? @Ted
:p
18:14
Hey everyone!
@Astyx interesting... in Latin and Spanish, "error" is masculine
@Dattier aprés?
Hey @Perturbative
toi, @Astyx, bien sûr :)
Bien sûr :)
@Dattier Et donc c'est quoi un groupe sur mesure ?
18:15
(Ugh, it's 5:15, will continue on the investigation of that ODE later...)
J'avais comme titre initial : "un groupe sur mesure" "a cutomized group", qu'est-ce qui ne va pas avec ce titre
Ah ok, dans ce sens là
@Secret Did you see my comments before?
I see two algebraic solutions to that ODE.
@Dattier pourquoi "erreur" c'est feminin?
So you should be able to reduce that to a second order ODE.
18:16
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2117467/customized-group c'est un groupe que l'on peut choisir à l'avance et qui permet par exemple de résoudre les équations diophantiennes à puissances
I know how to prove that the given metric induces the usual topology on $\mathbb{R}^n$, take $x \in U$ to be open in $(\mathbb{R}^n, d)$, and show that there exists an open ball with respect to the new metric that lies inside $U$
And do the converse for $(\mathbb{R}^n, d')$
@DHMO Because it's feminine in latin I'd say
@Astyx it is masculine in Latin
and also in Spanish
decimos "un error"
c'est etrange
My bad
ne riez pas (svp) et je suis sérieux dans ma question : êtes vous des génies ?
18:19
Loin de là
Enfin pour ma part
To do that one needs to relate the two metrics and find an $\epsilon > 0$ such that $B_{(\mathbb{R}^n, d)}(x, \epsilon) \subset B_{(\mathbb{R}^n, d')}(x, \delta) \subset U$ for $\delta > 0$
For the above $\epsilon < \frac{\delta}{\sqrt{n}}$ works
@Astyx et @DHMO lors qu'en pensez-vous (de ma question sur les groupes sur mesures) ?
alors
Que en soit tu ne poses pas de questions
"alors"
Tu as un énoncé auquel tu réponds, on ne sait pas ce que tu demandes
18:21
For the converse we need to find an $\epsilon > 0$ such that $B_{(\mathbb{R}^n, d')}(x, \epsilon) \subset B_{(\mathbb{R}^n, d)}(x, \delta) \subset U$ for $\delta > 0$
@Perturbative: Have you said what $d$ and $d'$ are?
@TedShifrin $d$ is the standard euclidean metric
J'ai tout précisé, me semble-t-il, dans le lien mis dans la question.
Et tu peux modifier tes messages avec la flèche haut de ton clavier au lieu de reposter les mots
But strangely for the converse $\epsilon < \frac{\delta}{n}$ works
18:23
growls @Perturbative ... And $d'$?
I assumed they would algebraically be the inverses of each other.
ok, merci
Bah non, on sait ce que tu fais, mais on ne sait pas ce que tu veux
This is geometry, not algebra, @Perturbative.
je n'ai pas compris
peux tu donner un exemple
18:24
@TedShifrin $d'(x, y) = |x_1 - y_1| + ... + |x_n - y_n|$
Ah, ok.
But relating the two metrics is nothing more than an algebraic manipulation? I assumed they would be algebraic inverses of each other.
Grossièrement ton message est structuré de la façon suivante :
Énoncé : montrer que blablabla
Preuve : puisque machin, alors truc, donc blabla
Il n'y a pas de question en soi
Would it help to have $d''(x,y) = \max\limits_{i=1,\dots,n} |x_i-y_i|$?
No, @Perturbative. It really is geometry, not algebra.
j'ai motivé mes questions par ce texte :
I prepare a difficult competition (for me), the strategy I decided to use, is to prepare a lot of exercice, to be able to propose them, to the juries.

For now, my level for problem solving is not up to the challenge, and I would like to improve this level by the solutions you will want to bring to these exercices. Indeed to know a solution even intuitive, allows me to better understand the solutions proposed, and even in some cases to have solutions I would never have thought otherwise.

The diverse origin of the mathematicians of this site, allows me to hope that this phenomenon (to have
18:26
Hi @AndrewT
Hi @TedShifrin. How are you?
Pretty well, thanks, @AndrewT, and you?
Je n'ai vu ce texte nulle part dans ton post
je l'ai mis en lien
@Astyx: nulle? :P
18:27
@Dattier alors que doit-on faire?
@TedShifrin I wouldn't think so, it's not that I'm stuck on it or anything, it just seemed weird to me that the algebraic inverse of $\epsilon$ didn't pop up for the converse. But as you said it's geometry not algebra
@TedShifrin Quite well. Been stuck on the same problem for a few days now which is always a tad depressing.
@Ted nulle.
@DHMO @Astyx Lol, are you guys still discussing linguistics?
@AndrewThompson Aw :-(
18:28
@Andrew: I spent most of my graduate life and career stuck on things for months on end.
Il me semble que tout est expliqué dans mon petit texte
@Astyx: We're even now :D
@AndrewThompson In the end, it feels so much better though, trust me :-)
I just can't figure out why "erreur" is feminine.
Ah oui, les gens ont tendances à ne pas cliquer sur les liens. Autant demander directement des conseils sur la façon de prouver les choses
18:29
@DHMO: As I complained earlier, there are some rules, but often it's random.
@Ted Since when did this become a competition ? :p
@TedShifrin no, often it corresponds to the Latin gender
@Astyx: Since your regained your health :)
@DHMO: Since Latin has neuter, that won't go far.
@TedShifrin but "error" is masculine the last time I checked
@Astyx ok admettons le, et là quel est le problème : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2113635/…
18:30
So I should have told you every single mistake you ever made in French since then ? If only I'd known .. :p
@Astyx: Gender issues concern me less than syntax/grammar, but in general I would like to know if I mess up.
Tu t'es contenté de mettre un énoncé sans expliquer ce que tu as tenté ni ou tu en es dans le problème
Mais c'est des énoncés que j'ai fabriqué
Je le dis bien dans le petit texte
sauf si google m'a trompé
@Ted very well then :)
En soi je ne sais pas trop pourquoi les questions sont fermées, personnellement je n'ai jamais eu de problème avec ça (cela dit j'ai posté seulement deux questions)
@Astyx: On ne discutera plus de mathématiques.
18:34
??
Je ne comprends pas ta réponse (si elle s'adresse à moi ) @Astyx
Guys, there are any subspaces for $\ell^{2}$ such that $H_{s} \subset H_{t}$ such that $s < t$ for $0 \leq s, t \leq 1$
?
@Dattier Je suis en train de dire que je ne peux pas vraiment t'aider parce que je ne sait pas ce qui motive la fermetures des questions (sinon que certains OP se foutent vraiment du monde parfois)
@Ted C'est un peu triste en soi, non ?
C'est l'impression que j'avais (pour les OP)
Moi, je ne suis pas triste.
o/
18:38
o/
Greetings, @Danu.
@Ted C'est gentil ça ..
And @Krijn.
o/
18:38
@TedShifrin D: You broke the trend!
Hey @Ted
Good, @Simply.
I got through most of my work for the weekend today already :D
So I can take the evening of
@Krijn Congrats!
18:39
@Dattier :p
I don't know how you manage to work
:p = lol ?
Speaking of work... Do you wanna help me understand something small, @Ted?
I'm not necessarily good for much, @Danu. But you can try.
yup @Dattier
18:40
It shouldn't be too crazy
yup=yes ?
yup
So consider an almost Hermitian manifold $(M,J,g)$. Usually one talks about the form $\omega(-,-)=g(J-,-)$ but the paper I'm reading (this one) instead uses the bivector $F$ defined by $g(F,\alpha\wedge\beta)=g(J\alpha,\beta)$ (so the dual of $\omega$).
Gotta go now, bye all
Bye, Astyx.
@Danu: Why do they mess with inducing $\tilde g$ on $\Lambda^2$? Seems unnecessarily abstruse.
18:43
La réponse yup=non marche aussi (avec tes seuls réponses pour l'instant)
Now consider the Levi-Civita connection $\nabla$. It's a short calculation that for any $\alpha,\beta\in T^{1,0}$ (the $+i$ eigenspace of the complexified tangent bundle $TM_{\Bbb C}$) and $X\in TM_{\Bbb{C}}$ $g(\nabla_X F,\alpha\wedge\beta)=2ig(\nabla_X \alpha,\beta)$ and $g(\nabla_X F,\alpha\wedge\bar\beta)=0$.
@Danu Fluo ?
@TedShifrin ...I guess we'll get to that soon enough.
I'm not going to think about this, @Danu. I just don't have the desire.
I hadn't posed my question yet! :P But okay.
18:45
I can't think through all this.
What's up?
Nothing. Just no patience for thinking.
Probably time to take a break from here.
Hmkay..
@Danu : c'est bien toi (Fluo) ?
@Dattier Non.
18:46
Ah
Bonne soirée (même à Fluo... :p)
@Wojowu you there?
hi, in ideals, is it correct that if $R $ is commutative then $(a,b) = (c) $ iff $c = r_1 a + r_2 b $ i need it for something, and i almost sure it is correct, could someone say if im right and explain?
it turns out, trying to prove that $\forall n \in \Bbb N:\forall S: |S| = n \implies |\mathcal P(S)| = 2^n$ is a pain in the butt
Why does $1+z+z^2+\cdots$ converge whenever $|z|<1$?
@DHMO Because the partial sums converge
@SimplyBeautifulArt how do you know?
oh, limit!
18:59
$$1+z+z^2+\dots+z^n=\frac{1-z^{n+1}}{1-z}$$
O_O lol
thanks
@Liad No, that only implies that $c$ is in that ideal

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