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18:00
Why did so many people not like this question.
Oh, I see now.
That it's tagged as 'geometry' for no apparent reason probably doesn't help :/
Still, I feel bad :(
Yeah, that's weird.
I don't see any reason to be rude to that person, but it's a question that should get closed.
0
Q: Wave equation on infinite line with piecewise $2\pi$-periodic i.c.

Jessy CatI need to solve the following p.d.e.: $\begin{align} u_{tt}(x,t) = a^{2}u_{xx}(x,t) & \,\,\,\, -\infty < x < \infty, \,\, t>0 \\ u(x,0)=0, \,\,\,\,\,\,\,& u_{t}(x,0) = g(x), \,\,\,\, -\infty < x < \infty \end{align}$ $\text{where}\, g(x) \, \text{denotes the}\, 2\pi-\text{periodic function ...

People love to be rude on MSE. It makes them feel slightly less not smart than they think they are but would never actually tell anyone.
Could you explain to me the meaning of a transitive group action?
18:03
Group Actions is in my next chapter :(
@JessyCat instead of \, \, \, use \quad or \qquad, ie $a\quad b$, $a\qquad b$
"People love to be rude on the internet"
@s.harp sorry.
I had forgotten about those tags
no its just a comment, you will save yourself effort
I think part of it is that there's so many bad questions that show up on main that it's easy to get jaded by it
18:05
It just got real now
Yeah, I probably shouldn't do that...
@Semiclassical I think after a while most people just browse the titles of the main and only actually open questions if they are in the tags they follow or have an interesting titlte
I try not to be an arse on main, but I don't necessarily spend time explaining why certain questions are a bad fit
It's a lot quicker to do a close vote than a comment
Not something that is necessarily good but eh.
@MaryStar a group action (of $G$ on $X$) is transitive if starting from any point $x\in X$ you can "get to" any other point $y\in X$ via the action of $G$
ducks Please don't ban me.
18:07
Sometimes you see a question that looks interesting but it's written in a way you can't really understand it
ie for all $x,y\in X$ there exists a $g\in G$ with $g\cdot x = y$
There are some people I'd like to give that card to ;P
And they're not my aunt.
@AlessandroCodenotti That question sounds like nonsense to me
@JessyCat Glancing at that question, separation of variables seems like a nice fit.
The title sounds like its from a random generator
18:09
@Semiclassical even so, D'Alembert's is probably easier.
I just don't know how to make sense of that $g$
It's probably not interesting.
Possibly. I tend to fall back on tools I know how to use, though.
to me too as it's written right now, but it's not from a new user so I guess there is a sensible question that was supposed to be asked there? @Balarka
A good number of my edits nowadays tend to involve making the title be actually descriptive
Sometimes English is just so painfully obviously not their first language, and people write snarky comments and downvote because they don't like the grammar.
18:10
This math.stackexchange.com/users/398545/vachoh?tab=profile id seems also attached with @KanwaljitSingh, It seems that he has many fake ID for voting purpose.
I actually saw an example of this the other day.
Which answer would you choose if you have 5 answers under your question all saying exactly same thing ? eg math.stackexchange.com/questions/2086428/…
Hello Roberto.
@JessyCat I tend to flag such comments for being rude or not constructive.
I commented back and mentioned that the guy's first language is obviously not English and that they should give him a break.
So many Sheldon Coopers lurking...
18:12
Ah ok... In my notes there is the following:
$S_3=\{ id, (1 \ 2), (1 \ 3), (2 \ 3), (1 \ 2\ 3), (1\ 3\ 2)\}$.
The subgroups are: $id, S_3, \langle (1 \ 2)\rangle, \langle (1 \ 3)\rangle, \langle (2 \ 3)\rangle, A_3=\langle (1 \ 2 \ 3)\rangle=\{id, (1\ 2\ 3), (1\ 3\ 2)\}$.

Why are all the subgroups generated by one element?

Also why are only the $S_3$ and $A_3$ trasitive?
@Alessandro I guess
I think that, if it's clear there's a language barrier, it's appropriate to edit the question for clarity.
@SemiC Do you know any physical examples of things that aren't smooth? That are only like C^3 or something?
Not a bad idea.
Step functions are an obvious one, though that's not even continuous.
18:13
@robjohn, So, he math.stackexchange.com/users/401635/kanwaljit-singh is banned finally. Thanks SE.
@MikeMiller solutions to the heat equation in presence of shock waves etc
Nice.
@s.harp got it
@s.harp maybe you could take a look at my pde question. bats eyelashes
My counsel would remain separation of variables.
18:14
Just because I can talk a bit about where PDEs are used and how they look like doesn't mean I can do anything with them ;)
@MithleshUpadhyay No he just got a small suspension .
You probably know how to take care of a piecewise boundary condition that's given to be $2\pi$-periodic
An integral transform technique might also work, though the two approaches are not incompatible.
actually, it's an initial condition
Pretty much every example in that section was done with D'Alembert's formula after it was derived.
Hmm, fair enough.
18:15
But there are no examples anywhere with that kind of an initial condition.
@A---B , However, I caught him. ;)
I don't actually remember D'Alembert's formula so I probably can't say much.
@MithleshUpadhyay What he did ?
the trajectory of a body with elastic collisions is continuous but not $C^1$
That wasn't supposed to happen
I meant to edit it not delete it!
18:17
@Alessandro Not even differentiable, is it?
like path of a particle in a brownian motion
All I want to do is evaluate $\displaystyle \int_{x-at}^{x+at}g(z)dz$ when $\displaystyle g(x) = \begin{cases} -1 & -\pi < x < 0 \\ 1 & 0 < x < \pi \end{cases}$
@A---B , He has multiple IDs to vote himself. You can check him. He was asking and answering on same post then voted himself(But, I don't know).
18:19
and $g(x)$ is $2\pi$-periodic
@MithleshUpadhyay I don't know what people gonna get by earning some rep.
How do I split that up?
The most direct route I see is casework.
It certainly won't get them a degree in maths.
@Semiclassical explain
18:20
For instance, if $x-at>0$ then $z>0$ on the domain of integration.
In which case, you're intergrating $1$ over an interval of length $2at$.
And similarly if $x+at<0$.
@JessyCat the way I would do it is to take the fourier transform of $g$ (let it be $\mathfrak g$) then the equation becomes:
$\tilde u_{tt}(k,t)=-k^2\tilde u(k,t)$ (which is the harmonic oscillator) with boundary condition $\tilde u(k,0) = \mathfrak g(k)$
I wish i knew @Semiclassical there isn't an answer in the back of thebook for this one
Where things become tricky is if $-at<x<at$.
But even there it's just a matter of being careful.
In that case, you're integrating $+1$ over some interval and $-1$ over another interval.
So it's just the difference in the two lengths of the intervals.
$\tilde u_{tt}(k,t)=-a^2k^2\tilde u(k,t)$
i missed the constant
but thats really as far as my pde knowledge goes^
18:23
I suspect for $-at<x<at$ it'll just be a linear interpolation between $f(x=at)$ and $f(x=-at)$.
Nevermind. Okay, so let $u(x,t) = U(\alpha,t)$ (I like my notation better). Then, $u_{tt}(x,t) = a^{2}u_{xx}(x,t)$ becomes $U^{\prime\prime}(\alpha,t) = -a^{2}\alpha^{2}U(\alpha,t)$
Then, the i.c. becomes $U^{\prime}(\alpha,t) = G(\alpha)$
@MithleshUpadhyay He is pretty good at making fake IDs.
But, that doesn't particularly help much.
@A---B , Not good for his future.
I need to integrate $g(x)$
18:26
@MithleshUpadhyay I am not in this life going to pointed it out.
But, I guess I really don't understand the limits of integration. I know you tried to explain it to me @Semiclassical but I didn't understand
I have a $\Delta K<0$
I mean, I have a cold :(
(I probably messed up the equation)
I'd say hahaha, but it's not funny to be sick
18:28
$U(\alpha,t)=\sin(a\alpha t)\, G(\alpha)$, where $G(\alpha)=-\frac1{i\alpha}(1-e^{-i\alpha\pi})+\frac1{i\alpha}(e^{i\alpha\pi}-1)‌​$ I think
Not sure what there is to understand. For any given $x,t$ with $t>0$, you integrate $g(z)$ from $z=x-at$ to $x+at$.
Yes, but on each ofthe branches, what are $x-at$ and $x+at$?
if z mod 2pi is between 0 and pi, g(z)=1. if not, it's -1.
What?
when I integrate say, -1, I'm integrating it from what to what?
You can't say what x-at and x+at are. They'll be different for different points.
18:29
@AkivaWeinberger What's $K$
So, I just leave them in there like that?
Yeah. However, I think I was misleading above: The periodicity of g(z) makes this trickier than I realized.
Shouldn't I at least plug something in for $x$?
No. Your result will depend on x, t. (It had better, or this won't be a solution for all x,t.)
You may have to split it into some cases, but at the end of the day the solution must work for any x,t you plug in.
If I integrate $\int_{x-at}^{x+at}-1 dz$, I get $-2at$
For $1 dz$, it's $+2at$
18:33
Yeah. So if the entire interval $[x-at,x+at]$ is between pi and 2pi mod 2pi, then that's what you'd get.
The problem is (and this is what I hadn't taken into account initially) that's by far the exception rather than the rule.
Why I said that about plugging in something for $x$ is that it's $2\pi$ periodic, so I thought I should be able to make the integral for $-1$ between $-\pi + at$ and $-\pi - at$
I think you can do that for $x$, yes. But that still leaves $t$.
Anyway, what do I add the two integral results together now?
what are we doing?
A tedious integral which is harder than I realized. @MikeMiller
18:35
But then the solution is zero :(
/peaces out
You're not hearing me.
Suppose you pick $x=\pi/2$. Then if $at<\pi/2$, you have $0<x-at<z<x+at<\pi$ for all $z$ in the domain of integration.
So in that case you'd have $g(z)=1$ and therefore the integral would just be $2at$.
Oh, so it's going to be a piecewise solution!
18:37
However, if $at>\pi/2$, then the domain of integration extends outside of $[0,\pi]$
@BalarkaSen Wait, that should probably be $T$. (I was thinking Kelvin but that doesn't make sense)
So therefore it starts picking up negative values and decreasing.
...but then again, if $at>\pi$, you'll again start picking up positive contributions. And so on.
So it's a piecewise, periodic solution?
Yeah, in some manner. But I'm not sure what the best way to get it is.
I mean, the description I just gave was for $x=\pi/2$.
But that should be true for any $x$ on each of the intervals given.
Regardless of what $x$ is, it does not actually appear in the answers for either of the two integrals.
They cancel out.
18:40
My point is largely that I'm not sure I know how to do it explicitly.
Not without some headaches.
Hence why this direct approach, while valid, may not be the simplest.
So, I'd think the answer would be $u(x,t) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{2a} (-at) & \text{for}\, -\pi < x < 0 \\ \frac{1}{2a}at & \text{for} \, 0 < x < \pi \end{cases}$
It's dependent only on time, not on space, except in the sense of periodicity
Could be right. I really don't know.
Hm... it seems to make sense.
one thing I can say is that $u$ should vanish identically along the lines $x=n\pi$ for integer $n$.
It's not homework. I'm not getting graded on it. I'm just doing problems in the book to try to learn, so I'll sit on it for now and move on. If someone answers me in the next couple of days, great. If not, if I haven't had to either take my exam or figured it out on my own, I'll put out a bounty.
That doesn't seem to happen for my solution
18:44
Yeah.
why should it vanish? It should definitely be constant along those lines...
The reason I say that it should do that: First, the solution should be periodic in $x$. Additionally, I think the solution should be symmetric about the line $x=\pi/2$ since $g(x)$ itself is.
So I think I can focus without loss of generality on the case $x=0$.
In that case, we're doing $\int_{-at}^{at}g(z)\,dz$ with $g(z)$ being an odd function of $z$. But that integral is therefore zero by symmetry.
And in which case the whole darn $u$ is identically zero
because of the ic on $f$
Which would be the stupidest problem in history.
I think that's a bridge too far.
I don't see how it being zero along $x=n\pi$ would lead to it vanishing everywhere.
Is there a name for a plot where on the left you have contours and on the right you have images of those contours? Like showing how exp maps lines to circles or whatever
18:47
Using D'Alembert's formula, that's what it comes out to: $\displaystyle u(x,t) =\frac{1}{2} \int\left[ f(x+at) - f(x-at)\right] + \frac{1}{2a}\int_{x-at}^{x+at}g(z)dz$
oh right
Fixed now
Does alternate segment theorem work if chord and tangent intersect externally?
Just to check---$f=0$ identically here?
Crap. hold on
the formula's right except for the integral part in front of the f's here
I figured. But $f(z)=0$ here since $u(x,0)=0$.
$\displaystyle u(x,t) = \frac{1}{2}\left[ f(x+at) - f(x-at)\right] + \frac{1}{2a}\int_{x-at}^{x+at}g(z)dz$
Yes, it is identically zero
So, the first part vanishes
So all I need to worry about is how to evaluate $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2a}\int_{x-at}^{x+at}g(z)dz$
18:51
Right. My claim above was that, if $x=0$, then $u(0,t)=0$.
(for $t>0$, at least.)
To establish that, we need only note that $u(0,t)=\frac{1}{2a}\int_{-at}^{at}g(z)\,dz$ is the integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval.
So that doesn't affect the validity of my answer?
Which answer?
I'm saying that that's a necessary condition for your solution to satisfy in order for the integral to have been done correctly.
13 mins ago, by Jessy Cat
So, I'd think the answer would be $u(x,t) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{2a} (-at) & \text{for}\, -\pi < x < 0 \\ \frac{1}{2a}at & \text{for} \, 0 < x < \pi \end{cases}$
except the a's can cancel
18:55
The problem is, suppose you consider $u(\pi,t)=\int_{\pi-at}^{\pi+at}g(z)\,dz$.
do you need to label the angles in a polar plot?
Suppose I make the substitution $w=\pi-z$.
That puts the integral into the form $\int_{-at}^{at}g(\pi-w)\,dw$. (there's a minus sign from the coefficient of z, but this cancels against a necessary flip of the limits of integration).
Okay...
Thing is, what's the behavior of $g(\pi-w)$?
If w is between $0$ and $\pi$, then so is $\pi-w$. So $g(\pi-w)=g(w)=1$ on that interval.
Well, $g$ is $2\pi$ periodic, b ut since we don't know what $w$ is, we can't figure out how $g$ should behave there
Oh, okay
Then, if $w$ is between $-\pi$ and $0$...
19:01
Well, a helpful observation in that case is that $g$ is odd, so $g(\pi-w)=-g(w-\pi)=-g(w+\pi)$ due to the 2pi-periodicity.
so if $-\pi<w<0$, we indeed have $0<\pi+w<\pi$ and therefore $-g(w+\pi)=-(1)$.
So, $g(\pi - w) = -1$ in that case
Right.
So you've shown that $g(\pi-w)=g(w)$ for $-\pi < w< \pi$.
The overall thrust of this is that $g(w)=g(\pi-w)$ for all $w$.
This isn't so hard to believe if you think of this graphically.
So, what does that mean in terms of the whole problem?
Anyways. That means that $u(\pi,t)=\int_{-at}^{at}g(\pi-w)\,dw=\int_{-at}^{at}g(w)\,dw$. That's the same integral we had earlier, and it once again vanishes.
So, we're no further along than we were before
19:05
So $u(\pi,t)$ is also identically zero, just as $u(0,t)$.
Oh, so the solution is periodic
In $x$, yes.
What's interesting is the problem in the book that follows it.
It should also be continuous in $x$ for all $t>0$, since we're ultimately computing areas of functions.
Suppose $u(x,t)$ satisfies $u_{tt}(x,t) = a^{2}u_{xx}(x,t)$, $-\infty < x < \infty$, $t > 0$
19:07
(that's a bit of a poorly argued statement on my part, but eh. details.)
$u(x,0) = f(x)$, $- \infty < x < \infty$, $u_{t}(x,0) = g(x)$ $-\infty < x < \infty$
Show that If $f(0) = f(L) = 0$ and $f(x)$ is $2L-$periodic and if $g(x) = 0$ for all $x$, then $u(0,t) = u(L,t) = 0$ $\forall t$
From what you just said that seems to be what's going on here
Yeah, except the boundary conditions are different.
except $g(x)$ is not identically zero
right
19:09
Huh.
$f$ is
I think a crucial point is that, if you look at $g(0)$
Wait a minute
We have that $\sigma=k_1k_2\ldots $, where $k_1, k_2, \ldots$ are disjoint cycles of $S_p4, where $p$ a prime.
Then we have the following: $$p=ord(\sigma)=lcm \ (ord(k_i)), \ i=1, 2, \ldots$$ Why does this imply that $ord(k_1)=p$ ?
The next problem after that is when $f$ is...hold on . Ther
there's a solution
If $g(x)$ is odd and periodic with period $2L$, then $u(0,t) = u(L,t) = 0$.
19:11
...which is what I was concluding. So I'm evidently not crazy.
No. I've got the monopoly on that, I'm afraid.
But I'm freaking adorable, so it all evens out.
That obviously doesn't solve your original problem, but it does set some strong conditions on it.
right.
My (educated?) guess is that you'll end up with $u(x,t)$ a sawtooth wave in $x$.
Holy crap
19:13
piecewise linear and periodic in $x$
A bunch of people just got shot in fort lauderdale at the airport
no word on how many victims yet, other than 'multiple'
It's not even clear of those how many have died
19:15
Heck of a coincidence to have Bush's former press secretary on site. (I say that as a genuine coincidence, not in a conspiracy-theory way)
He was probably just snowbirding it.
Figured he'd go to Florida to avoid the cold. I guess I have no idea where that guy lives.
Sounds like he was at the airport when it happened.
He was.
He tweeted about it
Anyway, thanks for all your help.
I'm going to transcript this and get back to work.
Sad $$\Huge \ddot \frown$$
Try to prepare as best I can :( AT least he gave us a list of topics.
One of them was to derive D'Alembert's
19:17
@SimpleArt Yeah. Apparently I'm a rep hog.
Probably won't have to do any problems like this, but I don't like coming across a problem I can't do.
I tend to get bogged down in the details and stuck like molasses for hours.
@GFauxPas This is wonderful
What is?
what did I do
What you linked, I think yesterday
what did I link I dont remember
19:24
"Some Commonly Used Terms"
oh lol that was someone else I was just sharing it
Still it's great
@TheGreatDuck Lol, ok then
19:54
@JessyCat I just realized that there's a much simpler way to handle that integral, so much so that I feel silly.
Namely, while it's a pain in the butt to work out on what intervals $z\in[x-at,x+at]$ will give $g(z)=\pm 1$, it's not at all hard to write down the antiderivative of $g(z)$ is.
Who knows Harnack inequality ?
For $0<z<\pi$, it'll be $G(z)=\int_0^z g(z')dz'=\int_0^z dz'=z$. For $\pi<z<2\pi$ it'll be $G(z)=G(\pi)+\int_\pi^z(-1)dz'=\pi-(z-\pi)=2\pi-z$. After that it just repeats with period $2\pi$.
And then the solution is just $u(x,t)=\frac{1}{2a}\left(G(x+at)-G(x-at)\right)$. Simplifying that is a pain, but easy enough to plot
@SimpleArt nah i mean it's a pretty serious issue.
For $a=1$, I get this picture:
x-axis is [-pi,pi], t-axis is [0,2pi]. (u-axis is marked as [-2,2] but should have been [-1,1]; I plotted the wrong thing.)
(I don't know why it has those annoying missing lines.)
20:14
Pretty
Yeah. I just don't like the missing lines.
And it does that for contour plots as well, which is even less attractive.
@Semiclassical dafuq u talkin bout willis
seriously though i ust downed a shot of buffalo grass vodka in the weee afternoon
but lets see what trhis antiderivativey thingy yo udid was
ooh that is a 70s colored nightmare
I have a graphical way of deriving the same result as above, but it's more tedious.
20:17
start chatjax
...Was that an instruction to me, or to yourself? :)
to myself
heh, okay.
but let's take a look here. okay, but what is G(z)?
how can I check if an equationsystem with 8 variables and 4 equations has exactly one solution?
^arbitary numbers
20:20
$G(z)=\int_0^z g(z')\,dz'$. If $0<z<\pi$, that's just $G(z)=z$.
If $\pi<z<2\pi$, then that's $G(z)=G(\pi)+\int_\pi^z (-1)\,dz'=2\pi-z$.
And from there on it repeats period $2\pi$.
20:31
im really confused with using the quadratic formula im getting a different result for solutions of x compared to simply factoring my quadratic normally in that the formula is giving me the negatives for x
Example?
i have 2x^2 -5x +2 i factor that to be (2x-1)(x-2) so x is 1/2 or 2

using the QF i get -1/2 and -2
are you plugging b=-5 into (-b +- sqrt(b^2-4ac))/(2a)?
i was doing (-5 +- sqrt(9)) / 4
ah. yeah, it should be +5.
20:34
ohhh
silly me !
forgot it was -b d'oh!
happens to the best of us.
lets hope it doesn't during my exam xD
thank you
@MikeMiller What can one say about the group $[M(G, n), X]$ of (pointed) maps from the Moore space to $X$? The group structure comes from realizing $M(G, n) \simeq \Sigma M(G, n-1)$ and doing the same "pinching equator" construction like for spheres (which gives a map $M(G, n) \to M(G, n) \vee M(G, n)$)
20:49
Hi.
Okay .. Dead chat.
@Mahmoud Consider the second angle of that green right triangle.
on the one hand, it's complementary to the angle at the top (they belong to the same right triangle). but that same angle is also complementary to the angle at the bottom, since they're part of the same right angle.
@Semiclassical Thank you $\phi=\frac \pi 2 - \theta$
Where $\phi$ is the second angle,
So therefore both the angle at the top and the angle at the bottom are complementary to $\phi$. But if two angles are complementary to a third angle, they're equal.
or, more simply: if $\phi=\pi/2-\theta$ and also $\phi=\pi/2-\theta'$, then $\theta'=\theta$.
If you label the angle at the top as $\theta'$, that's exactly the situation you have above.
@Semiclassical Thanks, I don't know how did I miss that.
@AkivaWeinberger Finally got a nice contour plot:
20:57
My trigonometry class is a nightmare.
All the identities ..
It's easy to get lost in them, yeah.
To a certain extent it requires experience to see which ones are useful in a given problem.
For instance, in proving trig identities the sum-to-product identities tend to be more useful than the product-to-sum identities.
On the other hand, when doing certain integrals in Fourier analysis, the product-to-sum identities are quite handy.

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