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00:00
To show UC to zero, given an $\varepsilon$, you want to show that there exists an $N$ such that $|f_k(x)| < \varepsilon$ for all $k > N$ and all $x$ in the given domain
The key thing to note is that $\ln$ is monotone increasing, meaning each $f_i(x)$ is monotone decreasing. Notice that this means $\text{Sup}(f_k(x)) = f_k(1)$
Thus, it suffices to show that $f_k(1) \rightarrow 0$ as $k \rightarrow \infty$.
I want to prove that if the set $A$ is bounded then $f(A)$ is also bounded, where $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is continuous.

I have done the following:
We suppose that $f(A)$ is not bounded.
So, there is a sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ in $f(A)$ with $\lim x_n=\infty$, or not?

Since $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty} \in f(A)$ we have that $\{f^{-1}(x_n)\}_{n=1}^{\infty} \in A$.
Therefore, $\{f^{-1}(x_n)\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is bounded. From Bolzano-Weierstrass there is a convergent subsequence, let $\{f^{-1}(x_{n_k})\}_{k=1}^{\infty}$ with $f^{-1}(x_{n_k})\rightarrow y\in \mathbb{R}$.
thanks kaj !
so my answer was correct ?
It's a consequence of what you wrote. I'd add more detail @KasmirKhaan
i still have problem with such questions , specilly when proving that the convergence is not uniform
okay thanks @KajHansen
Or potentially $-\infty$ @Mary
00:05
@KajHansen Ah, so we have $\lim x_n=\pm\infty$ ?
One of the two, yeah
@KajHansen on this example f_k (x) = x/ (1+x^2k^2)
the answer in the book sais that we compute where this is maximum
ie when x = 1/k
but why they take that approch ? why proving it for x= 1/k ?
@KajHansen Ah ok. What do we get when we have a convergentsubsequence of a divergent sequence ?
That's an interesting idea you're trying to do @MaryStar. One problem I see is that $f$ might not be injective? That preimage set might be uncountable
Potentially salvageable though; let me think
@KasmirKhaan, that'll be where the supremum of all the function evals for all $x$ in the domain is at. If we want to show U.C. to zero, it suffices to show this maximum goes to zero as $k \rightarrow \infty$
By the same reasoning as in part A of the previous question
:34580772 The only information that we have for $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is that it is continuous.
00:12
aha okay thanks :)
I was thinking that if we had a larger set $B$
but if i showed it not for the maximum value
would that not be a proof for UC ?
Preferably simpler than $A$, and showed $f(B)$ was bounded
@Mary is $A$ closed there?
@AlessandroCodenotti No, just bounded.
00:16
That would be oh-so-convenient @AlessandroCodenotti. We'd have that uniform continuity
@SimpleArt have shown it also by an other way... Since $A$ is bounded there are the $a=\inf A$ and $b=\sup A$ and so $A\subseteq [a,b]$.
Then $f(A)\subseteq f([a,b])$.
Since the continuous image of a closed interval is a closed and bounded interval, we get the desired result...
Or even simpler: compactness
I think I'm missing some hypothesis there...
@MaryStar Doesn't that require $f$ be monotonic? (I'm bad with notation, so I don't know that sideways U)
I mean, surely you can have an unbouded continuous function $(0,1)\to\Bbb R$
00:18
$A \subseteq [a, b]$ not necessarily. we could have $A = [a, c) \cup (c, b]$, e.g.
@KajHansen And then this idea fails?
I think Alessandro is correct actually
(0,1) \rightarrow R given by $x \mapsto 1/x$ is unbounded.
And continuous on that domain
I'm not so sure. It has to be continuous $\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$.
Ohhh
Oops
You're right @SimpleArt
@KajHansen That isn't right
00:20
@KajHansen but if i showed it not for the maximum value
would that not be a proof for UC ?
You should let $A$ be a subset of $B$.
for some better set $B$...
Ahh, ok, so the statement to prove is that a continuous function from R in itself sends bounded sets into bounded sets?
Yeah, you'd need to find some other route, or maybe it's not UC at all. A good giveaway is when every f_k has an asymptote at some value, e.g. @KasmirKhaan
@AlessandroCodenotti Yes
00:21
@PhysicsGuy AH!!!!!!!!!
@AlessandroCodenotti Yes.
okay thanks ! :)
ill keep working on examples
@KasmirKhaan lol, ok
@SimpleArt Your visualization is good.
@PhysicsGuy Huh? You mean that one post?
2
Q: Make this visual derivative of sine more rigorous

Simple ArtIs this the correct way to make this visualization of the derivative of sine more... rigorous? At least, for $u\in(0,\pi/2)$. Borrowed from Proofs without words. To try to make this rigorous, I argued that when $u\pm\Delta u$ is in the first quadrant, that we have the following geometric...

00:22
If your set is bounded you can find a compact superset of it, since f is continuous it will send this into another compact set, which needs to be bounded
@SimpleArt Yes
Ah, I borrowed it
@AlessandroCodenotti How do we know that there is such a superset?
@PhysicsGuy Did you come here just to say that?
00:24
Think about the sequence of functions $x^k$ on the domain $[0,1)$ @KasmirKhaan. That's a classic example. Notice it converges to $0$ pointwise...
:P I'
I'm angry. I didn't reach 200 rep yesterday
Your momma's so fat, she can't be embedded into $/mathbbR^n$
And I'm the top user this year as far as rep :(
@PhysicsGuy Dang, harsh
@SimpleArt, it's gonna be hard with most colleges not in session right now. And that's insane.
@Mary call $A$ your bounded set and pick $[\text{inf} A,\text{sup} A]$
00:25
I hit the rep limit 15 or so times, most of them in my first couple weeks as a member here :P
@KajHansen What's insane?
#1 in rep lol
Stupid Brian catching up... I have school work to do you know
Damn, you've almost matched my rep while being a member here for almost 1/3 the time
Brian posts some real nice answers. You got competition there
@KajHansen I try to hit 300 rep daily
00:26
@AlessandroCodenotti This is closed and bounded, and so compact, right? And how do we know that f send a compact set into another compact set? How could we prove this?
cough
9
Q: Proving continuous image of compact sets are compact

Lindsay DuranHow to prove: Continuous function maps compact set to compact set using real analysis? i.e. if $f: [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is continuous, then $f([a,b])$ is closed and bounded. I have proved the bounded part. So now I need some insight on how to prove $f([a,b])$ is closed, i.e. $f([a,b])...

@MaryStar
Btw, you know some user on this site... like fleablood or somebody
>.>
For anyone who wants to stare at me for unhealthy periods of time.
Yeah, I've seen fleablood before
Ok, just wondering. My activity lets me see many things...
I'm surprised you vote less than 25% on questions
I bet that's 90% of my upvotes
@KajHansen I use up lots of votes on good answers.
00:30
@KajHansen for this $x^k$ on the domain $[0,1)$ , how to prove pointwise convergence? M_k = Sup ; x in [0,1) |x^n - ??? |
I upvote questions that show lots of effort or are crazy
lol, not quite. 63% of my votes on questions
@KajHansen does f(x) here = 0 in that domain ?
Basically, let $x$ be a number $0 \leq x < 1$
I have ~30% upvotes on questions
00:31
:|
so the Sup goes to 1 when k goes to inf ? @KajHansen
I guess I am just different
Notice that $x^k < x^{k-1}$ since multiplying a number by a number less than $1$ decreases the value @KasmirKhaan
Haha, and I still get rank #1 despite helping my competition daily...
Actually....a lot easier:
Let $x$ be in that range
$\sum x^n$ converges since it's a geometric series
00:32
yes that part i understand
Ah, ok
That gives you pointwise
because it does not go to 0 ?
the Sup of that difference i mean
Because it does go to zero. Any $x$ in that domain can be made to get arbitrarily close to zero by taking a high enough power of it
ahh okay :D
am mixing UC with pointwise
cya guys later, gotta eat
00:34
mhmm
so it does converge but pointwise :D
Exactly
It's sorta like the asymptote problem @KasmirKhaan for why UC fails
I'm going to sleep, have a nice day/night/whatever's the time where you are everyone
@KasmirKhaan, each function $x \mapsto x^n$ is gonna look something like that
Making $n$ higher will "pull" more of the graph closer to zero, but you're always gonna have that annoying asymptote thingy
(I hope chat is enjoying my skillz in MSPaint)
okay , i m gonna look for one more example of this
and gonna try to solve it alone
00:38
Good luck!
f_k = kxe^-kx^2 this is the one , show UC for x>=1
let me think and ill post what i do
thanks again kaj for all ur help! :)
please tell me if am thinking correct
lim k --> inf = 0
M_k = sup x>=1 abs ( kx / e^kx^2)
should i take derivative here?
The infimum of a given set of function evals is zero, I agree
I think the derivative will give you that the function is everywhere decreasing. That's useful information.
if i understood correctly when i take derivative ill find where the max of this is
mhmm, that's good
then when i evalutate at x= max
i show UC :)
iam working on it now ! looks like tuff derivative
00:43
mhmm, max \rightarrow 0 is sufficient for u.c.
i find that x= 1 / sqrt (2k)
+ or - that should give max
You can check that on wolfram
hmm i found it goes to inf
i think did derivative wrong ><
yeah am gonna do that :D
ohhh
i think i got it
since the function is decreasing its maximum at x =1
so it does converge uni to 0
Hi
What if the function diverges to negative infinity? #noContext
01:00
Back
Random curiosity to anyone who might see this. If one had a function that gave the number of prime numbers between 0 and x how useful would that be for solving things like legendre's conjecture. Note. I'm only curious if such a function is useful not how it would be useful.
@KajHansen Paint is a strong tool...
Paint's served me well over the years. If only there was a way to rotate selected stuff though :/
MS Paint is by far the most useful tool for a mathematically inclined individual. Many a time I've used it as random scratch paper.
That'd be notepad for me
01:04
@KajHansen you can.
just use the rotate tools in the ribbon while the portion is selected...
@KajHansen I definitely feel you
@TheGreatDuck Not any degree though
Sorry, I meant rotate by something that's not a multiple of 90 degrees
I think those're the options IIRC
Pretty sure you can
id have to look though
to be fair though
idk if paint even does that kind of rotation
Ever
@Semiclassical Hi!
Have you seen who's in first on the ranking this year?
8
A: How does a mathematician create a new zeta function?

Simple ArtUpdate: If one may recall the following series: $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{n^2+x}=\frac1{2x}+\frac\pi{2\sqrt x\tanh(\pi\sqrt x)}$$ Then differentiating both sides $k$ times yields $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{(n^2+x)^{k+1}}=\frac1{2x^{k+1}}+\frac{(-1)^k\pi}{2\times k!}\frac{d^k}{dx^k}\frac1{\s...

And just for you guys to look at
01:07
I don't pay attention to the leaderboard.
I'm still not done with the answer though, I need to get the nth derivative of coth(x)
Then I will be set
Interestingly, that series came up as a question earlier today.
Mhm
I saw
Had a limit with it too no?
01:09
Man, MSE is getting stomped by stackoverflow
by any chance does one actually have to prove the Riemann hypothesis to prove it?
@KajHansen Depends on your area of mathematics
is that in reference to something earlier in the transcript?
@TheGreatDuck Yes, by definition
of proving
isnt one of the possible proofs just to say there is a prime between and two consecutive logarithms or something?
01:11
@TheGreatDuck No :'(
i mean one doesn't have to actually show there are only zeros on the critical line right?
You must be thinking of the prime counting function
Just based on what you wrote, it sounds like you asked "Do you have to prove RH to prove RH"
i mean directly
@TheGreatDuck That litterally is the RZH
01:12
It is what it is.
This conversation is confusing me.
@SimpleArt I mean one doesn't have to actually prove just that anymore though. Aren't there other statements proven equivalent to it?
@Semiclassical My life?
despair.com
@TheGreatDuck I suppose...
I'd have to go back and check
just asking. Geez. Sorry.
There are some equivalent formulations of it, yeah.
01:13
no need to get upset
Not upset, we're just emphatic.
Nobody's upset
i just wasn't sure if it requires pure analysis of the zeta function
@Pissedofflayman And yet your name
(you mentioned zeta and it got me thinking)
01:14
oh hey
50
Q: Collection of equivalent forms of Riemann Hypothesis

Jon BannonThis forum brings together a broad enough base of mathematicians to collect a "big list" of equivalent forms of the Riemann Hypothesis...just for fun. Also, perhaps, this collection could include statements that imply RH or its negation. Here is what I am suggesting we do: Construct a more o...

@TheGreatDuck Well, they all go through the zeta function somehow
@SimpleArt would a rose by any other name smell as sweet?
@Pissedofflayman I would hope
There's a good number of answers to that MO question, so check it out
01:16
@SimpleArt true, but to us we might consider that relatively irrelevant.
shrugs
::cries:: I need more rep
I'd like to break 400 rep this weekend in one day
preferably w/out bounties
i just thought there was one statement along the lines of "there is a prime between any two natural logarithms of consecutive integers".
Trying to decide whether to stare at this calculation some more or take a nap.
01:18
$e^{-ig(a^\dagger \sigma^-+a\sigma^-)}=?$
Dream about it
@Semiclassical Nap and ^
Meh whatever
i suppose legendres conjecture is close enough to that
just a weird thought
the brain works that way sometimes
$a^\dagger,a$ and $\sigma^+,\sigma^-$ are raising/lowering operators for the harmonic oscillator and a spin-1/2 particle.
01:20
It's been an hour and so, and I've only earned 45 rep
@Pissedofflayman ...
I'm disappointed in myself
@TheGreatDuck dreaming about math
There have to be functions $A(g),B(g)$ such that $e^{-ig(a^\dagger \sigma^-+a\sigma^-)}=A(g)a^\dagger \sigma^-+B(g)a\sigma^+$
@Pissedofflayman oh shut up.
So there should be a simple way find A,B.
i happen to have a useless function that counts primes on a range
:p
might as well play with it
make it "useful"
I can even say that $\sigma^+ e^{-ig(a^\dagger \sigma^-+a \sigma^+)}=A(g)a^\dagger \sigma^+\sigma^-$ since $\sigma^+\sigma^+=0$.
01:23
@TheGreatDuck Say, you've gained quite a bit of rep since I last remember
Chat says hi to @MikeMiller
Hi @MikeMiller
12
A: Methods to compute $\sum_{k=1}^nk^p$ without Faulhaber's formula

Simple ArtFeel free to skip to the highlighted parts and the ending to see the formula in action. Suppose we had a continuous and differentiable function that satisfied the following equation: $$f(x,p)=f(x-1,p)+x^p,\quad f(0,p)=0$$ Differentiating with respect to $x$, we get $$f'(x,p)=f'(x-1,p)+px^{p...

This post is one of my favorites
And I even found it being used to close more basic questions
like "how to derive sum of k^3" and such
I am so proud :D
Did you win first place for the hats last year?
01:38
Collecting the most hats.
how would I know?
01:49
itonly took me like 2 hours to figure out why my graphs were having weird spacing
@GFauxPas GG
my lines were being mapped to the same circle in such a way that it was drawing over itself
so I made the line length from $-\pi$ to $\pi$
nope, still not perfect :(
eh no, that didnt really help at all. it was a good thought though
@Pissed No, two years ago
I tried last year but gave up at some point
I see.
how time flies :-)
02:08
guys look at my work in progress
you: sure, let's see!
it's what $e^z$ does to vertical lines
Simple apparently you're not impressed!
No, it is just strange
well let's think about why
if the real part is constant, $e^x e^{iy} = Ce^{iy}$
hm, except that looks ike a circl
e
02:15
@SimpleArt hi
@Ramanujan sup?
Yo my brother, sup! Nothing you?
Nice going
Is it first time?
I guess
Really hard
pressured to do 300 rep per day
for the entire year
that's my goal
but I am already failing XD
02:20
But 200 is limit
hm, I wonder what I'm doing wrong. are you sure I'm doing it wrong?
@Ramanujan Huh?
Not including bounties and accepted answers
That is how you get 300+
yes, it definitely should be circles, ugh
OK,good luck :)
And I'm done iwht my homework!
wow, my spelling...
"iwht" is how you say things
My godly skills
3
Q: Make this visual derivative of sine more rigorous

Simple ArtIs this the correct way to make this visualization of the derivative of sine more... rigorous? At least, for $u\in(0,\pi/2)$. Borrowed from Proofs without words. To try to make this rigorous, I argued that when $u\pm\Delta u$ is in the first quadrant, that we have the following geometric...

Please see the above :)
02:25
okay let me go through one contour at a time and see if its a circle
@SimpleArt ∆u →0 ?
@SimpleArt do you know about this?
found the mistake!
02:51
@robjohn Since you have answers on two of those posts, perhaps you will be willing to have a look and say whether it is better to merge or to close as duplicates in some direction: chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/2165/2017/1/5 Thanks!
03:46
anyone around and willing to help with some linear algebra?
specifically, how do you take the square root of a matrix?
@heather Do you have a specific matrix? Or is it for arbitrary matrix? What are the dimensions? Are eigenvalues positive?
@MartinSleziak, well, it was for the matrix $\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}$
Wikipedia article might be helpful: Square root of a matrix
ah, okay, thank you
that should help
Oh, this is basically taking the square root of $i$ in $\mathbb C$.
03:53
okay
I've never even realized you could do $\sqrt{i}$
i guess i've never thought of it.
the fourth root of -1
If you wish, you can also have a look at my answer here: Finding complex solution to $X^2 = A$
okay
thank you.
Another way to look at this problem - it is rotation with angle $\pi/2$.
And you want a linear map $f$ such that $f\circ f=R_{\pi/2}$.
The fact that this is a rather simple matrix makes things easier.
But in general for $2\times2$ matrices this should not be too difficult.
And of course, diagonalization should work here too.
04:30
I was going to guess Probability Fractions @TheSubstitute
 
1 hour later…
05:33
Since I am trying to get the bounty room going, perhaps a reasonable thing could be to promote it here. So here is link to the relevant meta post and here is the room.
And I will also repost this here - in case some differential geometer is around (I guess Ted Shifrin is not yet back):
in Differential Geometry, 25 mins ago, by zed111
Can you help me understand this: Why can't the points of the surface but not at the edge have a tangential speed?
05:50
What will be limit_t→0 t.In(t)
?
hi @Ramanujan
@KasmirKhaan hi there :)
@Ramanujan the limit of tlnt = 0
when t-->0^+
How to get it?
you can use the substitution x=1/t
t-->0 (+ )
means that x--> inf
05:59
Log(t)/x
So then?
tlnt = 1/x ln (1/x)
but ln (1/x) = ln (x^-1 ) = - lnx
so tlnt = 1/x ln(1/x) = -lnx /x
linear function will grow faster than logarthim
as x--> infinity
What is logx/x when x→infinity?
it is 0
06:04
Why?/how?
here you can set lnx = t , so ln x /x = t /e^t
i think you are looking for the proof of lim x--> inf ( x/a^x) = 0
@KasmirKhaan How do I calculate $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} x\ln x$ - and you can probably find a few similar questions on the main site. I found this one from Approach0.
Oh sorry, the above should probably have been addressed to @Ramanujan, since he asked the question.
Well, with that username, it is no surprise that I made a mistake about who is actually asking the question.
06:20
@MartinSleziak haha thanks anyway :)
and yeah ramanjuan would not ask such Q's
06:34
:P
 
2 hours later…
08:07
08:41
@KasmirKhaan easier would be x/x=1 for all values except 0. log(1)=0
Anonymous
Can someone please help me with this question math.stackexchange.com/questions/2085799/…
Anonymous
0
Q: What bounds should be chosen while applying Integration by Parts on Definite Integrals

Mystic Suppose $$f(x)= \int_{0}^{x}tf(t)dt$$ I apply integration by parts on the Right hand side. $$f(x)= \left[t\int_{lower?}^{upper?} f(t)dt\right]_0^x - \int_0^x\left(\int_{lower?}^{upper?}f(t)dt\right)dt$$ I cannot understand the lower bound and upper bound of the integrals (which I showed with qu...

Anonymous
Anyone here ?
in The h Bar, 1 min ago, by Doc
Onion Wheels - could be the next snack for physicists!
I like when fields mix
But can we rigorously mix fields?

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