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19:00
So I did get it right after all
And since $f$ is only defined on $[0,3]$, $x = |x| \implies h_2(x) = f(x)$
Maybe we are talking about the same subject after all.
I was talking about philosophy :/
Well, that changed quickly
I have a nice one
my program reached 240! but i have to go now
might try implementing some algorithms later
19:11
Consider $E$ to be a field of characteristic $p\neq 0$.
Now we look at $F={a^p|a\in E}$. One can easily show that $F$ is a subfield of $E$.
Now say $E$ is a finite extension of $F$
hey guys? Was wondering if there is a convergence value for $n*d^{n-1}$
where sum from n = 1 to infinity.
and $ d \lt 1 $
I want to show $[E:F]$ is a $p$. Now I can easily show that for $a\in E$, $a$ is algebraic over $F$ with degree at most $p$. But I can't figure out why it is precisely $p$.
@oneray I think $1/(d-1)^2$. Maybe.
@OneRaynyDay you are not asking if there is a "convergence value for nd^(n-1)," which is nonsensical. you are asking if sum nd^(n-1) exists.
and yes, just differentiate the geometric series term by term
@Studentmath are you sure it's precisely p? it seems if E=K(t,s), then F=K(t^p,s^p) has index p^2 inside E
also use \{ \} for curly braces in latex
ah I see... so what do you mean by differentiate the geometric series? I know that for this it's true: $\sum_{n=1}^\infty x^n = 1/(1-x)$
Thanks! Been trying to figure out how to do that. I used to recall..
19:19
@OneRaynyDay take the derivative of both sides
oh what the heck - gotcha
@arctic Sorry, you're right. $[E:F]$ is a power of $p$. I want to show that for every $a\in E$, it is either algebraic of degree 1 or $p$ over $F$ in order to prove that
Unless I am missing something.
suppose a is in E\F. then a is a root of (x-a)^p=x^p-a^p in F[x]. it must be irreducible over F, since (x-a)^r won't be in F[x] for any r<p.
The irreducible part is what I can't figure out - why won't it be?
any polynomial factor of (x-a)^p will be (x-a)^r for some r<p. but the second-to-leading coefficient will by ra (up to sign), which is not in F since r<p, hence (x-a)^r will never be in F[x] for r<p.
19:29
@Studentmath It's actually $ln(1/1-d)$
but I see where you got that from :)
@OneRaynyDay no. I told you to differentiate, not integrate
(so it is actually me who sees where you got that from)
But by differentiating on both sides, we don't get the correct answer, right?
@OneRaynyDay huh?
so like, we get the $d(answer)/dx = \sum_{n=1}^\infty x^n$
so shouldn't we integrate the result?
differentiating $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n=\frac{1}{1-x}$$ gives $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty nx^{n-1}=\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$$
19:31
just differentiating gives us the geometric series, where I got $1/(1-x)$
Oh holy derp - I see where I made the mistake
thank you embarrassed
@Arctic Oh I get it now. I was completely over-complicating it, thank you very much!
= p
@arctictern I just had to take that opportunity
$\cos(x+y)=\cos(x)\cos(y)-\sin(x)\sin(y)$, $\sin(x+y)=\sin(x)\cos(y)+\cos(x)\sin(y)$ Any intuition behind those ? I find them very hard to memorize properly.
@Daminark Thanks.
I can multiply complex numbers in my head, $(a+bi)(c+di)=(ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i$. Those identities are just the real and imaginary parts of $e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}$ (using the identity $e^{ix}=\cos(x)+\sin(x)i$). That's how I have them memorized.
19:41
well yeah, polar form is a lot easier to multiply than rectangular form
multiply the magnitudes, add the arguments
Trivial ! But very useful, I'm a fan !
@Mahmoud there are geometric proofs of them but they won't help you memorize the rule
@GFauxPas Yes, they suck, I've seen two of them,
well what you can do is write $\cos \theta = \operatorname{Re} \left({e^{i \theta}}\right)$
so $\cos \left({x + y}\right) = \operatorname{Re} \left({e^{i(x+y)}}\right)$
see if that helps you at all
expand out $e^{i(x+y)}$ and collect all real terms
Lol after seeing the total clunkiness by which Spivak defined trigonometry I've decided to just say screw it, I'm sticking with defining it through $e^ix$
19:47
real trig?
I'd rather Euler's formula be a theorem rather than a definition
if it's a definition it's less profound
I mean I tend to prefer defining sine/cosine by their power series
the approach I like best is
define it for triangles for $(0..\pi/2)$
then show how that's equivalent to the unit circle definition, with standard convention for signed distances
then prove $\dfrac {\sin x}{x} \to 1$ geometrically
that's enough to get you $D_\theta \sin \theta = \cos \theta$
and likelywise for cosine
then you make the power series
show error goes to zero
and then put $z$ in the power series and bam it's complex
@GFauxPas Can we also do $i\sin(x+y)=\Im(e^{i(x+y)})$ ?
why would you want to do that
19:51
I mena you can
Or no
but just multiply out all terms and pick the ones that are wholly real
Not $i\sin(x+y)$, the imaginary part is just $\sin(x+y)$
$e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}$
@GFauxPas To get the formula for $\sin(x+y)$
19:53
that's one way to do it, yup
And you can do \Re and \Im
For $\Re$ and $\Im$
that font looks ugly
for uppercase letters at least
fraktur
Unless I'm mistaken and there are for something completely different
they're synanomous, but I don't like how those letters look
I find them ... ancient.
My English vocabulary failed to describe them.
19:57
heh
"ugly"
Cannot be reproduced by hand
another reason why they're bad, yes
well $\frak I$ is just $J$ with a big top
I usually see lowercase fraktur
20:05
$\frak J$ is very similar to $\frak I$
20:23
1
Q: Show that Centralizer is a subgroup of Normalizer - Intermediate Step

Jessy CatI am in the process of proving that $C_{G}(H)$ is a normal subgroup of $N_{G}(H)$, where $C_{G}(H)$ is the centralizer - i.e., the set of elements $g \in G$ that commute with all $h \in H \leqslant G$ - and $N_{G}(H)$ is the normalizer - i.e., the set of all $g \in G$ such that $g^{-1}Hg = H$. I...

Group theory question this time. I know y'all know a lot about that.
Hello
2017 is the maximum number of slices you can cut a pizza into with 63 straight cuts :D
@JessyCat To show that $H \leq K \leq G$ it is enough to show that $H \leq G$ and $H \subset K$.
imo the most interesting property is 2017 is the smallest positive integer whose third root begins with all ten decimal digits without repetition
@GPhys Is that only with 2 dimensionnal cuts ?
correct @Astyx
2017 is not the maximum for any number of slices for the 3D equivalent
(known as a "cake number")
20:28
Is the other one a pizza number ?
no
Would have been fun :p
I've seen it called a pancake number, but the wiki page is something else
let me find it
Nice
@JessyCat if C(H) is a subset of N(H), and C(H) is a group under the group operation it shares with N(H) and G, then yes C(H) is a subgroup of N(H).
20:35
$2017 = 2 \cdot 33^2 - 161$, and $161$ was my old bus number.
Am I a math yet?
4
@arctictern is the group operation the same? In C(H) it's multiplication
Also, what was that other guy saying about how if H and K are both subgroups of G. but K is contained in H, K is also a subgroup of H?
I like that, and now I'm thinking I want to prove it. Not sure I know exactly how, but I'm going to take a stab at it.
i don't see how there's anything to prove here
20:52
Yeah neither do I now that I just wrote it all out.
If there was an award for overthinking, I'd have won it many times over.
Oh somebody please star that - that's golden
How can one write a formula for $24$ including the digits, $5$, $5$, $5$ and $1$ ?
does [(5+5)/5] [5 - 1] count
in base 10, obviously
oops, that's one 5 too many
5*5-1^5
21:01
that sounds better
or maybe (5 - 1^(5+5))!
Nice.
$(55-51)!$
@Astyx Most creative one.
Do I get an award for this ? :D
Ehm .. like what ?
21:06
No clue
Maybe 2 more weeks of holidays ?
I wish
I don't control that, sorry.
What about this link
I'll take it
@Astyx Did you try one of the videos ?
I am right now
21:25
Thoughts ? @Astyx
The video I watched was nice
Which one ?
Riemann zeta function
ie the first one that showed up
He is brilliant, fighting for ''intuitive understanding'', and tries to make things as simple as they can get. @Astyx
how expensive is it to compute the minimal polynomial of a square matrix
21:35
True
Minimal polynomial ?
i think it can be done in O(n^5) time for a n x n matrix, can we improve on this
@Astyx yes
Do you know for sure it can be done in $O(n^5)$ ? And could you give such an algorithm ?
O(n^2)?
i said O(n^5)
$\operatorname{O}()$ is an operator ?
it's the order of complextiy
complexity*
21:41
My bad, typo
Of .. .
the algorithm
Order of complexity of the algorithm ?
Basically if your matrix is $n\times n$, you expect a number of elementary operations that is asymptotically a $O(n^5)$
So what algorithm are you thinking about @Starfall ?
21:48
@Astyx do you actually know a better algorithm
No
But I'd be interrested to see yours
compute the minimal polynomial in a bunch of cyclic subspaces, then take lcms
row reduction is O(n^3), and you row reduce O(n^2) times at worst, so O(n^5) is a good upper bound on the complexity
if you're lucky then you could get away with O(n) row reductions
Hello!
How can I show that no three points in the image of the curve $f(t)=(t,t^2,t^3)$ are colinear?
This problem came from Ted but I have no idea how to approach it
Suppose they are
That's absurd
Maybe I take three points on it, $a$, $b$, and $c$, and show that $(a-b)\times(a-c)$ is nonzero? (Cross product)
21:52
Thus they're not
@Astyx Thanks. -_-
:P
@AkivaWeinberger the idea is to write down a square matrix whose rows would be linearly dependent
That's actually nearly a Vandermonde matrix there
and then use column rank = row rank to pass to "columns are linearly dependent"
You can compute the determinant
See it's non zero
Oh wait I'm being silly
21:54
The determinant of what? $[\vec a\mid\vec b\mid\vec c]$? What if $\vec a=0$?
No I was thinking of something else
Hm. $(a-b)\times(a-c)=a\times a-a\times(b+c)+b\times c$
So I want to show $a\times(b+c)\ne b\times c$ perhaps
I need paper…
Wait. Hold on.
$\stackrel{y}{_x\triangle_{z}}$ Testing some commands.
The projection onto the $y$-coordinate is $f_y(t)=t^2$, yeah?
That's a parabola
@Mahmoud Cool. (Is this a reference to the 3Blue1Brown video?)
$\log_x(z)=\stackrel{}{_x\triangle_{z}}$
21:58
No three points on a parabola are colinear, right?
@AkivaWeinberger Probably, I wanted to test the $\LaTeX$
So no three points on $(t,t^2,t^3)$ can be colinear, right?
Yeah but I think that's the point
$x^y=\stackrel{y}{_x\triangle}$
So I don't need to do any cross product stuff, then. If three points on it were colinear, so would their projection onto the $xy$ plane, which is impossible because that's a parabola.
Also, small error above, I meant that projecting onto the $xy$-plane gives $f_{12}(t)=(t,t^2)$ which is a parabola.
22:01
@AkivaWeinberger that works
$\stackrel{y}{_x\triangle_z}$
$\stackrel{y}{_x\triangle_{z}}$
$\stackrel{y}{_x\triangle_{z}}\cdot \stackrel{b}{_a\triangle_{c}}$
I'm pretty sure you can work with determinants too
Take three points in the curve
I still have no idea how this \stackrel{y}{_x\triangle_{z}} works and why is it like this.
If none of them are 0, they are colinear iff their determinant is non zero
Like, what does \stackrel do ?
22:05
And if one is zero, the other two are trivially equal if they are colinear
@Astyx you don't need determinants, although vandermonde does give the result
ya
Sure, you don't need them
you find that one of them are zero
and that implies that the other two are equal
Just my proposition
that's the idea i had in mind originally
22:05
does $\int_1^\infty\frac{1}{\lfloor t \rfloor^x} - \frac{1}{t^x} dt$ always diverge when $x<0$?
I think that problem can be approached also by projectivising (is that even a word?) the curve and doing some Bezout's theorem magic
@Sophie you might better write it as $\int_{1}^{+\infty} {\lfloor t\rfloor}^x - t^x$ for $x\ge 0$
Test $\mathop{\sum \sum}_{i,j=1}^{N} a_i a_j$
@Astyx Not true. Take $(1,0,0)$, $(0,1,0)$, and $(1,1,0)$
Oh yeah
22:09
@AkivaWeinberger it's true for your curve
My brain isn't fully functionnal tonight it seems
$\bar{z}$
oh, wait, @Astyx wasn't making any sense
You can take $3$ points $x,y,z$, write a $2\times \text{something}$ matrix with $x-y$ and $y-z$ on the rows and see if the rank of this matrix is $1$ (collinear) or $2$ (not collinear)
Let's just say the determinant being 0 if they are colinear is sufficient
We do not have equivalence
22:10
@Mahmoud Test: $\stackrel ab$
But is they are colinear, the determinant is 0, then that means two points are equal
$\stackrel{\rm one~thing}{\rm another}$
Hope I'm not being more and more wrong
@Mahmoud OK. \stackrel puts one thing on top of another.
$\stackrel{Mathematics}{Physics}$
Assuming no physicist is here.
Right ?
22:12
Compare \over: $Mathematics\over Physics$
$A\over B$
(\over is essentially \frac)
$\mathrel{Mathematics}{Physics}$
It works better than \frac
$$\underbrace{Mathematics}_{Physics}$$
22:13
$\underbrace{A}$
$\stackrel{\stackrel{\stackrel{s}{h}}{\stackrel{i}{t}}}{\stackrel{\stackrel{p}{o‌​}}{\stackrel{s}{t}}}$
Gotta go
Bye
@Sophie I see.
$\underbrace{A}_b$
$a_n=\underbrace{0.111\cdots 111}_{n \; \text{times}}$
That's an interesting sequence !
$\stackrel{\cdot \cdot}{\smile}$
22:28
$\text{(removed)}$
${\tt a}$
that trophy is a nice fit on your avatar
Thank you ${\tt :)}$
$\displaystyle \sum$
$\sum$
$\sum\Sigma$
$\huge\color{blue}{\displaystyle \aleph_0}$
$\color{Red}r\color{Orange}o\color{Yellow}y\color{Green}g\color{Blue}b\color{ind‌​igo}i\color{violet}v$
22:37
$\displaystyle{\partial \over \partial{x}}$
$\displaystyle{\zeta(1)=\infty}$
$a/_b$
$\text{$N/_{Kg}$}$
$\rm{E}$
$E$
$\text{E}$
$\int_0^\infty \mathrm{e}^{-x}\,\mathrm{d}x$
$\int_0^\infty \rm{e}^{-x}\, \rm{d}x$
$\iiint$
$\iiint$
$\int\dots \int$
$\idotsint$
$sk\dot\imath\ddot\imath ng$
$\big($
22:51
$\bigg($
$( \big( \Big( \bigg( \Bigg($
$\circ \big( \Big( \bigg( \Bigg($
$\cdots \Bigg) \bigg) \Big) \big) ) \; \infty \; ( \big( \Big( \bigg( \Bigg( \cdots$
@AkivaWeinberger What do you think ?
I think that's enough LaTeX for one day
It's so complex, a lot of commands
$\mathfrak{A}$
$\mathfrak{M}$
$\mathfrak{I}$
$\mathfrak{J}$
$\emptyset$ vs $\varnothing$ ?
What is $\wp$ for ?
Weierstrass p function, I think it's called
If I recall correctly, it's a complex function with two periods, so that $f(z+a)=f(z+b)=f(z)$ for some distinct complex numbers $a$ and $b$
so its values on a parallelogram in $\Bbb C$ determine it everywhere
It's complex-differentiable, and it has a pole somewhere in that parallelogram, I think
23:07
guys what the heck is going on here, complex functions are so surprising
@AkivaWeinberger Lot more to learn about Complex Analysis.
I lost 3 lines???
it could be my code is wrong
Is this Lambert W?
yes
curves and the images of the curves under W
let me check the data
I didn't realize you could do $W_0$ on the complex plane. I guess you do a branch cut somewhere?
23:10
no they're overlapping, they're not hidden
they're piling on top of each other
yes you do a branch cut $(-\infty..-\exp(-1))$
yeah the problem is they're merging on top of one another
So I needed to find a function $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$ that's continuous everywhere except for the origin, such that it's continuous at $\bf0$ on every line through the origin, and somehow unbounded in every neighborhood of the origin.
whoa
I think this works:
$\displaystyle f(x,y)=\frac{2x^4y}{x^8+y^4}$
and $f(0,0)=0$.
On every line through the origin, the limit is continuous… but on the parabola $y=x^2$, it takes the value $1/y$ and so approaches infinity at the origin.
(And the same at $y=-x^2$, so it approaches minus infinity from there.)
23:33
Very interesting : $\prod_{i=1}^{n} (r_i, \theta_i)=(r_1\dots r_n, \theta_1+\dots +\theta_n)$
hi everyone
Hi @Adeek
hi @Mahmoud
23:51
Hi Beautiful Math Geniuses.
Happy New Year to y'all!
Quick question, probably not worthy of posting:
In *Introduction to Abstract Algebra* (2014) by Fine, Gaglione, Rosenberger, p.459, we have a very clear definition of the properties of the **norm** on a vector space such that *"Any inner product space $V$ is a normed linear space with |v| = $\sqrt{<v,v>}\ $ for* [all] *v $\in V$."*

Where *A* **norm** *on a vector space is a function $|\ |\ :\ V \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\ \ $satisfying:*

$(1)\ \ |v| \geq 0 \ \ for\ all\ v \in V$

$(2)\ \ |v| = 0 \ \ if\ and\ only\ if\ \ v = 0_{v}$

$(3)\ \ |tv| = |t||v|\ \ for\ \text{[all]}\ v\ \in V\ and\ t\ \in \mathbb{R}$
(why is the formatting syntax different in chat from SE posts? that's dumb)
$\sqrt{t^2}=|t|$, you want the positive one (if we had $|tv|=t\cdot|v|$ then it'd be hard to respect $(1)$ )

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