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18:03
sup guys
@DHMO you here?
yes
check out the new versions of the graph on PW
I'm very proud of my self
Conductance vs conductivity ?
@DHMO
@Mahmoud conductance = distance x conductivity
@GFauxPas nice
18:06
You should totally deal with the theorems here
right now I'm working on graphs of complex functions and on Laplace transforms
@DHMO What does each of em' mean and why on earth do they have very similar names.
@Mahmoud according to wikipedia‌​, conductance is the inverse of resistance
and the definition of resistance is V/I
voltage / current
@GFauxPas maybe you would like to work on Lambert W function first?
I dunno, depends on my mood I guess
here's something I always find funny.
First, the unit of resistance (voltage per unit current) the ohm $\Omega$.
Now, the official SI unit for conductance (current per unit voltage) is Siemens (S).
18:17
I hope "Siemens" is pronounced "Simons" but unfortunately it isn't.
But there's an older name for that unit, though it's now discouraged.
Namely, since conductance is the reciprocal of resistance, it's said to have units of mhos ($\mho$)
3
Latex even has as a symbol for that :)
For any number people currently in the chat, I strongly encourage you to check out this proof of mine because it is wrong:

If this proof holds, it means $2$ will be transcendental, which is not true. However I have yet to see anythign that suggest cracks thus I am kinda stumped
in Algebraic/Transcendence Theory, 10 mins ago, by Secret
Therefore for $a > 1$ (to be analysed):
$$(p-1)!\sum_{k=0}^m|b_0(\ln a)^{-k}|(n!)^p<|J|<\max (|b|)B\sum_{j=0}^n\left|\frac{a^{j}}{\ln a}\right|$$
and for $0 < a < 1$(?)
$$(p-1)!\sum_{k=0}^m|b_0(\ln a)^{-k}|(n!)^p>|J|>\max (|b|)B\sum_{j=0}^n\left|\frac{a^{j}}{\ln a}\right|$$
and for $a$ (???)
$$(p-1)!\sum_{k=0}^m|b_0(\ln a)^{-k}|(n!)^p? |J| ? \max (|b|)B\sum_{j=0}^n\left|\frac{a^{j}}{\ln a}\right|$$
To be analysed...
Joke: $contradiction\circ contradiction = ?$
18:37
where are the crests?
happening at which horizontal lines?
@GFauxPas explicit version: shit's happening.
clean version: bug's happening.
Nah, nothing buggy there.
@GFauxPas What's the simplest way to explain how do you do that ?
Take $z=i y$. Then arg gives iy mod 2\pi.
@Mahmoud I'm using a language called R. The environment is RStudio
18:39
@Semiclassical right
If you want I can find an old guide my professor wrote if you want to learn the basics
Since arg restricts to (-\pi,\pi], it increases up to pi and then jumps down to -pi.
Oh, so, at which imaginary values does it peak at? let me think
can I have a clue
@GFauxPas I'm trying to learn how to use an animation tool called ''manim'', written in python.
Pretty sure I've said all that's necessary.
If nothing else, plot Arg(e^z) along the positive imaginary axis.
18:46
wrong one
@GFauxPas bye
bye dhmo
image of imaginary positive axis
right. should be easy enough to see from that where the jumps are.
odd multiples of pi?
18:48
nice
thanks Semiclassical :)
@Mahmoud R isn't the typical program used to graph things, I like it because it's versatile and free and I've used it for lots of things already. there's probably a better language to learn
but let me know if you want me to dig up my professor's old R guide
@GFauxPas github.com/3b1b/manim This is it.
I don't know anything about manim
Semiclassical would it be more meaningful to plot Arg and Mod of complex valued function using spherical coordinates?
change of coordinates to spherical
@GFauxPas Very few people do, 3 at most.
18:53
then you should learn a language that's common
like R or Python
@GFauxPas An example of what it can do youtube.com/watch?v=sD0NjbwqlYw
cool
I never tried animated plots in R but I don't think it's meant for it
@GFauxPas Do you mean polar coordinates?
In any case, I dunno if that's terribly useful.
I menat polar
18:59
hm, this looks interesting
P(20) = 4849781/4849845
so that's a total of 64 exceptions.
@GFauxPas I suspect what you'd get for the Lambert-W function using domain coloring is rather similar to what they get for the Gamma function on the linked page (near the bottom)
I'm not sur eI understand this semiclassical
Well, take a look at Figure 1 in the gallery of pictures
you're coloring the argument or the image?
19:02
Hi peeps :-)
any physicist here?
physics grad student here
I asked this question yesterday, and I could really use some feedback
Ah, QFT.
isn't the argument of the image just.. whereever the spot on the plane it is?
I'm not a master of functional integrals, so I may not be able to offer much feedback.
19:03
welp, I had to try
thanks anyway =)
good luck
thanks, and happy holidays everybody
suppose $\alpha_1$ is an irrational algebraic number and $\alpha_1,\alpha_2\dots \alpha_n$ are the roots of the minimal polynomial of $\alpha_1$. Is the splitting field of that polynomial equal to $\{q_0+q_1\alpha_1+q_2\alpha_2\dots+q_n\alpha_n|q_0,q_1\dots q_n \in \mathbb{Q}\}$?
@GFauxPas Yeah, that's all. You also see variants where regions with larger modulus are made brighter than others, but that's not done in that gallery.
I'm missing what information is added by coloring
19:07
It's just a different way to plot Arg. It has the advantage that it doesn't suddenly 'jump' from pi to -pi
ah I see
I think r can do that, let me see
hi chat
i got question about the jacobian , when i change u = x+y , v=x-y i get the jacobian = 2
but what do i use d(x,y) /d(u,v) or the inverse of that 1/2 ?
@KasmirKhaan Use the version which seems consistent with how u-substitution works.
am comfused because i worked 2 exercices one i used x and y as functions of u and v
and other u and v as functions of x and y
when you do that, you have for instance $\int f(u)\,du=\int f(u(x))\frac{du}{dx}\,dx$
19:13
but never took the invers of jacobian and got both right answers
-1
Q: What is special about the number 2017?

LegomanA new year is coming, I know that $2017$ is a prime number but - Are there other nice properties to make it special? EDIT: I read the comments, and I agree that the question is too vague. Whit other proprieties I mean something like : $2017$ is the smallest natural numbers such that... or other ...

following the 1-variable example, if you have $\iint f(u,v)\,du\,dv$ then how would you write this in terms of $x,y$?
(feel free to write u(x,y) as u to avoid tedious expressions)
d(x,y) / d(u,v)
correct?
Write out the entire expression and compare it to the 1-variable case I just wrote.
did I do it
19:17
$\iint f(u,v)\,du\,dv$ d(x,y) / d(u,v) so that d(u,v) "cancel out" ?
No.
Or, well.
no to me or no to him?
let me type the 2 examples i worked out and show you where am lost
Well, both. But I meant @KasmirKhaan :)
With a proper domain coloring, it shifts around the color wheel.
oh I can do that
19:18
here it just goes from blue to green.
can't I choose my own colors though
or do I want a color wheel
double integral of (x^2-y^2) ^10 dx dy here i used u = x+y , v = x-y

double integral of ln(1+x^2+y^2 ) dx dy here i used x= rcost , y= rsint
I guess the color wheel gives you an order
ROYGBIV and all that
first jacobian is = 2 and second = r
It's advantageous to use all of them, since you can shift smoothly as red -> purple -> blue -> green -> yellow -> orange ->red
19:19
but as you see i had in first u and v as function of x and y ,
if you only use a subset, you'd have to jump back to red at some point.
but on second x and y as function of u and v
@KasmirKhaan Let's go back. You want to write a double integral in two different ways.
Yep @GFauxPas
19:20
hmm interesting
You might check to see whether you're getting the full range of the color wheel---ideally it's red at -pi and pi---but that's basically right.
well here's what my code is doing
I'm choosing how many colors to use, using an argument n
Then I used rainbow(n), which creates $n$ colors from the beginning of the color wheel to end
@KasmirKhaan Suppose I start with $\iint f(u,v)\,du\,dv$. How would I write it in terms of $(x,y)$ if I have $u=u(x,y)$ and $v=v(x,y)$?
@GFauxPas Ah. You might try scaling it so that pi and -pi both get the same color, but I'm not sure how practical that is.
wismuth.com/complex/gallery.html these guys use only 4 colors
Yeah. I don't like their's as much as others for that reason :)
19:24
stat.columbia.edu/~tzheng/files/Rcolor.pdf I can create my own order as well
I grabbed that link from Wikipedia rather hastily. A different source would've been better.
f(u(x,y) , v(x,y) d(x,y) / d(u,v) du dv
pi and -pi get the same color in this case, because we're dealing with argument?
No. That's still an integral in (u,v).
sorry i meant
f(u(x,y) , v(x,y) d(u,v) / d(x,y) dxdy
double integral f(u(x,y) , v(x,y) d(u,v) / d(x,y) dxdy
so the jacobian is d(u,v) / d(x,y)
19:27
Yes, that's correct: $$\iint f(u,v)\,du\,dv=\iint f(u(x,y),v(x,y))\left(\frac{\partial(u,v)}{\partial(x,y)}\right)\,dx\,dy$$
But u,v,x,y are just labels. I can rename them if I want. So I also have
$$\iint f(x,y)\,dx\,dy=\iint f(x(u,v),y(u,v))\left(\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(u,v)}\right)\,du\,dv$$
@Semiclassical What field of Math is that ?
What I just said? Multivariable calculus.
@GFauxPas ya.
@Semiclassical Is it as hard as it seems to be ?
thanks semi i think my book is wrong
please confirm this with me
double integral (x^2 -y^2 )^10 dx dy
@Mahmoud Eh, if you've got some one-variable calculus it isn't so bad.
19:31
over abs(x)+abs(y) <= 1
Okay. Which scenario are you in---first or second integral I wrote?
I should also note
second
u = x+y , v= x-y
If I define $g(u,v)=f(u,v)\left(\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(u,v)}\right)^{-1}$
and we want d(x,y) / d(u,v)
then the first integral I wrote becomes
$$\iint g(u,v)\left(\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(u,v)}\right)^{-1}\,du\,dv=\iint g(u(x,y),v(x,y))\,dx\,dy$$
19:34
yes exactly
Which now looks rather like the second integral. There remains a difference: In this example, I have $u,v$ as functions of $x,y$. In the second integral I wrote above, you've got $x,y$ as functions of $u,v$.
they claim the answer is 2/121
In the present case, you're doing $u,v$ as functions of $x,y$. So therefore you're not in the second, you're in the one I just stated.
Typo in what I just wrote: the left-hand side should not have had that -1.
Can't fix it now.
In any case, though, we're getting mixed up.
The rule I usually follow when doing Jacobians is write $x,y$ as functions of the new variables $u,v$.
yes :(
I got comfused with that inverse too
Here, that's easy: $u=x+y,v=x-y\implies u+v=2x,u-v=2y$
So therefore $x=\frac{u+v}{2}$ and $y=\frac{u-v}{2}$.
The relevant Jacobian is then d(x,y)/d(u,v). What's that give you?
19:41
1/3
1/2*
Yes, 1/2.
i dont understand how they got 2/121
i mean we now changed to problem to
1/2 u^10 v^10 *
u^11 / 11 * v^11 /11
So therefore the integral I wrote above becomes $$\iint f(x,y)\,dx\,dy=\iint f\left(\frac{x+y}{2},\frac{x-y}{2}\right)\left(\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(u,v‌​)} \right)\,du\,dv$$
Except, uh, formatted correctly.
yes yes i got it now :D
thanks alot @Semiclassical
19:45
i came up with easy way to rememver it
In principle, you can compute (d(u,v)/d(x,y))^{-1}.
u can pretend as if they cansel out like fractions
yes if its easiar
:)
But in practice it's easier for me to remember d(x,y)/d(u,v)
It is rather similar to the old "treat differentials like you can cancel them" way of remembering the chain rule (dy/dx) = (dy/du)(du/cx)
While not without its hazards, it does get the order of things right.
yes its alot clear now for me thanks again !
il lkeep working on them
glad to help.
One practical point, extending what I indicated above.
There's always two ways to get the relevant Jacobian. You either express x,y in terms of u,v and compute d(x,y)/d(u,v), or you compute (d(u,v)/d(x,y))^-1 in x,y and then express the result in terms of u,v.
19:51
yes in this example it was not needed to express x and y in u and v
I typically find the former easier to think about, but if you're given u,v in terms of x,y then the latter may be simpler.
u=x+y and v = x-y
we could compute the natural thing d(u,v) / d(x,y) and take inverse
aye. (d(u,v)/d(x,y))^-1 = (2)^(-1)
If it's a linear transformation, it doesn't matter much either way.
If it's not linear, though, it may be that getting x,y in terms of u,v is a real pain.
In which case, you definitely want to do the inverse.
20:01
someone here familiar with simple groups ?
20:21
does the operation $S_p\times S_q\to S_{p+q}$ that "concatenates" permutation have a standard name?
Here the image of $(\sigma,\tau)$ is the map $\mu$ such that $\mu(i)=\sigma(i)$ if $i\peq p$ and $\mu(i)=p+\tau(i-p)$ if $i>p$.
Got a question for someone who knows Lie algebras.
Just ask the question
I'm trying to remember a diagram that shows up in there. I thought it was a 'weight diagram' but that doesn't seem to be correct judging from Google.
(was typing)
It is very rare that anyone who knows about a subject will say "I know about the subject"
Yes, and I've harped on people myself re: "don't ask to ask"
20:24
@MarianoSuárez-Álvarez if anyone has a name for it, the symmetric spectra people probably would
To be clear, I wasn't going to wait until someone responded to type up the question.
The diagram I'm trying to remember, in any event, has the various weight vectors connected together in a layered tree-like structure.
Schwede doesn't seem to have a name for it
Hrm.
It's like this, but without as many decorations: goo.gl/images/a7c4zL
I looked in MacDonald's book on symmetric functions and he also does not hat a name :-/
I have proved that $H \le G $ subgroup is normal iff $H $ is the union of Conjugacy classes of G.
Now, using this i need to show that all of the normal subgroups of $S_5 $ are $A_5 $ , $\{e\} $ , $S_5 $ .
anyone see a way how should i do that ?
20:27
I would probably be tempted to say that it's the homomorphism induced by the inclusion $\{1, \dots, n\} \sqcup \{n+1, \dots, n+m\}$ into $\{1, \dots, n+m\}$
Judging from this graphic on Wikipedia's page on root systems, the term "hasse diagram" is the appropriate one. (and it's also the one I started with :/ )
Thought there was a particular name for it in the Lie algebra context, but maybe not.
long time no see mariano
there's the usual "canonical embedding" and "the obvious map" phrases
@Semiclassical
@arctictern I'm writing something that has way too many of those :-)
This is in the middle of a computation of a $d_3$ in a specral sequence. Everything is canonical and obvious heh
And a mess, of course.
If $f$ and $g$ are functions, defined on $\Bbb R$, and are increasing and decreasing respectively on $\Bbb R$, how can we prove that $f(x)=g(x)$ has at least one solution ?
20:33
what are you calculating?
guys someone told me I should make the colors more distinct so I need your opinion, which one isbetter:
which one better gives you the idea that it starts low and comes up at the sides
@Mahmoud Going to have a hard time proving that since it's false.
towards the viewer
@MikeMiller cohomology of Joyal's combinatorial species
Unless by "defined on R" you further mean that it's a surjection to R, which is a much stronger statement.
20:35
@GFauxPas you can link to images instead of pushing everyone else's discussion off the screen (protip)
I don't know how to do that
[text](url)
they're not hosted anywhere
Yes, they are. That's how they get uploaded here.
I'll rewrite it,
20:36
@Mahmoud that's not true. Take $f(x)=\arctan x$ and $g(x)=1000-\arctan(x)$ (or the other way round)
@GFauxPas when you upload them they go to imgur, so you can just up them to imgur yourself
oh, okay. sorry everyone
I feel like we talked about this before, though @Mahmoud
With $\pm e^x$ as a simple counterexample.
an injection from R to R that is no surjection? can't think of one out of my hat
or..
mmh, i mean from R as a domain
@MarianoSuárez-Álvarez some cohomology of species or like HH of the category thereof?
20:37
of individual ones
trying to deform them
Supposing both f and g are surjections to $\Bbb R$
@Semiclassical Is it still false ?
@Null e^x is an injection from R to R, but not a surjection.
...uh.
oh!
sorry
@Semiclassical ah, surely ;)
20:39
@Mahmoud In that case, note that $f(x)$ and $-g(x)$ are both surjective and increasing functions from R to R.
What about the sum of those two functions?
I presume they're also continuous.
Alas, I see a problem with where I was going: If two functions $f,g$ are continuous and surjective, must $f+g$ also be a surjection? Not certain that's true.
(If it were true, you'd be done: 0 is in the codomain, so there must exist x such that (f-g)(x)=0)
I think it's true but I've forgotten enough of analysis that I don't remember how to prove it.
@Semiclassical $(\forall y\in \Bbb R)(\exists x\in \Bbb R)| f(x)=y$
$(\forall y\in \Bbb R)(\exists x\in \Bbb R)| g(x)=y$
is there a term for the phenomen that a smaller intervall gets mapped to a bigger one, while all elements of the bigger one are hit? Or is small and big nonsense for real intervals?
$(\forall y\in \Bbb R)(\exists x\in \Bbb R)| h(x)=2y$ and $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ @Semiclassical ?
no. @Mahmoud
Is it the variables ?
20:48
well, how did you take the difference and get 2y?
Wait I didn't, it should be $0$
but in any case there's a more important problem. it's true that, given a y, there must be an x such that $f(x)=y$.
and similarly for g(x)=y. problem is, there's no guarantee that it's the same x for each of these
for instance, $f(x)=x$ has $x=0$ as solution to $f(x)=0$.
but $g(x)=x+1$ has x=-1 instead.
@Semiclassical It's hard
so we can't conclude that there's some $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$. indeed, there is no such $x$ in this case.
What's missing is use of the fact that $f(x)$ / $g(x)$ are supposed to be increasing / decreasing respectively.
That needs to get used in here or we're stuck.
I think what's needed is to observe that, if $f$ is supposed to be increasing and surjective, then $f(x)\to\infty$ as $x\to \infty$ and $f(x)\to-\infty$ as $x\to-\infty$.
Whereas the opposite is true for $g(x)$.
Something like that.
So they have to cross at least once.
20:56
right.
for a proof, one probably notes that the above properties imply that f(x)-g(x) behaves like f(x) itself, i.e. crossing from negative to positive infinity
so as a continuous function, it had better cross the axis.

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