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09:00
@Axoren Give me an example.
notation
@Brody Do you agree that $\{0, 2, 4, \dots 1, 3, 5, \dots\}$ is not a sequence?
$d(S)$ may denote the natural density of a subset $S$ in the natural numbers
@Axoren Sure
@Brody So, to count one natural number at a time from the set of natural numbers, we need a sequence of natural numbers.
Let's roll back some
$A(n)$ denotes the count of $a\in A\subset \mathbb{N}$ at most $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Right?
09:03
can you write a simple fraction latex 1 over d
the special d
\frac 1 d
It's just an ordinary d
@Brody $a(n)$ is a count. $A(n)$ is a set.
@Axoren Sorry, right. It's the set of blah
what do I have to use
for the fraction
09:05
e.g. for the perfect squares, $A(5)=\{0,1,4\}$
@Jasch1 \frac a b is $\frac a b$
@Brody No. $A(5) = \{0, \dots, 5\}$
$A(5) \cap S = \{0, 1, 4\}$
That's an important distinction.
@Axoren Oh, I was thinking of a different $A(n)$ then
@Brody So, now back to the sequence argument.
Since we know that we're checking natural numbers in the set from a sequence, we can only randomly for a finite region of them.
Otherwise, we stop having a sequence.
why can the absolute be dropped safely at $|\sqrt[n]{n}-1|$?
(n is some positive integer)
@Axoren If I were to use setbuilder, would x have to be greater than 0?
09:09
@Jasch1 What is $x$ in that context?
{x | 2x }
@Null Question, when can we drop $|\;|$?
@Brody if the term is always positive
@Null It can't be. $n = 0$ or $n > 2$ results in a negative on the inside. Your application for that expression may not mind having a negative.
Wait, no.
@Null *nonnegative
09:11
@Brody >0
Strictly positive.^
@Null $|0|=0$
I messed up, I think $n > 2$ still let's the equation stay positive.
ah well
09:11
how do I use the includes sign in latex
yep, 0 is ok too!
the is part of
@Null $\forall n\in\mathbb{N}: n^{1/n}\ge 1$
@Brody so to say we can safely drop this, we have to show that the nth root of n is higher or equal to 1
09:13
@Jasch1 \subset and \in
@Null If you want to prove it, go ahead. We can just "know" this, drop the bars, and be on our way :)
But it's not a difficult proof
@Brody do i have to expand the root, or work with euler e?
Really just a limit calculation and then a local monotonicity argument.
@Null Nope, it's pretty much one step
ah well, i forgot that we can pull the limit and the condition for n out of the hat
09:17
@Null $\sqrt[n]n$ converges to $1$ and is monotonic on $[e, \infty)$
@Null Um, why not raise both sides to the $n$-th power? Since $n$ is a positive integer, the applied function is monotonic and preserves the order
$\sqrt[e]e$ is between $\sqrt 2$ and $\sqrt[3]3$
So, we know that at all points on this line, it's above $1$.
$1^{1/n}\ge 1$ follows from $n\ge 1^n = 1$
@Brody Unless $n$ is even, then you can have $(-1)^n = 1$
we only consider positives for roots
09:20
@Axoren Why is that relevant?
(principal root)
Ah, I see
It's not relevant in this case and I'm still cookieless
hands @Axoren a cookie
Internet cookies don't count.
09:21
Darn... and I made them with love
a cookie is a lot man
you first gotta eat the half
then the quarter
...
Yeah, privacy policies are too loose with giving them out
I just block dem shits
@Null Whoah, a whole half to begin?
If you want to dip a cookie for 2 seconds, how fast should you pull it out to avoid dipping it for too long while not pulling it out too quickly?
i find it hilarious that sites now have to say it to us, that they use cookies
because that sucks on mobiles
09:23
I can eat an entire box of Chips Ahoy in one bite.
Concept check: explain why (-1)^(1/3) = (-1) while e^(ipi/3) not equals (-1)
It's harder starting from nothing and nibbling twice larger portions. Certainly less fulfilling
I avoid Zeno's Paradox.
@Brody you sure can start with a quarter, if you want so
@DHMO Something something complex exponentiation yadda yadda
09:25
I'm disappointed in the nature of mathematics.
@brody correct
@Axoren which nature?
You can't reverse the order of Zeno's paradox
what means?
xodarap s'oneZ
To start with $\varepsilon$ of the cookie, then $2\varepsilon$, and then $4\varepsilon$
09:26
lol
@Axoren sure you can
@brody you can't. there is no (infinity-1)
In a transfinite process
@DHMO $(exp())^n=exp(n )$ don't hold for n not an integer due to the complex exponential is not injective over all angles
But I don't think there's a way to define a sequence in a stable way on the transfinite numbers.
@axoren even in transfinite. you can't have omega-1
09:27
e.g. $exp(x)=exp(x+m2\pi)$
@DHMO I think I agree, but I don't know that that means.
Now I do
I agree, but that's not what I mean
@DHMO Huh?
Why not?
$\varepsilon = \frac 1 \omega$
It's still in that vein of why that sequence doesn't make sense.
@brody because infinity is not a number
omega is not an integer either
It doesn't follow fundamental properties of arithmetic that allows us to do the same thing.
09:29
@Secret I don't like that explanation.
No arithmetic on infinitesimals?
@brody just addition and multiplication
So then the issue is...
@Brody $\omega + 1 = \omega$, to say $\omega + 1 - 1$, you need to justify what it means to be $\omega - 1$
and omega isn't infinitesimal
09:30
If I remember correctly.
Is that correct, DHMO?
if tou are talking about hyperreals, then 2^n epsilon is still close to 0
@DHMO I agree.
@Axoren no. 1+omega=omega but omega+1 not equals omega
Is $\varepsilon$ not an infinitesimal?
@DHMO Right, I had it reversed. $\{1, 2, \dots, a\}$ is a set with cardinality $\omega+1$
09:32
subtraction is not well-defined because subtraction is a short-hand for addition of additive inverses, and additive inverses are not defined for ordinals
@Brody It is, but that's precisely why we can't start with that size of a bite.
@axoren no. the cardinality is still omega
@Axoren Ah, so we can't simply choose a starting point for our sequence
@DHMO You're right, I could just provide a different ordering which puts $a$ at the beginning. Do you have an example of an $\omega+1$ set?
@Axoren it does not exist
omega+1 has the same cardinality as omega
09:34
What is the union definition of addition on $\omega$s?
Now, I'm lost and will have to go back to my texts for this
The ordinals and transfinites are separate, that much I've gathered.
@brody go to proofwiki and search Definition:Ordinal Addition
@Axoren "transfinite ordinal". transfinite describes a class of ordinals
Awesome. My latest paper has just been accepted in Algebras and Representation Theory, pending some minor changes.
what's the topic of the paper?
@Axoren any ordinal you can come up with which has omega has the same cardinality with omega
09:36
The reviewer really liked the paper and gave a ton of detailed feedback.
@DHMO So those ordinals just aren't used as cardinalities for any set.
So what's wrong with starting with an infinitesimal chunk of a cookie and scaling it?
@Axoren yes
@Secret Representations of algebraic groups (in broad terms).
@Brody You'll never leave the infinitessimal chunk
09:37
@Brody nothing's wrong, but you can never get to 1
If anything, you'll always be at the same infinitessimal chunk forever.
have fun passing through 0.000001
At least Zeno made progress.
@Axoren Exactly. Sounds like Zeno's paradox going the other way
You wouldn't even
But if you COULD start with $\varepsilon$ and make it to $1$, you'd be eating twice as much cookie every second.
09:38
Of course, rather than taking partial sums of $2^{-n}$, we half our cookies but never reach nothing. The reverse is starting with almost nothing and never reaching a half
Well, you could scale by an infinite amount assuming you work in a suitable field for that.
@TobiasKildetoft which field?
I think I've found a way to do the reverse Zeno
@DHMO The surreals would be one choice
@TobiasKildetoft not really. you'd never leave 0
@Axoren how?
09:40
@DHMO I thought you wanted to start with an infinitesimal
@DHMO First, you perform Zeno's paradox but you don't eat halves of cookies. Instead, you leave the smaller sections off to the side Then, "after you're done", you eat the sections in reverse order.
@TobiasKildetoft i mean you will never leave the infinitesimals
At some point, you accept your lasted smallest chunk as a good enough estimation for the rest of the process.
@Axoren Heh, discretization
Don't confuse cardinals and ordinals, there are sets of order type omega+1, but it's still a countable ordinal, it's probably better to say that it has cardinality aleph_0 though because if you use omega for both as a cardinal and as ab ordinal stuff like 2^omega is ambiguous
09:42
@Alessandro Could you describe a set with that order?
@Axoren {1,2,3,...,0}
@DHMO So the one I subscribed and you said no.
@axoren you said it has cardinality omega+1
$\omega\cup \{omega\}$ :P jokes apart N with a bonus last element after all the integers
@DHMO So, the order of the set is separate from cardinality?
09:44
what is the Fourier transform of $x^2$? I'm getting something bizarre $$a\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{inx}}{i\pi n^3}$$ where $a=e^{2\pi}(2\pi^2-2\pi+1)-2$ is a bizarre constant
So any bunch of matchsticks + a matchstick
Yes @Axoren
@Axoren it has order type omega+1 but cardinality omega (or aleph_0)
Intuitively, I get the distinction now.
@brody hmm... wut?
09:45
I'll have to read about the distinction between order type and cardinality to understand the difference formally.
@DHMO an $\aleph_0$ bunch of matchsticks, then a matchstick
@axoren cardinality is how many things there are; order type is how they are ordered
@Brody yes...
(rant) I really don't like to work with indexed arrays, so hard to keep track of entries when you cannot see the entire array all at once
@DHMO Oh, so it's not as in an "order of magnitude", it's an actual result of the ordering of the sets.
Order type of $X$ is, if it exists, the only ordinal $\lambda$ for which there is an order preserving bijection $X\to \lambda$
09:47
@axoren yes
@DHMO If you scale an infinitesimal by its inverse then you leave the infinitesimals.
@DHMO
This sort of graphic
@brody that would be omega times omega
I know, just an example of the visual
sure
09:49
I feel like it would be some sum where each other summand of $\omega$ is shrunk
Can't you see them getting smaller?
$a_1\omega + a_2\omega + \dots$ for $a_i > a_{i+1}$
@axoren only to make it span a finite space
technically you cant make them to infinity
@DHMO I know. It was a joke.
Also, was that last bit tongue-in-cheek?
Exercise: prove that there does not exist an ordinal x such that x+1 = omega
@DHMO do you know anything about Fourier series?
@sophie x^2 is not like a wave at all
09:53
Assume there was such an ordinal. There's some definition which trivially makes it a contradiction.
can't I decompose anything into waves?
I'm too tired for this at 5am
@axoren you don't say
well in the $[0, 2\pi)$ interval
@DHMO Is it some open problem?
Or is that the actual gist of the proof?
09:55
@DHMO well I wanted to Fourier transform something, and $x \mapsto x$ was trivial, so polynomials were the next best choice
@axoren it is a beginner problem.
you laid out the framework of the proof
Well, isn't $\omega$ the smallest ordinal larger than every natural number?
I'm trying to see what I'm missing.
Oh, I see
It's not directly from a definition
But it's a result of it.
Because it's the smallest infinite ordinal, any ordinal less than it is a natural number.
And x+1 is natural
That's sneaky, @DHMO
That's REALLY sneaky
that's rather unrigorous
Assume $\exists x:\, x+1=\omega$. Then, $(x+0)\cup (x+1)=0\cup 1\cup 2\cup\cdots$
Dunno, lol
@DHMO I'm hungry. Do you want me to write it in logic notation?
You'll have to pay for that in food.
10:02
@Brody Well, firstly you need to know the definition of "+1"
Why am I up at 5?
@DHMO and "="
Why are you up at 5? @Axoren
@Sophie heh, and "omega"
@Brody solving math problems, probably. That's why I am
10:03
@Brody Because I've lost control of my life.
That reminds me, I should have some pudding mix.
@Secret yes, but she just proved $\beta(n_1)=\beta(n_2)$ implies $n_1=n_2$
But she is not asked to prove $\beta$ being a bijection, only an injection?
> this is a proof I wrote to try to prove that β:Z→Zβ:Z→Z is one to one...does it look alright?
@Secret oh, I thought one-to-one means bijection
thanks
In mathematics, a bijection, bijective function or one-to-one correspondence is a function between the elements of two sets, where each element of one set is paired with exactly one element of the other set, and each element of the other set is paired with exactly one element of the first set. There are no unpaired elements. In mathematical terms, a bijective function f: X → Y is a one-to-one (injective) and onto (surjective) mapping of a set X to a set Y. A bijection from the set X to the set Y has an inverse function from Y to X. If X and Y are finite sets, then the existence of a bijection means...
You need both injection and surjection
[Abstract algebra] Meanwhile, trying to represent the axiom of associativity as a geometric feature of the cayley table...
10:08
@Axoren after all the only debate is on what one-to-one means
has $e^x$ a root in some field?
Then one-to-one is just injection, as Secret said. I'm going to depart as I can only pay half attention and barely make coherent math things
@Null so you are asking if $f(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^n}{n!}$ has a root in some field
As for surjection, I often attempt to not prove by contradiction by checking the following condition $\exists S: f(S)=\emptyset$
By actually writing down the emptyset, suddenly morphisms became a little bit more straightforward (at least that's what happen when I was working through Munkres)
Is it essential to read the topology chapter on Rudin? I'm not getting the motivation for any of this...
10:11
@DHMO eh, this sum is 0 for x=0. But $e^0=1$ :s
@Null no, 0^0 is taken as 1 here, so the first term of the summation is 1 and the other terms 0
@DHMO ah
yep yep
Well you can also define it by the limit, because you know it is a removable singularity
actually, in a field where $-\infty$ is a thing
I don't think this thing would obey the field axioms
10:13
@Sophie me neither
@Sophie what limit?
$\lim_{x\to 0} e^x=1$
well, firstly your field has to have the natural numbers, or else what is $n!$.
why do we have to show both sides for a limit. But when we talk about the limit as x approaches infinity we only check one side.
@Null because you can't approach infinity from the other side
10:16
what is on the other side of infinity?
"the other side of infinity" is an ill-defined concept
I've seen a few who'd argue it'd take you back down the real numbers. What are they?
@Brody hyperreals
If only "God" were a finitist
@TobiasKildetoft oh, sorry, I confused "surreal" with "hyperreal". I'm not familiar with the surreals. What is $\varepsilon \times \omega$?
10:21
Could there be a Supreme Being in a finite world?
@DHMO i'd say 1. but i dunno
In mathematics, the surreal number system is a totally ordered class containing the real numbers as well as infinite and infinitesimal numbers, respectively larger or smaller in absolute value than any positive real number. The surreals share many properties with the reals, including the usual arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division); as such, they form an ordered field. If formulated in Von Neumann–Bernays–Gödel set theory, the surreal numbers are the largest possible ordered field; all other ordered fields, such as the rationals, the reals, the rational functions...
@Null have a look to get some intuition.
@Brody that's part of the definition of supreme being to some. (bla bla, god can build a rock he can't lift, but if he can't lift it, he's no god)
@Brody ill-defined questions are ill-defined.
@DHMO Then what's an ill-defined answer
10:23
::facepalm::
define "define"
stop messing with my brain
v.transitive : to define
$x\cup \{x\}=\omega$. Not getting very far...
@Brody nice.
@Brody can you help me? i want to bound $\sqrt[n]{n}-1$ by above. So conjugate to get a fraction or how?
10:28
@Null No calculus?
@Null How good a bound do you need?
1000
@Sophie such a good one to proof the limit of the nth root of n ;)
i have difficulty with N, because $\sqrt[n]{n}\text{?}\sqrt[N]{N}$, where n>N
$\lim_{x\to\infty}x^{1/x}=\exp(\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln(x)}{x})$
Can you prove $\sqrt[3]{3}>\sqrt[n]{n},\,\forall\,n>3$? @Null
10:35
@Brody out of my hat no.
@Null You can assume $3^n>n^3,\,\forall\, n>3$ and call it a day.
@Brody procrastination expert haha
:o $\omega-1$ is a thing in the surreals
What the hell is $\sqrt\omega$
@DHMO That's surreal
@Brody $\sqrt[3]{3}>\sqrt[n]{n}$
$\sqrt[\frac{3}{n}]{3}>n$
$\sqrt[\frac{1}{n}]{3}>n^3$
$3^n>n^3$
10:42
@DHMO I don't think you have squareroots in general, but subtracting 1 works as "usual". And indeed $\omega\varepsilon =1$ if one picks the correct ones (the $\omega$ being left choosing between all naturals and $\varepsilon$ being right choosing between all negative powers of 2).
@TobiasKildetoft $\sqrt\omega$ is a thing in the surreals, according to my source
@DHMO I see. I never worked that much with them.
@Null Mhm. So what can you say about $n^{(1/n)}-1$?
@TobiasKildetoft well, one could start by working with $\dfrac\omega2$
@Brody actually i'd start at $\sqrt[n]{n}-1< \sqrt[n]{n}$ to avoid the -1
well, that doesn't work, because then it's certainly bigger then epsilon
10:49
@DHMO That one is not so bad since 1/2 is easy enougv to write down
so i have to keep the 1
@TobiasKildetoft but multiplication isn't
Just realized something I should have realized a while back: if $f : A \rightarrow B$ is injective, then there exists a surjection $g : B \rightarrow A$, and vice versa.
@DHMO Depends on what you mean by "easy". At least it has an explicit formula, however horrible it is.
I knew the whole inverse business but I'd never put two and two together, so to speak.
10:52
@Fargle that is not true.
@Fargle The converse actually uses a bit of Choice
@TobiasKildetoft Fair.
Makes sense, actually.
@DHMO A function is injective iff it has a left inverse $g$, and $g$ certainly has $f$ as a right inverse.
Tobias is right that AC is involved here, though--my textbook is just getting around to noting that.
Though not the full power of choice.
How much does it use?
I think it is to some extend open precisely how strong a statement it is
10:59
Ah, I see this has been asked on MSE before.
I'd rather have this result and Banach-Tarski be true than have this result be false, at any rate.
"Every surjective function has a right inverse" is equivalent to AC over ZF
Is $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$, $f:x\mapsto2x$ injective?
Do you put 0 in N?
yes
@Alessandro so?
@DHMO $f(x)=2x$, then $f(x)=f(y)\implies 2x=2y\implies x=y$
so yes, it is injective
11:11
yet it does not have an inverse @Fargle @TobiasKildetoft
it does have an inverse
what is its inverse?
$f^{-1}(x)=\frac{x}{2}$
@Sophie Did you read $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$?
oh no I didn't. It doesn't have an inverse because it isn't surjective
11:13
exactly
@DHMO It does not have a right inverse, but it does have a left inverse. Let $g : \Bbb N \rightarrow N$ be $g(n) = \frac{n}{2}$.
22 mins ago, by Fargle
Just realized something I should have realized a while back: if $f : A \rightarrow B$ is injective, then there exists a surjection $g : B \rightarrow A$, and vice versa.
@Fargle that isn't what you said ^
Suppose $f$ is not injective, then there exists $y1,y2$ such that $2y_1=2y_2$ Since $\mathbb{N}$ is an integral domain thus the set of all morphisms $g$ of the form f:x\mapsto ax, (where $a,x \in \mathbb{N}$) on $\mathbb{N}$ is injective. Therefore cancellation property holds and $y_1=y_2$ Therefore $f$ is injective.

$f$ however is not surjective since $f^\overleftarrow{}(n)=\emptyset$ for all odd integers $n$. Thus $f$ does not have a two sided inverse
@DHMO Surjectivity is equivalent to there being a right inverse. Injectivity is equivalent to there being a left inverse.
@Fargle fair enough
11:15
if $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}x^2dx=\frac{4\pi^2}{3}$, why is the constant term in the Fourier series of $x^2$, $\frac{2\pi^2}{3}$?
And actually, to clean my definition up: let $g(n) = \frac{n}{2}$ when $n$ is even, and $\frac{n+1}{2}$ when $n$ is odd.
Theorem: $\omega$ is odd.
11:42
$f(x)=\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\cdots}}}$
^ can this be solved?
@Null We have that $\frac{1}{f(x)} = f(x) + \frac{1}{f(x) + \frac{1}{f(x)+\cdots}} = 2f(x)$, giving $f(x) = \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$.
$f(x)=\frac{1}{2f(x)}$
Er herp.
$2f(x)=f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\cdots}}}$
Let $f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)+\cdots}}}=2f(x)$.
Then $2f(x)=f(x)+\frac{1}{2f(x)}$
To clarify, $f$ can be any function that takes the values $\pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ on its entire domain.
That is, you could define $f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ if $x$ is rational and $f(x) = -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ when $x$ is irrational.
11:48
so a nonconstant continuous function is impossible?
it is possible, but if $f$ is continuous then it is constant
Indeed. There are only two possible continuous functions.
does there exist a continuous function that mimics your f(x) close enough? (thinking of the saw-function i saw yesterday) @Fargle Something like this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sawtooth_wave#/media/…
What is $\frac{1}{u+\frac{2}{u+\frac{3}{u+\frac{4}{u+\cdots}}}}$ with $u=\cos x$
@NaCl hi
11:57
@Null Unfortunately, no--that function is continuous almost everywhere but the function I named (a linear transformation of the Dirichlet function) is in fact nowhere continuous.
@Fargle ah, because of density right?
@Null Yep.

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