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05:10
Bonsoir tout le monde
Empty chat. A shame.
A wild Mike appears!
Hey there
how's it going
I'm doing alright. Just getting settled into my relax-before-bed routine of music and browsing main.
@KajHansen
05:24
Hey @Null
Have you had that exam yet?
its in 3 month or so ;)
4 hours ago, by Null
Let $K$ be a field and $A$ a non empty set.
Show that $V:=map(A,K)$ with the following binary operations is a $K$-vectorspace:

for $f,g\in V$ is defined by: $(f+g)(a)=f(a)+g(a)$ for all $a\in A$
for $r\in K$ and $f\in V$, $r\cdot f$ is defined by: $(r\cdot f)(a)=r\cdot f(a)$ for all $a\in A$
Closure under scalar multiplication.This is given by $K$ being a field, since any element of the image of $f$ will be still in $K$ if multiplied by an element in $K$ by definition of a field.
Therefore a function multiplied by $k\in K$ will still have the same domain and codomain, thus it's in $map(A,K)$.\\

Distributive property

If $u,v$ are functions and $c,d$ are scalars, then the following has to hold for all $a\in A$:

$c(\underbrace{(u+v)(a)}_{\text{some element in $K$}})=cu(a)+cv(a)$

Since $K$ is a field, this has to be true.\\
@KajHansen could you look over the above?
Looks good @Null. You still need to show $g \in V$ such that $f + g = f$ for all $f \in V$ (add. identity) as well as add. inverses
@KajHansen i showed the addition stuff with a similar excercise where K was a ring (i am allowed to point there)
Yeah, the arguments will look pretty similar to that very last line above
not that hard as i expected
05:37
mhm
procrastinated this a little while hehe
The eternal struggle
@KajHansen do you get everything someone talks about in a lecture?
NOPE
I try to follow along
But the majority of my understanding comes from reading and doing the homework problems post-lecture
Reading pre-lecture would probably help to some degree, but I was always bad about that, heh
i only go to a lecture if its on a day i have to give my homework
which is tuesday and wednesday
my impression is, that its way too much
in school we had basicly for every topic 1 month
and topic meant something like $e^x$
i try to go the whole week to the lectures but im just a sleepy person :D
05:48
I have trouble with that personally @Null
I can't stay awake in lecture
Doesn't have anything to do with the lecture itself. In general, I get sleepy if I'm sitting down too long. I'll do homework and such while pacing around a room
@KajHansen I don't get too much from lectures if I copy everything that prof is saying. So, I just attend lectures and concentrate without writing anything.
It's really annoying, but I guess that's just the way I am.
@KajHansen maybe sitting in general is the wrong way to visit lectures
@KajHansen I learn more though from books than from prof.
maybe math should be taught by running in a hall lol
05:51
@Null, it'd be wayyy better if I could stand up in the back and be able to stretch, pace, and such mid-lecture. But then I'd be that guy
I too learn better by doing than by watching, but watching has some value to me, so I always went to class
@Adeek, I never took notes as an undergrad. I just watched
I agree with you
@KajHansen i find it tedious that a prof has to write his definitions on the board
they should be prerequisite to even visit the lecture
haha @Null
That'd be an interesting way to conduct things.
Sometimes definitions take time and discussion to parse!
hm
if they'd give me their plan i would learn the definitions beforehand. and then he could make interesting applications
05:55
I am little bit confused about the following issue from lecture notes.
i visited one lecture that was only definitions.
Let H be a hilbert space, $y \in H$ and T be a linear functional on H defined by $T(x) = <x,y>$ for every $x \in H$, then it is easy to see that $||T|| = ||y||$ why ?
so we define $||T|| = sup_{||x|| = 1} ||Tx|| = sup_{||x|| = 1} ||<x,y>||$
why is first of all that $\|T\| \leq ||y||$ ?
I haven't studied this stuff in generality, but this makes sense for vectors in Euclidean space
yeah
Due to Cauchy-Schwartz
Is there some analog for general inner products?
06:00
hmm
I think there is something like that for hilbert spaces
just a sec let me check lecture notes
cigarettes or beer, thats the question
I am trying to understand the history of laplace transform - how the idea came about...
1. First show that ||T|| <= y, by considering x=y.
2. Break down z = <z,y> / ||y|| + (z - <z,y> / ||y|| ) and look at its value under T.
That should be ||T|| <= ||y|| of course.
but ||x|| = 1 how do you know what ||y|| = 1 ?
You can use linearity there, T \lambda z = \lambda T z
06:04
From wikipedia, it is said, that euler investigated some integrals as solutions to differential equations...What exactly were those?
In mathematics the Laplace transform is an integral transform named after its discoverer Pierre-Simon Laplace (/ləˈplɑːs/). It takes a function of a positive real variable t (often time) to a function of a complex variable s (frequency). The Laplace transform is very similar to the Fourier transform. While the Fourier transform of a function is a complex function of a real variable (frequency), the Laplace transform of a function is a complex function of a complex variable. Laplace transforms are usually restricted to functions of t with t > 0. A consequence of this restriction is that the Laplace...
Ugh and my breakdown should be
z = ( <z,y> / ||y|| ) y + (z - (<z,y> / ||y||) y )
I think..
@MichaelAnderson For the (1) to show $||T|| \leq y$ how can we consider x = y when it is defined norm is taken over the things which have norm one ?
Consider x = y / ||y|| then.
With a trivial special case of y=0.
2
Q: $\mathbb R^3$ minus a line is connected.

Jorge Fernández HidalgoLet $S\subseteq \mathbb R^3$ be homeomorphic to $\mathbb R$. Prove that $\mathbb R^3 \setminus S$ is connected. I haven't been able to solve this, although my topology skills are pretty weak. My friend told me he managed to prove this using results from his "dimension topology" class. Although I...

ok I will try that.
thanks @MichaelAnderson
06:07
I'm looking at that too @Null
It should be possible to show that that space is path-connected
T (y/||y||) = <y, y / ||y||> = <y,y> / ||y|| = ||y||
The space itself should be homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^3 \setminus \{(x, y, z) \in \mathbb{R}^3 \ | \ y = z = 0 \}$
@KajHansen isn't it the same as saying a zylinder by a paper is still completly connected if you cut it, and the flat paper is left?
(note that i have no clue whatsoever haha)
yes @MichaelAnderson
I'm not sure @Null
06:11
@MichaelAnderson I guess then we get from that side that $\|y\| \leq \|f\|$
$R^3$ minus a line would look like a cube with a tiny hole in it visually or?
Now if z = A y + w
T z = <A y + w, y > = A <y, y> + <w ,y>
We choose w s.t. <w,y> = 0
T z = A <y,y>
Then since ||Tz|| <= ||T|| ||z||
we find that
|A| ||y||^2 = ||T||
Oops hit enter too soon.
an open cube with a hole drilled through @Null
It's obviously path connected
idk how to make the argument rigorous though
what is A @MichaelAnderson ?
|A| ||y||^2 <= ||T|| ||z||
An I think the final bit comes from the triangle inequality on ||z|| < |A| ||y|| + ||w||
you find A and w by considering the <z,y> and wanting <w,y>=0
06:14
$R^3$ minus a plane would fail tho or?
It would
I see @MichaelAnderson
@TedShifrin No idea... I didn't edit it or anything.
Keep in mind that the $\Bbb R$ could be wildly embedded.
Hi @MikeMiller
06:15
That's what I'm trying to reason through @Mike
<z,y> = <A y + w, y> = A <y,y> + <w,y> = A <y,y>
So A = <z,y> / <y,y> and w = z - A y
If that's the case, it wouldn't necessarily be the case that $\mathbb{R}^3 \setminus S \cong \mathbb{R}^3 \setminus \{(x, y, z) \in \mathbb{R}^3 \ | \ y = z = 0 \}$ ?
It could be a space-filling curve.
Hi @Balarka
@BalarkaSen It's embedded...
06:16
Hi @Danu
@KajHansen if R^3 minus a line is still connected, then it is conneted minus 2 lines. so R^3 is still connectet minus infitly lines. therefore its connected minus a plane? (just drooling around)
@MikeMiller Ah I didn't read the original question.
@Null Dude, just delete a plane. It's visibly not connected.
Just because a property holds for all $n$ doesn't mean the property holds as $n \rightarrow \infty$
Good example: $D_\infty$ is not the symmetry group of a circle even though inscribed $n$-gons more-and-more closely approximate a circle
It's a rather good discrete approximation for $O(2)$ though.
06:18
Wait
No
That's not disconnected?
I messed up @BalarkaSen
I was thinking of $\mathbb{R}^2$ and the property didn't extend
:(
Right.
If $\Bbb R$ is smoothly embedded in $\Bbb R^3$, that the complement is connected is easy enough to prove. (take a path, make it transverse). So perhaps one can cook up a proof which avoids some heavy machinery by smooth approximation, given a randomly embedded R?
I dunno.
Oh hey @MikeMiller I have a small question that came up during the lecture on symplectic geometry: We're considering the blow-up of a point in $\Bbb CP^2$
The picture I have of this is the following
@BalarkaSen Nonsense. There are wildly embedded $S^1$s. What makes you think $\Bbb R$s will be better?
@Danu Ask Balarka.
06:23
So any point $p$ that is not the one you're blowing up uniquely corresponds to a line through $p$ and $p_0$, and by picking two reference lines $L_1,L_2$ you can write such a line as $\lambda_1 Q_1+\lambda_2 Q_2=0$ where $Q_i$ are linear forms defining $L_i$ and $[\lambda_1:\lambda_2]\in \Bbb CP^1$ is unique.
@MikeMiller Wildly embedded ones cannot be approximated by smooth embeddings, right?
So now we have a commutative triangle
I think I understand this for every point in $\widehat{\Bbb CP^2}-E$ where $E$ is the exceptional divisor. But what does $\hat f$ do for $E$?
@MikeMiller Uh.. okay? @BalarkaSen?
bar{CP^2} lives in CP^2 x CP^1.
I know basically nothing about complex geometry.
f hat projects to the second copy.
06:26
@MikeMiller What's going on?
@BalarkaSen Hmm... Why?
I thought about $f$ outside $E$ as just the composition of $f$ with $\beta$.
By definition of blowup. It's (point, line) in CP^2 x CP^1 such that point $\in$ line.
@BalarkaSen Funny, that's not the definition I've seen.
What's your definition, @Danu?
@MikeMiller But I think you know a lot about symplectic geometry---and $\Bbb CP^2$ is Kaehler :D
@BalarkaSen Connected sum with $\overline{\Bbb CP^2}$
But
Perhaps I can think about your definition.
So which point lies in which line? :P
$R^2$ minus a point is still connected then too?
06:31
@Danu That only makes sense smoothly. It's not a definition that makes sense in complex geometry.
@MikeMiller Right. This is a course in symplectic geometry.
@KajHansen i think the best example for it is: a set is finite if it has n elements. doesnt hold if n->$\infty$
I mean, that's not quite a sufficient definition in the symplectic context either, since connected sums don't usually make sense there.
@Danu Ok. Fix a point $p_0$ you're supposed to blowup in $\Bbb{CP}^2$. Then consider the elements $(p, \ell) \in \Bbb {CP}^2 \times \Bbb{CP}^1$ such that $\ell$ is a line through $p_0$ in $\Bbb{CP}^2$ (there are $\Bbb{CP}^1$-many of them) containing $p$.
@MikeMiller Well, they make sense but don't preserve symplectic structure I guess.
06:33
This collection of pairs is precisely the blowup.
It's interesting to understand why the one you said is equivalent to this.
@Danu Then it doesn't make sense symplectically!
@BalarkaSen Okay. I guess my earlier picture should be helpful with this.
@MikeMiller It makes sense for smooth manifolds without extra structure---I'm okay with that for now. We might discuss problems in the symplectic category later.
Oh. So you literally just say the word blowup in the smooth context.
06:37
@MikeMiller Well, we did also do the blow-up of a symplectic manifold and showed that it is also symplectic. But via a detour.
Yes, it makes sense. All I was saying is that the definition of symplectic blowup is not literally "connected sum with $\overline{\Bbb{CP}^2}$"
@MikeMiller Okay, sorry for my sloppiness.
sloppyness? No.
Weird-looking word.
Hi. While watching a video about galton board, I wondered why is it that all the balls pile up in the middle and not so much towards the ends...
but that video also said, if you take samples of say shoe sizes, or, heights of students in a school...they'd follow the same pattern...
that of a normal distribution curve...
why?
06:44
Clever @Null
@KajHansen not mine actually ;)
what you think of the answers in the thread?
i can only understand the one with the circle, but i dont know if that is valid
I don't know anything about homotopy or homology
Well, other than the definition of "homotopy"
maybe in the future someone drills a hole in the universe to find out :-)
@BalarkaSen Okay, I think I'm having a hard time with this :P
@Danu Can you see the exceptional subvariety in my definition?
06:59
Hi @TedShifrin!
@Danu: Aren't you supposed to be asleep? ... I ended up clearing all cache and memory for Chrome on my iPad and the link went away.
@TedShifrin It's 8:00 AM here. Not so bad?
Hi @Balarka @Kaj
Hi @TedShifrin.
Hey @Ted
07:02
@BalarkaSen You didn't specify, but I assume the projection to the first factor should be the blow-down map? Then I guess $E$ is the preimage of $p_0$.
@Danu Yes.
Actually, I can live with this definition. But I don't see why it agrees with mine @BalarkaSen.
'Cause there are $\Bbb{CP}^1$'s worth of lines passing through $p_0$. For points away from $p_0$ there's just one, that's why blowdown is isomorphism away from the exceptional divisor.
@Danu I was trying to give you a walkthrough...
@BalarkaSen Yeah, that's okay.
I guess it's generally okay because $E$ looks the same too.
Ok, what's a neighborhood of the exceptional divisor, in my definition?
07:13
Well... A bunch of $(p,\ell)$ such that $p$ is close to $p_0$ and $\ell$ the unique line through it :P So it's like a nbh of the preimage of $0$ when blowing up $\Bbb C^2$.
Well, what does it look like? The exceptional divisor is a $\Bbb{CP}^1$, so a small nbhd of that would be a bundle on it... what's that bundle?
is $\mathbb{C}^2$ even visualisable?
@BalarkaSen $\mathcal O(-1)$, I know that much already ;)
you put a C on another C
2
^ this guy
07:16
@Danu I asked whether you can see it from the definition I gave.
If you can, you're done, more or less.
Because then blowup at $p_0$ is exactly obtained by replacing the point $p_0$ by a $\Bbb{CP}^1$ and a neighborhood of $p_0$ by a tautological bundle neighborhood of $\Bbb{CP}^1$.
That's precisely what everything looks like in $\Bbb{CP}^2 \# \overline{\Bbb{CP}^2}$.
Yeah, I guess I'm okay with it. Thanks.
Back to grading quantum mechanics homework.
@TedShifrin Wanna help with a bit of complex geometry? :)
07:54
what is a honor in math?
10
Q: Do I still need a PhD to do research if I have double honours in CS and Pure Math?

Gary GreyI'm planning to get double honours in CS and Pure Math. I'm confused what's the biggest benefit of Ph.D. will be for me? People say you learn to do research, but I can do research(as I have the appropriate background, CS and Math) sitting at home or in industry. Then what's the biggest benefit of...

08:20
@Null Sounds like this...
A joint honours degree (also known as dual honours, double majors, or Two Subject Moderatorship at the University of Dublin) is a specific type of degree offered generally at the Honours Bachelor's degree level by certain universities in Ireland, the UK, Canada, Malta, and Australia. In a joint honours degree, two subjects are studied concurrently within the timeframe of one honours. == Requirements == A joint honours degree typically requires at least half, often almost all, of the credits required for each of its respective subjects. The two subjects do not have to be highly related; indeed,...
Hey @Andrew
Welcome back Mr. Sen
@NaCl hi =)
G'morning, @Kaj
Also, hi @AndrewT, @Brody.
Night time
08:23
Hi @Balarka and all
I realized but I was confused what I should greet with, a good morning or a good night.
Curious... what's the meaning in Danu's blue name?
you mean the significance of him being blue?
...yep!
08:26
"he's just a little guy who lives in a blue world and everything he sees is just blue like him"
he's a moderator.
Thanks. I also had to look that up
Wow, so that's what that tune is..
any heavy metal fans here?
@Brody hi, did you where yesterday not here?
@Null I suppose not, can't recall tbh
Kinda, more on the rock side though
How are you by the way? @Null
08:33
I am
Heavily
@Brody I'm fine as I am done with my homeworks in time. How do you feel?
@Null Must feel nice! I'm okay
@Brody actually it is a little bit dampered as I did not get something specific our prof said. Well i guess that's how it is. But now I only have to worry how I pass my examen for the next 2 month. I think that's enough time to prepare :)
@Null Two months sounds great, just don't procrastinate oc ;)
By the multinomial theorem, the expansion of the square of a multinomial with $n$ terms is given by $$\displaystyle (x_1+\cdots + x_n)^2 = \sum_{|\kappa |=2} \left[ \dfrac{2}{\kappa !}\,x^\kappa\right]. $$
I'm wondering if there is a way to index the RHS sum linearly in $i\in\{1,\ldots, I\}$ fashion. The upper bound $I$ would be the $n$th triangular number $n(n+1)/2$.
09:01
By the way @TedShifrin, that equation $\mathcal O(-Y)^*\cong \mathcal O(Y)\otimes K_X$ I was trying to get is wrong (it *looks* like adjunction, but these are not bundles on $Y\subset X$ but on $X$ itself). Of course it has to be since the map $\operatorname{Div}(X)\to\operatorname{Pic}(X)$ is a homomorphism, so $\mathcal O(Y)^*=\mathcal O(-Y)$ for sure (cc. @BalarkaSen).

The ingredient I was missing was a special case of Serre duality: $H^q(X,E)=H^{n-q}(X,E^*\otimes K_X)$, applied to $E=\Omega^p\otimes \mathcal O(-Y)$. It's tricky because when I see $H^q(X,\Omega^p\otimes E)$ I immediatel
09:16
Btw, $\kappa$ denotes any $n$-tuple whose elements are taken from $\{0,1,2\}$, respecting multi-index notation. We are summing over the multi-indices satisfying $|\kappa |=\kappa_1 + \cdots +\kappa_n = 2$, and it's known there are $I=\dfrac{n(n+1)}{2}$ distinct such $\kappa$. I'm just wondering how I'd symbolically write out such a mapping, as I have at least one in mind.
It's probably not possible to enumerate the partitions of some number explicitly, although obviously there are lots of such enumerations.
09:28
Responding to me or someone else @BalarkaSen?
It was a response to you, @Brody
@BalarkaSen Okay. My bad, wasn't certain and really didn't want to assume (lol)
It's fine. I should have pinged you.
lol no worries @Balarka. I was trying to avoid a potentially awkward situation (by being awkward)
Because of the $|\kappa |=2$ restriction, we know our $n$-tuples must contain exactly one $2$ and the rest zeros or exactly two $1$s and the rest zeros. One mapping scheme is to have the first $n$ natural numbers map to the multi-indices where the first position is taken by $1$ or $2$.
Then the next $n-1$ natural numbers map to the multi-indices where the second position is taken by $1$ or $2$, preserving distinction from the first $n$ mappings. Then, the following $n-2$ to the next block of multi-indices, distinct from the previous $n+(n-1)$ ones. And so on. Is there any standard(-ish) way to "encode" this sort of function?
Shrug. No idea.
09:47
Isn't that the just the number of ways to add standard basis vectors together?
In retrospect, I maybe didn't need all the background crap. Could've just asked how to--with some conditions--assign natural numbers to tuples, heh
Hello night-chat.
@BoniLindsley Hmm yeah. In this case, the multi-indices are just $\mathbf{u}+\mathbf{v}$ with $\mathbf{u},\mathbf{v}$ from the standard basis for $\Bbb R^n$
That should help define a function
Hi @Fargle
How goes it @Brody?
@Fargle Okay. Think I'm coming out of a head cold only to sink into something else
Hbu?
09:59
@Brody Huh--coming into a head cold, myself. Working through Rudin to mixed success.
What chapter @Fargle ?
@KajHansen 2 and 3.
@Fargle Must be that time of year. And you're doing the analysis text?
There are some exercises I still want to do out of chapter 2 but I also want to read ahead.
@Brody Indeed. Working the exercises that seem interesting.
Rudin is lots of fun.
10:06
I really love the exercises. They're generally really elucidating.
130 close votes awaiting review... 2 years ago there were 30 at most... what happened ?
There's a nice one in there: can you find a perfect set in R which does not contain any rationals?
@BalarkaSen Yeah, that one is still screwing me a bit.
That topology chapter is fun
Yep, @Kaj. The exercises, mostly, though. The theory bit was too terse for me.
10:09
That's what I meant
Gotcha.
@BalarkaSen My gut tells me "no", but I'll have to see why.
@LeGrandDODOM, more questions being asked?
A person told me that it took him years to come up with a proof by his own. And that involved hyperbolic geometry.
10:11
When I joined, there were like 300k questions asked to date
And now there are 700k
That sounds obviously false, so it's probably true :P @Balarka
@BalarkaSen That's...heartening.
And I only joined ~3 years ago
Which sounds obviously false, @Alessandro?
"There is a perfect set containing no rationals"
10:13
I'm not spilling the beans out for you!
Good--I don't want it spoiled.
I don't want you to
It was just my first reaction
My intuition is known to be always wrong though
Ah, ok. Yeah, it does sound obviously false.
Monte Hall is obviously false
Apparently, the best heuristic evidence against a conjecture is if @Alessandro thinks it's true.
@KajHansen Didn't Erdos presume it false for a while?
10:17
@Alessandro, simple fix: create a new intuition, say intuition-prime, where every statement $x$ is $\neg y$ for a statement $y$ in current intuition
Yeah @Brody
He didn't believe it until shown experimental results
On the other hand, the Jordan curve theorem sounds obviously true
I mean it's true but not obviously so
And it is :)
@Alessandro I thought R\Q is a perfect set
That's not closed
10:19
pssst @Balarka, I say yay to the question-ay
$\mathbb{Q}$ isn't open
fair enough
@KajHansen On the other hand you could take the 3-dimensional variant of Jordan curve theorem.
That's obviously true, but actually neither obvious nor true
How do you define a closed surface?
It just says "an embedded sphere in R^3 disconnects it"
by an embedded sphere I mean a subspace homeomorphic to the sphere.
10:22
IT SHOULD!
yep. but...
You see
This is why we need to use ZF, not ZFC
I don't know if this actually uses choice, but it seems like the kind of trickery that arises from choice
I actually messed up a bit. It does disconnect; just that one of the components is not a topological ball.
Oh
I'm more okay with that
Jordan's theorem does hold in higher dimension. Just not the Jordan-Schoenflies theorem.
I forgot all these. Sigh.
10:28
any fun/useful questions on non-standard analysis (infinitesimal)?
@balarka are you familiar?
Is NS analysis actually useful?
Does it help with anything regular analysis can't?
hah
i like the dude's objection though
it's NOT well-defined
Clayburgh was beautiful. Think she had any idea what she was talking about? (not knowing if she has any mathematical background)
10:45
She didn't @Brody. I went to a talk by Benedict Gross from Harvard who recounted coaching her for that part of the movie.
@Balarka my intuition was wrong, as expected, I think I actually know such a set, there's a pretty famous one (after throwing away some rationals)
Cantor is perfect, but it has rationals, if that's what you're thinking of @Alessandro
It's plenty famous, yep
I think it still works after throwing them away
Interesting
10:51
@KajHansen Interesting, thanks. Her performance was pretty convincing imo
It surely stays closed, and I'd be very surprised if some point becomes isolated
It really is
goes to mute mode
Actually I'm not that sure thinking twice about it
Will $$ \int_{\delta < |s| < a } f(s) ds$$ be two integrals?
For some $\delta > 0$
10:59
Yep.
Thanks :)

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