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15:00
@Null it is brilliant.
what do you mean by 40?
40 is the biggest number :D
is it a reference to anything?
@DHMO its the biggest number displayed by trees on the earth surface
Nov 13 at 7:08, by DHMO
physicsists always abuse maths
by the definition of $A \subset B$, $\exists z \in E: z \notin A \land z \in B$.
Then, $let X=A\cup\{z\}$.
By some definitions, $X\cap B=X$.
By some definitions, $X\cup A=X$.
$\blacksquare$
@Ramanujan yep. just like $1+2+3+\cdots=-\dfrac1{12}$
@Null nice
@SteamyRoot is this false?
15:03
@DHMO but I think it was proven by sir Ramanujan
Is what false?
5 mins ago, by SteamyRoot
@DHMO what are you saying? That any linear and stable summation method sends $1 + 2 + \cdots$ to $-1/12$?
@Ramanujan but people can still abuse it if they don't know what the statement means here
@Null That is the best video on YouTube :D
hello people, i am new
@user161151 welcome
15:04
Yes, that's false.
@SteamyRoot why?
@DHMO but he showed proof for it…was that wrong?or we are missing some thing in mathematics?
Re-read it I think
Welcome @user161151 :D
@Ramanujan I didn't say sir Ramanujan is wrong. I said that (other) people would abuse it if they do not understand what that statement means.
15:05
Ramanujan was quite wrong on this topic I think
lol
At least the proof he supposedly gave is
Now I understand why was Mathematics separated from Physics.
@DHMO It was proven that a stable and linear summation method can never assign a finite value to $1+2+3+\cdots$.
@SteamyRoot can you show me why it is wrong?
@Mahmoud have you read my solution?
15:08
Yes, ''by some definitions...'' lol
$1+2+3+\cdots = a$. Then $0 + 1+ 2+3 + \cdots = 0+a = a$.
@Mahmoud heh, those are the definitions you are supposed to know
the definition of $\subset$
It's nicely proved tho.
thanks
@Mahmoud any more question to share?
Now substract second from first term-wise to get $1 + 1 + \cdots = x - x = 0$.
15:09
@SteamyRoot never mind then
Repeat the same steps (add zero, substract), to obtain $1 + 0 + 0 + \cdots = 0$
these days, i figured i have a lot of gaps in math.
glad to learn
@user161151 for example?
Lot more.
Wait a sec
@DHMO i can't solve algorithmic challenges on PE
15:10
@user161151 I see. Computational mathematics.
@DHMO yes.
Tell me your opinion: do you think any logic argument with "...because ..." is likely to be flawed?
@Ramanujan Ramnujan didn't "prove" that $ 1 + 2 + 3 + \cdots = -1/12$.
@Null why?
@SteamyRoot then who?
15:11
He came up with a summation method to assign finite values to divergent series (of which many exists), but his way was particularly nice
And agrees with the Riemann-Zeta regularization
@DHMO know any good resources to fill the gaps?
@DHMO I'm just thinking this way. "Because" leads to the need to explain things, but some things can't be explained.(yet)
@user161151 sorry, no idea
@Null where did you see that word?
good morning
@meow-mix hi
15:12
Hi
hello @DHMO and @Astyx
@meow-mix iam also present
Hi
@DHMO Prove that $(\forall x \in \mathbb R) : x-\sqrt{x^2+1}\lt 0$ And some more questions.
@DHMO A friend of mine tried to learn about psychology. They got statistics displayed as diagrams. Then he said "ah!... this is so BECAUSE BLA..." And i just cringed, since something makes sense for you doesn't equal that it's the truth.
15:14
the reason we can derive 1 + 2 + ... = -1/12 is because ramanujan assigned a real value to a divergent sum (namely 1-1+1-1+... = 1/2)
@Null I see what you mean. You mean that when you say "because", you are relying on intuition, which has been shown many times to be unreliable.
also called Ramanujan Summation
@Mahmoud I'll omit $\forall x \in \Bbb R$.
@meow-mix actually, Ramanujan's summation goes way further
what do you mean by that?
15:16
@DHMO exactly
$x-\sqrt{x^2+1}<0$
$\iff x<\sqrt{x^2+1}$
$\iff x^2<x^2+1$ (needs some more explanation but)
$\iff 0<1$
(im not for banning the word because, just the "intuitive" reasoning)
@Null yep. I see what you mean.
The sum $1-1+1-1+\cdots$ is $1/2$ by MANY summation methods, like cesaro summation
well, you can't deny that intuition is good for something
15:17
@DHMO I feel like I'm loosing my mind.
Abel summation too
@Mahmoud where?
How is this defined $p+p^2+p^3+p^4+...=\frac{1}{1-p}$ ?
the point is
its still a divergent sum
But the sum $1+2+3+4 +\cdots$ is neither cesaro nor abel summable
15:17
@Mahmoud this is not defined. this is proven.
@Mahmoud only converges in $-1 < p < 1$
@Mahmoud let $S=p+p^2+\cdots$. Try to find $pS$.
@DHMO @meow-mix For all p ?
@DHMO i think it is good to solve very direct problems, like "where do i get food". But it fails the more abstract it gets. (bayes for example..)
15:18
@Mahmoud only for $-1<p<1$
@Null fair enough
Hmm.
@Mahmoud I thought you are having an exam tomorrow on set theory
@DHMO Trying to forget about it, it's on Monday :(
Tomorrow would be cunning
@DHMO but maybe i'm now biased because you tend to kinda agree with me. also i used the word because haha ;)
15:19
I'm not sure trying to forget about an exam will help you pass it though :/
@Null that is a valid "because" statement talking about cognitive biases.
@Mahmoud then why are you sharing not-set-theory-related questions?
hey guys, should i ask my parents to buy me artin's algebra?
It's definitely not a bad thing to have...
Because @DHMO $p=-1$ Gives $1-1+1-1+...=\frac 12$
well
that sum diverges
just like any sum $p + p^2 + \dots$ for
15:22
$$\lim_{s\to 1} \, \left(\zeta (s)-\frac{1}{s-1}\right)$$
$p \geq 1$ or $p \leq -1$
@Mahmoud if $-1<p<1$ then $p$ cannot be $-1$.
Yes, but it gives the same answer @DHMO :P
@Mahmoud abuse of mathematics #314159
LOL @DHMO
15:23
@Mahmoud any set-related question to share?
@TedShifrin I think I'm making some progress now :)
@DHMO Okay I will share, a sec please.
thanks
:314159
What does it mean?
#314159 means "number 314159"
or "the 314159th one"
15:26
so wait, the polynomial ring $R[x]$ is just a ring of functions from R to R?
(for some ring $R$)
No
and you know, the functions are polynomials, obviously
formally it's not functions
It's nearly-zero sequences of elements from $R$
err wat
Polynomials are much more than just functions
15:27
@meow-mix if you consider $R=\mathbb Z_2$ then there are polynomials in $R[x]$ that have the same "function" associated to them but are different
for example $x^2$ is the same as $x$ as a function on $\mathbb Z_2$, but $x^2$ is not $x$ in $\mathbb Z_2[x]$
A polynomial is just an expression $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n X^n$ where $X$ is the unknown and $(a_n)_{n \in \Bbb N}$ is a sequence of selements from $R$ that becomes stationnary to 0 at some point
Let $\sqrt{n}=[a_0;\overline{a_1,a_2\dotsb a_n}]$ and $a_i=\max(a_1,a_2\dotsb a_n)$. If $\frac{p}{q}=[a_0;\underbrace{a_1,a_2\dotsb a_n}_{\text{this k times}}\dotsb a_1,a_2\dotsb a_{i-1}]$ then $p^2-nq^2=\pm 1$
why is $x^2$ the same as $0$? $1^2 = 1$?
Amended conjecture, I hope it is correct
oh my bad, sorry $x^2=x$ in $\mathbb Z_2$ not $0$
15:30
I read too fast
My bad
Prove that : $$\begin{Bmatrix} A \cup B= A \cup C \\ A \cap B \\ \end{Bmatrix}= A \cap C$$ $\implies B=c$ @DHMO
its fine
@Mahmoud first-order logic?
you forgot \end{matrix}
so wait, what specifically is a polynomial then?
also, on a polynomial, multiplication is defined by the ring's multiplicatiion
also you can put `&` to align:
$\mbox{\begin{matrix} A \cup B & = & A \cup C \\ A \cap B & = & A \cap C \end{matrix}}$
produces
$\begin{matrix} A \cup B & = & A \cup C \\ A \cap B & = & A \cap C \end{matrix}$
15:31
and addition of terms is defined by the ring's addition, right?
Yes
Well it's not the same multiplication and addition
But you get the idea
@Mahmoud you can uses $\mbox{\begin{cases}}$ instead
why wouldn't it be the same?
@Mahmoud I don't understand that notation
because the "indeterminates" are not in the ring
the multiplication and addition is constructed from the multiplication/addition in the ring, but it is not the same operation because $x*x$ does not exist in $R$ simply because $x$ is not an element of $R$
15:33
what??
if the indeterminates aren't in the ring
how is multiplication and addition defined?
$3x^2 \times 2x$ is not defined in $R$
Convolution of the sequences of the coefficient of your polynomial
Prove that :$$\begin{Bmatrix} A \cup B & = & A \cup C \\ A \cap B & = & A \cap C \end{Bmatrix}$$ Implies $ B=C$
I'm way confused, sorry. what is "convolution"?
$$\sum_k a_k x^k \cdot \sum_n b_n x^n = \sum_k \sum_{n=0}^k a_n b_{n-k} x^k$$
15:35
no
wait
hmmm
$b_{k-n}$
so polynomials are only determined by their coefficients?
two polynomials are the same if and only if they have the same coefficients
Yes
Well in some sense
and, multiplication / addition can be applied because all of the coefficients are in $R$?
Yes
15:37
only if it's a polynomial ring tho, OR?
I can't seem to find a good paper describing the construction of polynomials
(on the web and in english)
And @DHMO $A,B,C$ are parts of $E$
@Mahmoud was that just an excercise for the chat or do you have problems with sets?
oh, so thats why we denote the set of all $a\sqrt{2} + b$ for rational $a,b$ by $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$?
Surely
15:40
I'm kind of preparing for an exam @Null :I
firstly let's use definitions:

$A\cup B=A\cup C$
$\iff\forall x: (x\in A\cup B) \iff (x\in A\cup C)$
$\iff\forall x: (x\in A \lor x \in B) \iff (x\in A \lor x \in C)$
Let $P(x)$ be the proposition $(x\in A \lor x \in B) \iff (x\in A \lor x \in C)$.

$A\cap B=A\cap C$
$\iff\forall x: (x\in A\cap B) \iff (x\in A\cap C)$
$\iff\forall x: (x\in A \land x \in B) \iff (x\in A \land x \in C)$
Let $Q(x)$ be the proposition $(x\in A \land x \in B) \iff (x\in A \land x \in C)$.

Let $R(x)$ be the proposition $x \in B \iff x \in C$.
@Mahmoud to get a feel you can draw yourselfes Venndiagramms. I think the proofs itself are not the hurdle ;)
@meow-mix This is field extension notation
In abstract algebra, field extensions are the main object of study in field theory. The general idea is to start with a base field and construct in some manner a larger field that contains the base field and satisfies additional properties. For instance, the set Q(√2) = {a + b√2 | a, b ∈ Q} is the smallest extension of Q that includes every real solution to the equation x2 = 2. == Definitions == Let L be a field. A subfield of L is a subset K of L that is closed under the field operations of L and under taking inverses in L. In other words, K is a field with respect to the field operation...
@Mahmoud That is what I meant earlier by "first-order logic"
@meow-mix You just define it. If $R$ is a ring, $x$ is an indeterminate (literally a symbol, something which doesn't have anything to do with any element of $R$), then define $R[x]$ by declaring elements to be of the form $\sum_{k = 0}^n a_k x^k$, and define multiplication by "expanding out" like you do for actual polynomials with real coefficients, say.
15:42
@DHMO Yes.
@Mahmoud do you have a better approach?
so $R[a]$ for some $a \in R$ is just a set of expressions (whose values are determined by plugging $a$ into a polynomial with coefficients in $R$)?
hi @BalarkaSen
@meow-mix you don't need $a$ to be in $R$. For example $\mathbb{R}[i]=\mathbb{C}$
mmmmmhhh
@DHMO i'm not native, is proposition the same like statement?
15:44
so say you have a polynomial
@meow-mix $R[a]$ is not in general a thing. But how you defined it makes it the same as $R$.
@Null yes, i'm not native either
well yeah, because $a \in R$ @Balarka
Correct. For the other inclusion just look at the 0 degree polynomials.
but for $a \notin R$?
15:45
$(A \cup B) \cup (A \cap B)=(A \cup C) \cup(A \cap C)$ Maybe ? @DHMO
@Mahmoud and then?
@Mahmoud that's a tautology
like apple=apple
@meow-mix Then you have to specify what $a$ is. For a polynomial ring it's an indeterminate, a symbol, or if you like a transcendental.
@Null i know what @Mahmoud means
Lol @DHMO I made a horrible mistake there.
15:46
yeah but
if $a$ is a value not in $R$, that isn't indeterminate
for example
$\mathbb{R}[i]$
@DHMO ah lol, did not see the edit! @Mahmoud
@Mahmoud and then?
@Null I know what he means before the edit
@DHMO nice intuition then...
$i$ isn't in $\mathbb{R}$ but isn't indeterminate either
@Null no, it's because we were dealing with a question
15:48
@meo-mix This is a subtle point in understanding these stuff. You have to define $i$ first. $\Bbb R[i]$ without defining $i$ does not make sense.
The way to go is to look at the quotient ring $R[X]/(X^2+1)$.
oh boy quotient rings
I don't know how to make it rigorous @DHMO :(
@DHMO joining sets and adding the intersection is kinda redundant i'd say
@Mahmoud I don't even know how you would do it even not rigorously
Essentially what you're doing is you're just specifying $X^2 + 1 = 0$. Then your $X$ becomes what we know as $i$.
15:49
@BalarkaSen $(X^2 + 1)$ is an element of $R[X]$ right?
A venn diagram shows it clearly.
It's an ideal of $R[X]$.
$x\in(A\cup B)\iff$ x is in A,B or both
is Pinter's algebra book good?
15:51
@Null yes
$x\in A\cup B \iff (x \in A \lor x \in B)$
@Mahmoud what...
what property is it where any number divided by itself equals 1, as long as that number $\neq$ 0?
well
@heather don't try to prove properties of real numbers without understanding one of the defintions of the real number
division is multiplication by an inverse i believe
15:52
but basically the property of multiplicative inverse
@Mahmoud you mean $(A \cup B)\cap(A\cap B) = B$?
How can I prove that $LHS$ is $A \cup B$ @DHMO
@meow-mix by the definitions yes!
and since all non-zero elements of $\mathbb{R}$ are units (its a field)
@meow-mix but you can very easily define something like devision for yourself ;)
@heather multiplicative inverse theorem: for all non-zero real $x$, there exists $x^{-1}$ such that $x\circ x^{-1} = x^{-1}\circ x=1$
and then the definition of division is $\dfrac ab := a\circ b^{-1}$
therefore $\dfrac xx = x\circ x^{-1} = 1$ (where $x\ne 0$)
15:54
@DHMO, okay, thank you. I couldn't remember the name of it. That makes sense.
@Mahmoud I don't get your approach. What would you do after proving LHS is $A \cup B$?
(except 0, but that is obv)
$0$ isn't a unit :D
@Null I said non-zero already but I'll make it clear
i know, i was explaining why 0 isnt included
15:55
@DHMO that's why "(...)" ;)
heh, because that is the theorem
@BalarkaSen then why isnt $X^2 + 1$ an element of $R[X]$?
It is.
I just think it is good to mention the typical traps :D
$X^2 + 1$ and $(X^2 + 1)$ are different things
the first is an element, the second is an ideal
15:56
@DHMO NeverMind.
oh, i just realized... that by parenthesis
@meow-mix When you say $R[X]/(X^2+1)$, the $X^2+1$ there means $(X^2+1)R[x]$ or an ideal
you meant the ideal genereated by $X^2 + 1$
@Mahmoud any more question to share?
15:56
(A) is the ideal generated by the element A
sorry. i thought you were trying to make it look cleaner
Ideals are what you quotient your rings by, so...
ok ok
Is (A) a notation that is exclusive to the ideal or is $(-1)\in\mathbb{R}$ valid too? (in the latter i defenitly dont mean that the ideal is part of R)
15:58
It's a matter of context, to be fair. When I entered in chat and saw A!=(A) I was a bit perplexed until I looked at the entire history
Ah, I see now @TedShifrin where the well-definedness comes from. Anti-symmetry allows you to take all but one of the $v_1\wedge\dots\wedge v_k\in \bigwedge^k E$ to have arbitrary $L$-component (without modifying the result), so you get a well-defined map from $\ell\wedge [v_2]\wedge \dots \wedge [v_k]$ into $\bigwedge^k E$
Because in general contexts I'd say (A)=A just as a matter of notation.
@Semiclassical I see...
bad notation
maybe if they used [A] i wouldn't be confused
$A^{I}$ and avoid sets with name I?

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