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21:00
@Hiro really hiro. using programming is basically just going to be a way of automating the process of rolling the die and doing all the calculations yourself
If the sum had remainder 1, then the first throw was 1 or 25 (because $k\ge1$)and the last throw was 1, 9 or 25 because that means you've got to an even number.
unless you can somehow collect the data many times over and know how to do analysis of that large data pool, it's basically useless for the problem.
And all throws in between are 36s
and really, I'd imagine it would be more useful for seeing how many levels it goes down to
not necessarily what the final value would be.
tl;dr the software will be useless for this problem. Use algebra and calculus to solve it.
Thus the probability of getting k throws in this case is ${2\over 6}{3\over6}{1\over36^{k-2}}$
21:03
so that's the probability of getting k throws, so how can you manipulate that to get a sum? (# of throw * values obtained)?
Now if the sum had remainder 2, then you did the following scheme :
first 1 or 25
then a certain number of times you did 36
then you did either 4 or 16
then you did 36 a certain number of time again
then you did 1,4,9,16 or 25 and this leads you to a multipls of 3 or an even number
And the probability of making only one throw is ${4\over 6}$
Is there a way to make my question clearer?
-2
Q: How can I define alternate versions of the indefinite integral operator rigorously using set theory?

TheGreatDuckI am trying to define a generic version of an operator that acts exactly like an anti-derivative but takes two extra parameters defining certain policies it should follow. The first parameter has the slight minor change of someone reaching into its innards and telling it that some particular set ...

and does that work using the formula above?
I actually have an example of one of these operators in practice somewhere else. Someone write a paper with my permission describing how it works for that particular V and E and how to evaluate it. Would that be something I could include in my question to make it clearer what I want?
Therefore the probablity of getting k throws is ${6\over 36^{k-1}} + {(k-2)}{10\over36^{k-2}}$ if $k\ge 2$ and $2\over3$ otherwise
21:07
I managed to answer my own question with a bit of inspiration; however, I would still like my answer to sound clear to people reading it.
Wait a bit, my solution does not seem to work
yeah that's what i was wondering :P
rather than getting k=1, i am getting k=1.6 lol
Ughhh... this question is annoying -.-
Oh my stupid me
it's $1\over 6$ not $1\over 36$
hey @BalarkaSen still here ?
so ${6\over6^{k-1}}+ {(k-2)}{10\over6^{k-2}}$?
21:15
Okay so it works
No
${1\over 6^{k-1}} + {(k-2)}{20\over6^{k}}$
if $k\ge 2$ and $2\over3$ otherwise
and this represents what?
And this works
The probability of getting $k$ throws, ie the probability that you stop at step $k$
ok so we calculated the probability of getting k throws, now what about the probability that the sum is odd?
That's nearly the same proof
Could you explain what you did step-by step?
Cause I didn't quite understand what you did lol :P
21:20
It's $(k-2){2\over6} {2^2\over6^2} {1\over6^{k-3}}$ summed for $k\ge2$
ie $(k-2){8\over6^k}$
Okay so here it goes
@Hiro The remainder of the sum you had just before you threw the last dice was odd, and had either remainder 1 or 2 mod 3 right ? (for $k\ge2$, where $k$ is the step at which you stop)
why is it odd before the last roll?
Otherwise you would have stopped before
Since you stop when the sum is either odd or has remainder 0 mod 3
you stop when the sum is nonzero, either even or a multiple of 3 and is odd
Yes
or rather you stop when the sum is nonzero, and either even or a multiple of 3. Then you need to compute the probability that when you stop given that condition, the sum is odd
21:27
what books should i use to study field theory / galois theory in preparation of commutative algebra?
If the sum was even before you throw the dice, you wouldn't throw it again since you would have stopped then
ive already read the general topology section of Munkres
and taken abstract algebra up to some basic ring theory
but nothing past ideals, and the polynomial rings
But if it was odd, it could also possibly be a multiple of 3
meaning that you can also stop even if it's odd
so if the sum was 9 before the last roll, you'd stop because it's nonzero and a multiple of 3, not necessarily even
Let's move to another room no ?
oh we can do that?
how to move?
21:30
Hey all, I have a probability problem and I would like to know the method of solving it.
post away
10 people are presented with a binary choice with Option A and Option B. Person 1 has a 25% chance of picking Option B, Person 2 has a 30% chance, and so on, incriminating 5% each person (for simplicity sake). What is the total probability, in percentage, that at least 3 of these people will pick Option B?
Or simpler, *exactly three
I asked this in the forums but am also asking it here
22:04
We have that a mapping is bijective iff it has an inverse.
We have that the inverse of $\phi$ exists and it is $\phi^{-1}: g\mapsto x^{-1}g$, since $\phi \circ \phi^{-1} = \phi^{-1} \circ \phi = Id_G$.
Why exactly does it follow that when $g$ runs through $G$, so does $\phi(g)$ ? Is it because since $\phi$ is bijective we have that $G=\phi(G)$ and that $xg_1\neq xg_2$ for $g_1\neq g_2$? @robjohn @TobiasKildetoft @Astyx
@MaryStar Because for every element $g\in G$ there is another one $g'\in G$ such that $g=g'x$
Because $\phi$ is surjective
do we have partition of unity for complex manifold ?
Ah ok... I see!! Thank you very much!! :-) @Astyx
It's my pleasure ! @MaryStar
hey guys, what text should i use to study field theory and galois theory, in preparation for commutative algebra
ive already studied point-set topology w/ munkres
and group theory and basic ring theory in another book
particularly, i'll be reading A-M
for commutatve algebra
22:23
@meow-mix what language ?
22:34
english
I don't have references for lectures concerning that topic in english, sorry
alright
@MaryStar what could be missed? $\phi\!\left(x^{-1}g\right)=g$
I want to prove that $|\bar{F}:F|=\infty$ implies that the degree of the irreducible polynomials in $F[x]$ is unbounded, I know that's true but I have no idea where to begin with a proof, any hint?
23:24
@Adeek You should ping me with your question than asking everytime if I am available.
so I solved that question for the splitting it is easy.
Because if I am not, I'd just answer to it later. Otherwise you'll just waste unnecesary chatspace.
just choose inner product on V. Then consider $W$ as subbundle of V then $V = W (+) orth(W)$
$orth(W) = V / W$
I have now a question about definition of a vector field.
what is that a(p),b(p) ?
is that an interval ?
@Adeek Well you need to do it fiberwise, that's why you choose a metric.
yeah I understand the details etc but lazy to write it haha
23:28
@Adeek Yes, and interval in $\Bbb R$ which depends on $X$. You're defining the flow on a small neighborhood of $0 \times X$ in $\Bbb R \times X$
so what does it mean if a vector field is complete intuitively ?
I understand vector field in regular euclidean spaces.
let us look at $\mathbb{R}$ what does it mean that every vector field in $\mathbb{R}$ is complete ?
@Adeek Flowing along a vector field $X$ on a smooth manifold $M$ means you can move each point $p \in M$ along the integral curve of $X$ starting at $p$ and get a diffeomorphism in this process. There's no reason it can be done "for all time", which is to say, it's possible the integral curves will be sufficiently meddled up "far away" that you can no longer flow along it.
If you can, the vector field is complete.
oh ok that is very visually nice.
Also, on compact manifolds every vector field is complete.
More generally any compactly supported vector field is complete.
23:36
Hi @MikeMiller!
@Adeek Eg, in $\Bbb R$ flowing along the constant vector field "$X(p)$ = vector at $p$ of length 1 pointing to the right" is just translation, as it should. But not every vector field in $\Bbb R$ is complete (can you give an example?).
the flow of $x^2 = dx/dt$ is just $\psi_t(x) = x/(1 - tx)$ right ?
Flow of the vector field $X(x) = x^2$ is that, yes.
But can you visually see why it's not complete, without doing that computation?
yeah because as you said we could get meddled up as we move p along an integral curve in $\mathbb{R}$
there are many places to move.
23:43
That doesn't seem like a very precise picture to me.
Hi @Danu.
I don't see it visually yet @BalarkaSen I think I need to understand this more.
does anyone have any recommendations for an introduction to field theory / galois theory? particularly in preparation for M-A's commutative algebra
@meow-mix Allufi chapter 0, Hungerford, Dummit foote, artin. There are many books.
I really like allufi chapter 0 if you like category theory.
23:58
@Adeek I have to go to sleep now but what does the field $X(x) = x^2$ look like?

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