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17:01
For an actually nontrivial example I believe every space $X$ with $|X|>2^{2^{|B|}}$ where $B$ is the set of open sets should work
@BalarkaSen nice question.
@Alessandro You could probably ask on MO for the technical terminology.
I hope they're called trivially compact or something fitting like that if they have a name
@Adeek On a related note, have you become comfortable with transition functions yet?
17:05
yeah
Hello.
I was wondering.
Trivialize the moebius strip over two obvious open sets covering $S^1$. What's the transition function?
@Balarka I haven't solved this question yet. I will think about it after my exam on tuesday sounds interesting.
Why is $f(x)=e^x$ The most natural exponential ? Is it because it's slope is equal to the value of $f(x)$ at any given $x$ ? And what do mathematicians mean by the term $\text{natural}$ ?
@Adeek Well it's like the simplest example of transition functions so you better work it out. Good luck on the exams.
17:10
@Mahmoud I can give you many reasons, but they probably won't be too useful for you. What level answer are you hoping for?
@AliCaglayan Just try me $:)$
Actually let me try this way
@Balarka yeah I will work it out. By the way I was wondering where did you learn differential manifolds from ?
Lee ?
What other exponential function would you have in mind?
Natural you can think of as easiest/most obvious. Consider every other exponential function $a^x$ and take the derivative what do you get?
@Mahmoud
@Adeek Guillemin-Pollack, but it doesn't cover everything about smooth manifolds. I think I learnt more by talking to people than I learnt it from reading a specific book. I like it though.
17:15
yeah
I prefer G-P over Lee but I haven't read much of Lee thoroughly.
yeah it is a nice book.
@AliCaglayan Thanks, but I still need something else
You can think of taking the derivative as an operator, e^x is an eigenvector
What does Linear Algebra tell us about eigenvectors ?
17:20
@Mahmoud it is $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^n}{n!}$ if that isn't special enough
@Mahmoud what on earth do you need?
@AliCaglayan Yeah, no idea. It's not true even for finite-dimensional vector spaces that removing a bunch of points is homotopy equivalent to wedge of spheres though.
Eg remove $\{0, 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, \cdots\}$ from $\Bbb R^2$.
It seems random to me, why exactly the $n!$ and $x^n$ Why not something else @DHMO
Yeah removing a finite number is
@Mahmoud consider the fact that e.g. base 2 yields $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{(x\ln2)^n}{n!}$
Because ${d\over dx}{x^n\over n!} = {x^{n-1}\over (n-1)!}$ as long as $n\ge 1$
17:23
it is quite useful in calculus because of this property
Thus as @Astyx says every term in that series becomes the previous
Because $\cos x + i \sin x = e^{ix}$
And lots and lots of other very nice properties
@Astyx that's another nice property
which makes it useful in complex analysis
Being it's own derivative ? What is that so special ? Sorry for those questions.
@BalarkaSen suppose we consider the tautological line bundle over $\mathbb{P}^n$ complex project space of dimension n. Show that the only holomoprhic section of E over $\mathbb{P}^n$ is the zero section.
17:24
@Mahmoud there are only two function that are its derivatives
Well de facto this is how $\cos$ and $\sin$ are defined
TWO ?
@Mahmoud one is the exponential function; one is the zero function
What's the second ?
17:25
to be fair, the first one is $ae^x$ so the second one is just $a=0$
I'm a bit disappointed.
is it true any holomorphic functions from $\mathbb{P}^n$ to $C^{n + 1}$ is constant ?
That makes it very special.
Does this series converge? $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^3 \sin^2 n}$$
:33477164 Yeah I mean the finite case is easy, but the OP brings up a good point with removing the basis.
17:26
Yes
@Adeek Yes.
oh wow
lol
Any holomorphic function $X \to \Bbb C$, $X$ compact, is constant.
@DHMO Its bounded by $\zeta(3)$ and $-\zeta(3)$
@AliCaglayan but does it converge?
17:27
lol nice.
1 sec toilet
brb
No it isn't
This is actually just maximum modulus theorem.
Why would it be bounded between $\zeta(3)$ and its opposite ?
@Astyx nice point. @AliCaglayan why?
@DHMO because I type before I read
17:28
Good answer :)
excuses :p
I'd say it converges
Because of Abel Integrals
Ok just give me time :)
@AliCaglayan I'm wary of calling the finite case easy. But I guess you can still use Whitehead theorem (a version of it, IIRC, works for infinite dimensional manifolds) - $\pi_1 = 0$ by van-Kampen. $\pi_2 = H_2 = 0$ by Mayer-Vietoris plus Hurwitz. Do this for all $\pi_n$. That should say it's weakly contractible.
17:31
@BalarkaSen false. you ned some knowledge of topology for the first chapter exercises. Luckily i already have it, just saying
@BalarkaSen Yeah, i mean for the fundamental groups its easy. I have no idea about higher homotopies tho
@BalarkaSen Given that we have the tautological line bundle defined as $E = \{[z],w) \in \mathbb{P}^n\times\mathbb{C}^{n + 1} : w = uz \ for\ some\ u\ \in \mathbb{C}\}$
Wrong link
@meow-mix Ah, yes, I recall that. $\text{maxspec} C(X) \cong X$, right.
we want to show that any section $\sigma : \mathbb{P}^n \rightarrow E$ is the zero section.
17:34
It's just hard to imagine someone would learn commutative algebra without basics of algebra and point-set topology.
can we work with $\mathbb{C}^{n + 1}$ instead of E ?
@BalarkaSen
yeah :P
where $\sigma$ would be a holomorphic section.
@Adeek Yes. Given a holomorphic section $\Bbb P^n \to E$, compose with the projection $\Bbb P^n \times \Bbb C^{n+1} \to \Bbb C^{n+1}$ restricted to $E$.
@Astyx sorry for being impatient; any idea?
17:41
@AliCaglayan I mean, he's still removing an infinite number of points.
I mistook you series for a Hardy series, I'm looking for clues right now !
@Astyx I don't have any clues
@BalarkaSen so yes given holomorphic function $\sigma : \mathbb{P}^n \rightarrow E$. Then we can consider $\psi := \pi_1 \circ \sigma : \mathbb{P}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{n + 1}$. By maximum modolus theorem we have that $\psi$ is constant as $\psi$ can be realized as $f_1,...,f_{n + 1} : \mathbb{P}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$, therefore $\psi$ is constant.
You mean $\Bbb P^n \to \Bbb C$.
yes
17:44
You should prove that maximum modulus theorem implies that
I have never heard about maximum modulus theorem I will go check it out.
Didn't you cover that in your complex analysis course?
nop
our course was not very theortical.
I am gonna take complex analysis next year, which will be theortical.
Weird. That's one of the essential theorems in complex analysis.
ah, ok
alright, I have to run now
See you
17:52
How can I prove that a sequence is convergent, when the mapping that defines the sequence is not a strong contraction? E.g. $x_{n+1}=1+\frac 1 {x_n}$
@ahorn hint: if it is convergent, it must converge to either $\phi$ or $1-\phi$.
@ahorn You can see if $u_{2n}$ and $u_{2n+1}$ have the same limit (both sequence are monotonic and therefore have a limit or diverge to an infinity)
@Astyx except that it is false
@DHMO I lack ideas to solve your series, please notify me if you find anything ! :)
neither sequence is monotonic
18:02
Why not ?
why?
96
A: Are there any series whose convergence is unknown?

George LowtherIt is unknown whether $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^3\sin^2n} $$ converges or not. The difficulty here is that convergence depends on the term $n\sin n$ not being too small, which in turn depends on how well $\pi$ can be approximated by rational numbers. It is possible that, if $\pi$ can be ap...

happy april fools
Because $f:x \mapsto 1+ {1\over x}$ is decreasing
@Astyx no it is not
Over $\Bbb R_+$
@ahorn what is the domain?
18:04
I should have expected this :)
maybe someone can help me with this question.
I was just thinking that you might have some ideas if you don't know that it is an open problem
Show the only holomorphic section of E over $\mathbb{P}^n$ is the zero section.
Fair enough
where $E = \{ ([z],w) \in \mathbb{P}^n \times \mathbb{C}^{n + 1} : w = uz \ for \ some \ u \ \in \mathbb{C}\}$
18:06
If $y=\dfrac{ax+b}{cx+d}$, then $f(y)=\dfrac{(a+b)x+a}{(c+d)x+c}$
This reminds me of the Fibonacci sequence
Suppose $\sigma : \mathbb{P}^n \rightarrow E$ is a holomoprhic section.
I proved that $\sigma([m]) = ([u],c)$ where c is constant in $\mathbb{C}^{n + 1}$
also, $f^0(x) = \dfrac{1x+0}{0x+1}$
now why is $\sigma$ is the zero section.
therefore $f^n(x) = \dfrac{f_{n+1}x+f_n}{f_nx+f{n-1}}$ @Astyx @ahorn
How can one describe a class, highest in hierarchy, that is the super-class of all other classes, all of which derive from said class. How can one describe such class concisely and such that most mathematicians would understand?
18:09
You could see that $x_n \in \Bbb R_+$ for n large enough
I think
@Astyx ?
I was thinking of Supreme, because it also originates from "super-" but in most contexts refers to "highest", but I doubt most will understand this as typing it in Google doesn't show any relevant results. Any ideas?
@Astyx no, because $1-\phi$ is a fixed point of $f$.
also, $f(-1)=0$ and $f(0)$ is undefined
I was busy finding where the Weierstrass M-test is in my old Real Analysis textbook... just to jog my memory what that was about... I'm going to go to have dinner (g2g)
But still, sequence are monotonic beyond a certain rank
18:13
also, $f^{-n}(x) = \dfrac{f_{-n+1}x+f_{-n}}{f_{-n}x+f{-n-1}}$
so to find the starting point which would yield zero, plug $x=0$...
Since either they go to $\Bbb R_+$ after a certain rank and then stay there, either they stay in $\Bbb R_-$
the starting point would be $f^{-n}(x) = \dfrac{f{-n}}{f{-n-1}}$
which again converges to $1-\phi$
@Astyx so this statement is true
Can anyone have a look at this question:
1
Q: Another Problem Involving Finding the Number of + Integers Under a Given Variable with no even digits

HiroI've already asked a similar question to this, but I didn't quite understand the solution that was proposed. Fix $c\ge2$ an even integer. Find the number of integers less than $c^3$ which are divisible by $c+1$ and do not contain any even digits in their base $c$ representation. (natural general...

@Hiro It took me a while to realize that + means positive
oh, I'll edit it one sec
18:17
I misread it and derived another question:
Solve the diophantine equation $c+1 | c^3$
@Hiro e.g. let c = 10
do you know the divisibility test by 11?
not quite
alright
so do we simply plugin a value for c?
@Hiro no, it's just for exploration
oh okay
So is my initial approach correct:
The positive integers less than $c^3$ that are divisible by $c+1$ can be represented as $k(c+1)$ for $k=1,...,c^2-c-1$
18:20
@Hiro no, $(c^2-c)(c+1) = c^3-c < c^3$
why did you do $(c^2-c)(c+1$?
to show you that $k$ can also be $c^2-c$
so it stretches to $c^2-c$?
yes
and given that information, how am I able to find the number of integers? (Not really sure what to do)
18:23
let's go back to c=10
a number is divisible by 11 iff its alternate sum is divisible by 11, e.g. 71809 is divisible by 11 because 7-1+8-0+9 is divisible by 11
now, numbers less than c^3 only have 3 digits...
do you mean the maximum number of digits less than c^3 are 3 digits or ..?
yes
sorry i have to go now
oh ok but thanks for explaining
I think I understand it better now
Bye @DHMO
I'm arguing with a person that imaginary numbers really do exist. I told them the nomenclature didn't matter much, in fact I like calling them orthogonal numbers. He answered "yeah sure, orthogonal from reality"
18:35
@Sophie "exist"... The main problem is defining the term.
Yeah, do real numbers even exist ?
@Danu my volume was too high. I almost had a heart attack
do irrationals exist? what about negatives? you could provide superficial arguments against either. modern math considers sets with operations, one doesn't need an interpretation or real-world application of an algebraic structure to say it "exists." of course, the fun begins when we do actually find interpretations and applications, but they will require looking and reaching beyond the old interpretations and applications.
@Adeek You just proved $([u], c)$ is in $E$ for all $[u] \in \Bbb P^n$, for a constant vector $c$. What does that mean, definitionally?
18:39
Sorry I didn't copy/paste what I thought I had
is there some sort of formula to calculate the number of integers divisible by a number that are less than a specific number?
yeah I understand now I fixed my argument.
it is by definition how the elements of E look like.
e.g.--> numbers less than 1000 that are divisible by 11
@BalarkaSen Thanks.
18:39
@Hiro divide and round down
@Hiro $\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor$
what's floor?
rounding down
Integer part
i am not quite sure what that symbol looks like, one sec i'll check
18:40
@Hiro See this link
hey @BalarkaSen when we define a metric on each vector fiber it then it is same metric for each fiber ?
@Adeek No, why would it be the same on each fiber?
It just varies smoothly fiber-to-fiber.
oh ok
that is why we have for each section condition.
18:42
What do topologist do nowadays ?
That's the formalization of the smoothly varying condition, yes.
yeah ok
@Astyx What does that even mean?
You can just say that a metric is a bundle-map $E \otimes E \to \mathbf{R}$ which is fiberwise positive definite.
@Balarka, wanna help me with something easy?
18:45
@Danu I can't help you with most of the things you claim to be easy. But ask; don't ask to ask :)
That's not true
My standard for "easy" is below your level
for sure
Anyways
So let's consider a holomorphic line bundle on a complex manifold
And open sets over which it is holomorphically trivialized by $\psi_j$
(i.e. transition functions will be holomorphic)
Now Huybrechts has the following bit:
"On $U_i$, the Hermitian structure is given by $h_i:U_i\to \Bbb R_{>0}$, i.e. $h(s(x))=h(s(x),s(x))=h_i(x)\cdot |\psi_i(s(x))|^2$ for any local section $s$."
So the first equality is just the definition of $h(s(x))$, no problem
But the second weirds me out
it is so cool I am starting to understand what you guys are talking about @Danu
because there has to be a compatibility condition for $h_i$ and $h_j$ on $U_{ij}$
soon I will be able to understand complicated stuff in this chat haha
Since $|\psi_i(s(x))|^2$ will transform
18:50
I still don't understand floor functions, Wikipedia just talks about how it's related to computer science and shows the different calculations but doesn't explain the steps...
Because $\psi_{ij}=\psi_i\psi_j^{-1}=\lambda\in \Bbb C$
$\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor$ <-- how are floor functions related to the number of integers less than 1000 and divisible by 11?
So $|\psi_i(s(x))|^2=|\psi_{ij}\psi_j(s(x))|^2=|\lambda|^2 \psi_j(s(x))|^2$ on $U_{ij}$
So he at least needs to say that $\{U_i,h_i\}$ is a family of positive functions satisfying the necessary transformation condition, no?
Because $h(s(x))$ shouldn't depend on trivialization
@Danu Is "the" Hermitian structure he's talking about an arbitrary choice of Hermitian metric?
@Astyx Why did you say we use this equation: $\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor$ to calculate the number of positive integers less than 1000 but divisible by 11?
18:54
@BalarkaSen Yeah, I also don't like his usage of "the". Just pretend it says "a" :)
@Hiro because there are $\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor$ numbers between 1 and $\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor 11$ that are divisble by 11, and none between $\lfloor {1000\over 11}\rfloor 11$ and ${1000}$
hey @BalarkaSen ok I understand every part of this proof but why is the summation here makes sense ?
@Danu Give me a minute.
I mean we are summing over arbitrarily index
18:58
gotta go now
so why does the summation makes sense ?
@Adeek Because we're on a paracompact manifold.
Or rather, on a locally finite cover. Every point is hit by finitely many open sets.
can you explain more I never really understood that point I just took it as given.

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