« first day (2283 days earlier)      last day (3032 days later) » 

21:00
Oh ...
The final thing I got stuck on was ehh
@TedShifrin Yeah, should be $\partial_u(dx/y)=(x^2-x)(dx/2y^3)$
woops.
$F^T_\nabla v^*(w)=h(w,\bar F^T_\nabla v)$
Substitute for $y^2$ and simplify. But remember $g=1$ in this case, too.
oh, I know how to simplify it computationally. I figured out a method for that.
what I don't understand is the terminology
21:02
Anyways @Ted, I'm now putting in the last tiny details of my talk tomorrow
the one on Stiefel-Whitney classes (axiomatic, formal treatment in section 4 of MS)
Mostly catching typos in my notes :P
But there's a subtlety here. This comes from varying the curve, so it's not a holo differential on the curve, @Semiclassic.
$h:Q^2->Q$ $(x,y)\to x-y$ surjective? Let h(x,y)=a. x-y=a. x=a-y. Choose y=0. Then h(a,0)=a. And a and 0 are in Q. (otherwise the a is illchoosen, sorry for unrigorousity) is this sketch ok?
I have forgotten my variation of Hodge structure knowledge ...
Ah. That'd actually help, then---my confusion was why we had to use 2 basis differentials, when for g=1 the cohomology is 1D
so if that pushes us into the full de Rham cohomology H^1 (not just H^{1,0}) then I'm a bit happier
but yeah, this is hodge structure stuff. i might not be talking about it in those terms (i really don't know how) but I know it's all of this variation business
It seems to me we get a singularity. When I get home I'll have to look up Griffiths stuff.
21:06
Could be, yeah. There's a lot where I'm flying by the seat of my pants
Are you on your trip already, Ted?
Yup. Up at Stanford, moving to location #2 tomorrow.
Cool :)
The method I worked out for getting the decomposition into basis 1-forms is something I'm reasonably happy with, but I don't know how/if it can be done if my curve is a smooth plane quartic (i.e. not hyperelliptic)
There's apparently a reduction method that owes to Griffiths and Dwork, but it kicks my butt whenever I try to read it :/
I used to know VHS, but it's been 40 yrs.
21:10
Blu-Ray* is all the hype ;D
(just kidding)
Something along the lines of: For a given holomorphic 1-form, I can consider it as the residue of a holomorphic 2-form. It's apparently easier to do the reduction of stuff up there, because of Jacobean stuff
Not holo 2-form. Mero.
Probably right
That's the Poincaré residue I mentioned.
Yeah, I figured.
Doesn't mean I understood it :/
I mean, I've seen stuff like $\text{Res }(dx\wedge dy/f) = dx/f_y$
but I don't really understand it
21:14
But your calculation gives $(dx/2y)\cdot 1/(x-u)$, so we have a pole.
Hrm. That doesn't sound right.
Let me check the details.
For any (real) vector bundle $E$, the identity map generates a 1-dimensional trivial subbundle of $\operatorname{Hom}(E,E)$, right?
@Danu Isn't this then also an Automorphism?
We've got $f=y^2-(1-x^2)(1-u x^2)=0$, so $dx/f_y=dx/(2y)$
I'm talking the u partial.
21:18
getting there
@saturatedexpo Isn't what an automorphism?
@TobiasKildetoft let me rephrase: what is Hom(E,E). Is it NOT an homeomorphism?
and then $\partial_u(dx/y)=(x^4-x^2)(dx/2y^3)$
@saturatedexpo However, I didn't need the inverse. I was able to prove surjectivity by induction
@saturatedexpo No, that set is not a homeomorphism.
21:21
@TedShifrin Where would that have a pole? The only place where one could be is when $y=0$, and those are the branch points
@NaCl i'm interested, maybe post it as a topic or here?
you're right that it simplifies, though. becomes $(dx/2y)/(1-u x^2)$
but would that really be a pole, if there's already a branch point there?
oh, wait. bollocks
I've got two parametrizations of elliptic curves in my head, and I've switched between them
should've been $f=y^2-x(x-1)(x-u)$, ugh
You can always switch $dx/y$ to $dy/?$. But I'm not sure what's going on.
21:28
No, I mean I went from $y^2=x(x-1)(x-u)$ to $y^2=(1-x^2)(1-u x^2)$
thought I was using the latter earlier when I was actually using the former
that still gives $dx/f_y=dx/(2y)$, but now $\partial_u(dx/y)=(x^2-x)(dx/2y^3)=(dx/2y)\cdot 1/(x-u)$
which is what you had above
@NaCl what do you study?
My response is still the same, though. there's a branch point at $x=u$, so I don't see how $(dx/2y)\cdot 1/(x-u)$ would have a pole @TedShifrin
@saturatedexpo Computer Science. Are you online tomorrow? I don't really have the time to convert my handwritten stuff to TeX right now
So for now I'd stand behind that being holomorphic on the Riemann surface
yes i am. (ich freu mich drauf^^)
21:33
I'm not sure, but since the holo structure is varying, pretty sure this can't be holo anyhow.
@saturatedexpo Ok, thats good, as I need to submit my problem sheet tomorrow and there is still way too much left unsolved, lol
Wouldn't shock me
@NaCl which city?
How do I induce a Hermitian structure on a tensor product of Hermitian bundles? Simply by taking the product, i.e. $h_{1\otimes 2}=h_1\cdot h_2$ (in schematic notation)?
@saturatedexpo Saarbrücken. :D
21:35
@TedShifrin I guess this is what my puzzlement all comes down to. I know that the right phrase here is "Gauss-Manin connection" but that's an empty gesture
@NaCl no Düsseldorf. Cuz im too lazy to move haha
On basic tensors, @Danu. But then use bilinearity.
I see.
@saturatedexpo You study computer science as well?
But @Semiclassic, you have
$dx/y = 2 dy/(....)$ is holo, nonzero, and now you divide by $x-u$.
21:37
@NaCl no, i study math (und anwendungsgebiete). don't know which other field i will study. (i guess IT, but im not sure)
...huh. that's true.
@NaCl if there is any chance to study french as applied mathematics, i do that :) (hipsterlevel>9000)
@saturatedexpo aah, okay. Pure math is a bit too abstract for my taste
lol
Ah, but pole of order 2, it appears.
Yeah. So no residue.
21:39
But still not holo.
@NaCl only computerscience with no passion seems dry to me too ;) (and i dont have passion for that, altho i like the stuff in the newspaper)
@saturatedexpo haha, good point
@TedShifrin That might be enough, though. I can break that up into a polar part and a holomorphic part
hm, but
I know that there exist $A(u),B(u)$ such that $\partial_u(dx/y)$ and $(Ax+B)(dx/y)$ are cohomologous
I've calculated them before, so I'm confident on that
@NaCl my knowledge of computerscience is how to install linux. And that is probably even a littlebit offensive to computerscientists.
21:44
@saturatedexpo it is indeed offensive
(and the film terminator, good Lebenslauf)
I'm triggered
The basic tool I've used is to take a form like $dx/y$, and integrate it by parts to get (up to an exact form) $x dy/y^2 =-x f_x (dx/2y^3)$
i find it also funny if someone sais they have A grades in Abitur. because Abitur is like nothing compared to university stuff.
(kinda have to laugh at myself)
that and $dx/y= y^2 dx/(y^3)=p(x)(dx/y^3)$
i.e. expressing all of those in terms of $x^k(dx/y^3)$ and using that to work out those in terms of $dx/y$, $x(dx/y)$
21:48
@saturatedexpo That is as true as my bad grades in school
Remember, $g=1$, so one-dimensional holo coho.
hmm
I guess that confuses me as well. Does that mean $x(dx/y)$ also has a pole?
@NaCl Abitur is like: you know a little bit of everything. here you go.
yep
21:49
huh.
@TedShifrin I guess sesquilinearity
I hadn't expected that.
bbl, gotta catch transit
Sure, Danu, my sloppiness.
The complex conjugations will drive us all mad
Oh, I can use my phone for this. Right
21:53
@NaCl its dumb because in the early years children can learn the most. But you get bored with silly stuff you never use again. And then in university you got to learn a shit ton, but you cant because you are old.
And i still wait to see the man who buys 50 melons
@ted How do I see that it has a pole?
Look at $\infty$.
And, uh, where? Has to be at zero or infinity
Ah
Think I see it, yeah, upon doing z=1/x (I'm on a light rail train, so can't do pencil & paper)
Have to change y too, of course.
What is a nice way to highlight notes in Latex (which are also available in the PDF). Like ("Here we got to solve for x" or something like that, which to the experienced is redundand)
A better word might be "downlight". because the opposite of highlighting is meant.
22:03
@TedShifrin Showing that the curvature of the tensor product of two positively-curved bundles is again positive has devolved in a terrible mess of indices. Any nicer way?
I can probably just do it on a basis and avoid summing?
 Can't you use $\Omega_E\otimes 1 + 1\otimes\Omega_F$ and plug in vectors?
So the positivity condition I'm using is the one that asserts $h(\Omega s,s)(v,\bar v)>0$
Griffiths positivity
So I have to deal with Hermitian structures throughout
$(x,y)\mapsto(1/x,y/x^2)?$
I'm doing my algebra in the mobile prompt, so no guarantee
Meh, the indices aren't actually that terrible. I think I'm going to be okay.
That gives $x(dx/y)\mapsto -1/x(dx/y)$, so yeah. Pole.
22:14
Do you know who Doron Zeilberger is?
@Semiclassic, I had to think it through. Your COV seems right.
Kk
Could I then break that into a holomorphic form and a polar form?
My guess is no, since the other example was evidently meromorphic despite having no residue
22:29
$f(x)=1$ if x<1

$f(x)=2$ if x>0

Normally it's done with a bick squirly bracket.

How is such a list called?
A piecewise function?
Mmh, i don't mean the function itself, i mean the list defining the function.
if it has no name it's ok too to me ;)
Though the definition you give is inconsistent for 0<x<1
yes, but the function(or its consistensy) is not what i ask, its just an example. I mean the list defining the function.
Fair enough. But I don't really get what you're after. That list is the function
Take a look at the wiki page on such functions, maybe? en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Piecewise
22:35
Well, let me explain why i need a name for that. Does there exist a function with infinite entries on that list, that are not redundant. (my final question goes in such a direction)
@saturatedexpo Sure, just list every single value of the function separately
For a practical example, you could write an infinite piecewise definition of $\lfloor 1/x\rfloor$
There's a subdomain mapped to zero, another to one, etc
Hi chat
Suppose $C$ is a curve in the ordinary $xyz$-space defined parametrically by $x=\cos t,\, y=\sin t,\, z=\frac{1}{t};\; t\in\mathbb{R}$.
Does adding in the unit circle centered at the origin in the $xy$-plane "fill in" $C$ and make it "continuous" in some sense?
@Semiclassical then f(0)= undefined or infinity, f(0.1)=10, f(0.11)=9. Do you mean it that way?
Hi @Brody
22:49
Hi there @TedShifrin. How's it do?
Alive and kicking. Of course you mean $t\ne 0$.
Yes, I realized too late and couldn't edit in the change :P
$t\in\mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}$
So you're thinking about the curve spiralling down/up to $z=0$ as $|t|\to \infty$?
Uhuh, how it "coils" very very tightly near $z=0$ without ever touching it, like a removable discontinuity (but a curve rather than a point)
I guess the question is more about how to fix in the weirdness of an essential singularity (??)
@Brody but it is already continuous, or you mean t can be negative?
22:54
So putting in the curve makes a connected set but it's still not path-connected.
@Brody is it an essential singularity?
@TedShifrin Those terms I don't understand
@DHMO Maybe not. I recklessly borrowed the word
Yeah, you'll learn those words eventually. It just spirals, so you can never get to $z=0$.
Essential sing is totally the wrong word.
@TedShifrin why is it connected?
@TedShefrin lol, I was taking the rough concept from $\cos(x^{-1})$ around $x=0$, though it's not really the same phenomenon
22:58
isnt essential singularity for complex functions?
Yup.
@DHMO, because you're throwing in limit points of the set.
@TedShifrin but the limit points can never be reached
@DHMO @TedShifrin Oh. I read a forum post a while ago where someone said the region around $x=0$ for $y=\cos(x^{-1})$ is an essential singularity, or something like that
@saturatedexpo right, though I should've restricted to the domain $x>0$.
yes, when cosine is the complex cosine
23:00
For complex cos, yes, @Brody.
What is complex cosine, taking a complex argument?
Not removable, not a pole.
yes
Ok, thanks
@DHMO, have you learned limit points in analysis or topology?
23:02
i know what they are
Well, they're limits of points in the set.
sure
@Brody yes.
Speaking of, what can be said about the union of $y=\cos(x^{-1}),\, x\ne 0$ and the vertical line segment between $(0,-1)$ and $(0,1)$?
Connected, not path-connected :)
23:05
Ah, same stick. Thanks :)
@TedShifrin not to belabor it, but is there a way to write $1/x\cdot (dx/y)$ as a holomorphic 1-form plus a polar part?
@Semiclassical if if you did that. f(0.00000000...01) would still make no sense.
Write the Laurent series, as usual, near infinity, @Semiclassic.
@saturatedexpo What?
@Ted Apparently the 5 minute talk I'm giving has to be a beamer talk.
23:06
$f(10^{-n})=10^n$ is perfectly well-defined
my calc IV prof (last spring) mentioned "path-connected" in passing, can't remember the exact context though
@Semiclassical ah ok thanks :).
In 5 minutes that's all you can do (or slides), PVAL.
@TedShifrin I do not see how exp(1/(1-z)) being expressible with Taylor series can have anything funny happening when z=1...
Laurent series, not Taylor
Infinitely many terms with negative exponents
23:08
I don't see how there is negative exponents
You expand in powers of $z-1$.
right, i forgot that 1+z+z^2+... is not always convergent
what is its radius of convergence actually?
is there a MUST-Read on Operations?
@TedShifrin and why?
23:12
Plug in 1 and what happens?
But complex number?
Gotta go. Sorry.
@saturatedexpo yes but why?
always wondered why it's called a "radius" but I might've just caught up as to why
23:15
because it is a circle lol
actually a spiral, no?
i'm talking about z
ah well xd
@DHMO, as I just realized from @saturatedexpo's earlier comment :P
I took AP calculus in high school and haven't encountered series since, so all I know is how they work with real numbers
complex numbers complete real numbers
23:18
mmh, how is this thing called again?
1+z+z^2...
a series
a lot of ppl seem to hype up complex analysis as this wonderful tidy-up, so I definitely get the impression
@Brody look, powers isn't even closed on the reals
@DHMO, you're talking about $x^y,\; x,y\in\mathbb{R}$?
yes
23:21
geometric series
@DHMO yeah, that does seem unfortunate...lol
a geometric series with starting term 1 and complex ratio
@Brody also, can you imagine a continuous real function with image R\{0}? it is simply impossible on the reals
@DHMO Right
I highly anticipate getting to complex analysis. maybe then I'll finally get the hype around residues and fractals and such
yes mmhmm
@DHMO can you take the absolute value of complex numbers? (i mean you, not in math ;)) Then it's understandable why that is. (think first about real numbers like -1)
23:27
@topology
hmm, $\mathbb{C}$ doesn't seem to have "order" like the real number line does
perhaps unsurprisingly since neither does $\mathbb{R}^2$
Hi guys
is there a symbol for vertex adjacency in Graph theory?
@saturatedexpo no, I don't understand?
for example, we have a symbol for incidence
(lemme find it)
@Brody correct
23:32
$\Phi$ is for incidence
@DHMO if you plugin -1. The series converges by the lemma of absolute convergency. This Lemma is what you need to understand then. applieing it to complex numbers is rather easy
@Brody $\Bbb C$ has none that play well with both multiplication and addition. Certainly it has a nice ordering which behaves very well under addition.
so complex integral is actually line integral
@DHMO the continuous image of a connected space is connected
@saturatedexpo but that is for real numbers
23:34
"applieing it to complex numbers is rather easy" @DHMO Or do you have trouble at exactly that point?
@arctictern yes?
@saturatedexpo is rather intuitive, but not easy
@DHMO I thought you were asking if R\0 could be the image of R, sorry
I don't fully understand @PVAL-inactive. In what way should an ordering be compatible with a given operation? (mind that I'm murky on the formal definition of a total ordering)
@Brody what do you mean?
@DHMO I get the intuition behind a linearly ordered set. But when talking about fields, how do addition and multiplication come into play?
23:41
are links allowed to videos if they are ontopic?
@DHMO well here you go: khanacademy.org/math/calculus-home/series-calc/… can't explain it better
looking up the definition on Wikipedia, I see the gist now @DHMO @PVAL-inactive
you have to modulate
Hey there, do you guys provide wolfram alpha support?
@Brody how does addition and multiplication have anything to do with ordering?
@saturatedexpo any links are allowed
in 99% of cases wolfram alpha doesn't get you where you want to be. @Devilius
23:49
more info: Consider the following statement from "Pearls in Graph Theory" (Harstfield, Ringel):

"Two graphs $\text{G}_1, \text{G}_2$ with $p$ vertices are said to be $isomorphic$ if the vertices of $\text{G}_1$ and $\text{G}_2$ can be labeled with the numbers from 1 to $p$ such that whenever vertex $i$ is adjacent to vertex $j$ in $\text{G}_1$, then vertex $i$ is adjacent to vertex $j$ in $\text{G}_2$ and conversely.

Such a labeliing is the same as a one-to-one correspondence between $\text{V(G}_1)$ and $\text{V(G}_2)$ that preserves adjancency."
@Devilius but feel free to ask what you want to know
For example I could state:

Let $v_i \sim v_j$ denote that vertex $i$ is adjancent to vertex $j$ in some graph $\text{G}$.
@DHMO considering whether or not something can have a linear ordering, as apparently this relates to ordered fields
@DHMO my prof did make a nice graph, showing that the radius of convergence makes sense for complex numbers too. the problem: i cant remember it haha.
(it was a spiral)
So, I am trying to use the ForAll and Exists quantifiers together, but am having trouble. The following is my attempt, after reading through their docs, to enter the following: for all x, there exists a y, there exists a z, such that (for x, y, z all positive integers) x^2+y^2 = z
forAll[x, Element[x, Integers > 0],Exists[y,Element[y, Integers > 0],Exists[z,Element[z, Integers > 0],(x^2+y^2=z]]]
Anyway, I'm assuming I am not stacking the forAll and Exists correctly, but can't find any examples on how use them together.
23:54
That is abuse of math language. Just my opinion.
also that looks like one of fermats problems no?
I think if one knows Mathematica language (I don't), they would know this
may I also ask why you find that wolfram is not the way to go ?
because you try to proof something via computational power. and then pat yourself on the back?
(or verify)
@saturatedexpo I just wasted 5 minutes
23:57
Hi Devillus, you need to remember that $\forall$ and $\exists$ are not layerable.
@DHMO then it's not clear to me where exactly your problem is.
In fact we learnt that you never use them in the same statement
One is a symbol for universality, the other for existence
@Brody of course you can always define an ordering in C
lemme find you what my Discrete Math prof said about it
@BenjaminR no, e.g. the epsilon-delta definition of limit
23:59
ah. My discrete mathematics book "stacks" them
calls it "nested quantifiers"

« first day (2283 days earlier)      last day (3032 days later) »