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11:03
@BalarkaSen could you extend upon your idea?
11:29
@user4612744 what is cot?
cos x/sin x
So what is cot^2?
Simply (cos x/sin x)^2 ?
yup so what is 1 + (cos x / sin x)^2?
11:35
Lets simplify this to a problem you should know
I'm sorry, my trig is terrible.. a little brain-freeze right now
What is 1 + a / b
How would you write that as a single fraction?
a + b/b ?
yup
So what would a and b be in this context
cos^2 x and sin^2 x
11:37
Yes
So What would 1 + (cos x / sin x)^2 be
(cos^2 x + sin^2 x)/(sin^2 x)
You know something about sin^2 x + cos^2 x
what does it equal?
So then 1/ that would be
ah so we have 1/sin^2 x
11:40
yes but we still haven't finished
remember that is the bottom part of the fraction
indeed
so what do you get
1 multiplied by sin^2 x
Is that equal to the right hand side of the equation you are trying to prove?
so basically sin^2 x/ 1 on the left side
indeed :D
11:41
Ta daa
That's all there is to it
you are a brilliant tutor, thanks for helping out
No problem, any time
@Sophie have a look at this answer.
12:13
damn this thing is amazing
12:31
@Sophie You can also show that $\sum\limits_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac{(-1)^k}{z+k}=\pi\csc(\pi z)$
@Sophie If you look at the graph of cot(x) and the graphs of 1/(x-nπ) for a bunch of n it makes a bit of sense
0
Q: Area of triangle formed from equation of of its sides.

RamanujanThe area of triangle formed by the lines $$a_1x + b_1y + c_1z=0$$ $$a_2x + b_2y + c_2z=0$$ $$a_3x + b_3y + c_3z=0$$ Is $$\frac {\Delta^2}{2\lambda_1 \lambda_2 \lambda_3}$$ Where $$\Delta = \begin{vmatrix} a_1 & b_1 & c_1 \\ a_2 & a_2 & c_2 \\ a_3 & b_3 & c_3...

@DHMO help (^_-)
12:55
@robjohn hi
I need help in straight line
do you know the shoelace formula?
The shoelace formula or shoelace algorithm (also known as Gauss's area formula and the surveyor's formula) is a mathematical algorithm to determine the area of a simple polygon whose vertices are described by their Cartesian coordinates in the plane. The user cross-multiplies corresponding coordinates to find the area encompassing the polygon, and subtracts it from the surrounding polygon to find the area of the polygon within. It is called the shoelace formula because of the constant cross-multiplying for the coordinates making up the polygon, like tying shoelaces. It is also sometimes called...
Ok,t hen?
13:23
@Kaumudi You don't need two equations to get the focus of the parabola. You can use the fact that the focus lies on the same line as the shorted distance between the origin and the directrix. You have found the point $\left({1,1}\right)$ on the directrix from which you calculated that $a=\sqrt2$. Therefore, the focus would be at $\left({-1,-1}\right)$. However, it is good to learn from mistakes, so please include the two equations you found.
user228700
@DHMO: I don't even remember the question :| I'll get back to you.
user228700
Thanks :-)
yesterday, by Kaumudi
@DHMO: I have a quick homework-tsy question about parabolas.
yesterday, by Kaumudi
I've been asked to find the equation of a parabola whose vertex is at the origin and the equation of its direction is $x+y=2$. I figured it out, but the answer isn't correct :/ I found $a=\sqrt{2}$. Then, using the fact that the focus of this parabola is at a distance of $\sqrt{2}$ units from the vertex and $2sqrt\2$ units from the directrix, I found two equations to find the coordinates of the focus but I'm not obtaining real roots :/
yesterday, by Kaumudi
If I find the coordinates of the focus, since I already know the equation of the directrix, I can find out the equation of the parabola...
yesterday, by Kaumudi
@DHMO: Also, I've done all this only because from the equation of the directrix, it is clear that this parabola is not a standard parabola and will be tilted w.r.t the coordinate axes.
yesterday, by Kaumudi
I've also been asked to find the length of the latus rectum of this parabola, and this is given by $4a$, so I get $4\sqrt2$, which matches the answer given in my textbook.
yesterday, by Kaumudi
So Ik the value of $a$ is correct...
yesterday, by Kaumudi
Thoughts?
user228700
Omg. Dude!
user228700
I will get back to u. I am caught up with something at the moment.
13:32
alright
@Semiclassical Hi God
Pfft
Oh hey parabolas
That particular question seems to be in the realm of tedious but straightforward if you have a strategy
Use directrix + vertex to find the axis of symmetry, use that to get the focus, and then write down the definition of the parabola
is the notation $[x]$= the integer part of x common? I think $\lfloor x \rfloor$ is better
@Sophie both are often used
14:31
@Sophie Depending on convention, for $x<0$ one doesn't necessarily have $\lfloor x\rfloor =[x]$
For instance, is the integer part of -2.5 equal to -2 or to -3? The former is "the part of -2.5 before the decimal point", the latter is "the largest integer that doesn't exceed -2.5"
the latter is imo the correct convention; the fractional part should never be negative
So you'd want to confirm how the integer part is defined for negative numbers.
@MikeMiller convention cannot be correct
this is probably the mathematical equivalent of vim vs emacs
Well, the former has $[x]$ and $x-[x]$ as odd functions of $x$
14:39
@DHMO Sure it can. While two choices can give mathematically equivalent theories as a result, one might be consistent with older conventions or mean you have to use minus signs less.
just because a convention isn't "illegal" doesn't mean it should be used
@DHMO hi
hi
I have a little problem
I tend to think the integer part should be defined so that $[-x]=-[x]$, but only so that it fulfills a different function than the floor funvtion
Otherwise it's redundant.
14:44
0
Q: Area of triangle formed from equation of of its sides.

RamanujanThe area of triangle formed by the lines $$a_1x + b_1y + c_1z=0$$ $$a_2x + b_2y + c_2z=0$$ $$a_3x + b_3y + c_3z=0$$ Is $$\frac {\Delta^2}{2\lambda_1 \lambda_2 \lambda_3}$$ Where $$\Delta = \begin{vmatrix} a_1 & b_1 & c_1 \\ a_2 & a_2 & c_2 \\ a_3 & b_3 & c_3...

I dunno why I should use this formula,this formula like so strange to me
I know nothing about this
A formula being true doesn't force it to be useful
It might be useful in some contexts, but there's nothing mandating it
@Semiclassical it's useful
@Sophie you can easily compute $\zeta(2n)$ for $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, but it is an open question whether $\zeta(3)$ (Apéry's constant) is transcendental.
Then why are you asking why you should use it?
14:47
@robjohn this is wizardry
@Semiclassical When you get 3 equation of straight lines,to get area,you first need to solve equations in couple and get each points and then apply it on equation of area of triangle
@robjohn no, Apery proved it is irrational
that's why it's named after him
> It is still not known whether Apéry's constant is transcendental.
In mathematics, Apéry's theorem is a result in number theory that states the Apéry's constant ζ(3) is irrational. That is, the number ζ ( 3 ) = ∑ n = 1 ∞ 1 n 3 = 1 1 3 ...
but that is what I meant anyway
I'm not sure whether any other odd zeta values have been proven to be irrational
14:49
> Indeed, recent work by Wadim Zudilin and Tanguy Rivoal has shown that infinitely many of the numbers ζ(2n+1) must be irrational, and even that at least one of the numbers ζ(5), ζ(7), ζ(9), and ζ(11) must be irrational.
at least one of zeta(5), zeta(7), zeta(9) and zeta(11) is irrational
It seems unlikely that any of them would be rational, but that's not a proof
@DHMO The same can be done for Dirichlet's Beta Function at odd integers, $\beta(2n+1)$.
15:15
I'm currently writing up a question to post on MSE. If I've approached the problem in question in two ways, should I include both of them in the question, even if it's detrimental to the length of the post?
@teadawg1337 Can't really hurt. It's up to you how much detail to show, of course---you might give one of them in depth, and the other in a more cursory way
@Semiclassical My draft currently includes the rigorous method, and I'm explaining it in detail. I'm thinking about adding in the elegant method afterwards, but using less detail
I'm just worried about not garnering enough attention if it's too long
15:36
How am I supposed to state the negation of this? $\forall \epsilon > 0: \exists n \in \Bbb N: \forall i, j > n: \left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon$
$\neg \left( \forall \epsilon > 0: \exists n \in \Bbb N: \forall i, j > n: \left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon \right)$
$\implies \exists \epsilon > 0: \neg \left(\exists n \in \Bbb N: \forall i, j > n: \left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon \right)$
$\implies \exists \epsilon > 0: \forall n \in \Bbb N: \neg \left(\forall i, j > n: \left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon \right)$
$\implies \exists \epsilon > 0: \forall n \in \Bbb N: \exists i, j > n: \neg \left(\left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon \right)$
that whole thing is one statement?
yes
I mean
12 mins ago, by DHMO
How am I supposed to state the negation of this? $\forall \epsilon > 0: \exists n \in \Bbb N: \forall i, j > n: \left|{x_i - y_j}\right| < \epsilon$
This whole thing
@teadawg1337 You could approach it like this, then: Put the statement of the question in the text, and then include your partial progress as an answer to that same question
15:56
That's a pretty good idea!
Wouldn't that void me from being able to accept a different answer, though? It's been a while, I don't remember exactly how it works
Is anyone familiar with Cauchy Sequence as definition of Real Number?
I have a doubt about it
I have a sequence $x_n = \displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac1i$.
By the definition of Cauchy sequence, $\langle x_n \rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence
That is not correct.
Of course I know that is not correct, but my question is why.
> A sequence $a_1$, $a_2$, $...$ such that the metric $d(a_m,a_n)$ satisfies
$\displaystyle \lim_{min(m,n)\to\infty} d(a_m,a_n)=0$.
@MikeMiller Why does my sequence not match this definition?
16:11
@DHMO You're only considering $d(a_m,a_{m+1})$
@AkivaWeinberger sure, let's consider $d(a_m,a_{m+n})$...
You'd get a different response for $\lim_m\lim_nd(a_m,a_{m+n})$ and $\lim_n\lim_md(a_m,a_{m+n})$.
By which I mean $\lim_{n\to\infty}$ etc
multivariable limits...
The former is $\infty$, the latter is $0$
See, the deal is that the distances between $m$ and $n$ can get arbitrarily large.
so what is the formal way to state it?
16:16
The limit is larger than $A$ for any $A$ (and hence infinite), since for any index $N$ you give me, I can find $m$ and $n$ both greater than $N$ such that $d(a_m,a_n)>A$
the key point is that you can't fix $n$
which is what you wanted to do
You could make multivariable limits formal. Honestly, I feel that just makes it more difficult than it needs to be. Really, the good way to state the definition of Cauchy is the negation of what Akiva just said.
…Which I can prove by considering $m=N+1$ and $n=$the first number such that $a_n>a_m+A$, which exists because the series diverges to infinity
(re my last comment)
@MeesdeVries So $\forall \epsilon > 0 : \exists c \in \Bbb N : \forall m , n > c : d(a_m,a_n) < \epsilon$ ?
I believe so (but double-check me)
16:19
correct
Let's say $\langle x_n \rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence in $\Bbb Q$ and its limit is $x$ where $x \in \Bbb R$.
Yes. With the caveat that I would use $N$ instead of $c$, but of course that does not matter.
How could I prove that $\exists N \in \Bbb N : \forall n > N : |x_n| > 0$ if $x\ne0$? (Sorry for the edit)
I cannot simply substitute $\epsilon = x$ because it is in $\Bbb Q$, right?
by proving that in a cauchy sequence with limit $x$, $\forall \varepsilon > 0, \exists N : \forall n > N, d(x_n, x) < \varepsilon$
Hello everyone. I have been here for a while now but how can I make the fancy math format/notation when I post a question?
16:24
@MikeMiller I thought $d$ is also only in $\Bbb Q$
@NathanDrieling read room description
Take $\epsilon = |x/3|$.
@MeesdeVries still not rational
oh ;p sorry
Uh, fine. Then take some rational in $(|x/4|,|x/3|)$.
The distance function is defined on the reals.
16:26
@MeesdeVries the existence of rational between reals is dependent on this
Since you're working with an element of the completion of the reals, I see no reason not to use the induced distance function.
@MikeMiller but I thought everything about the Cauchy sequence is only defined in $\Bbb Q$ for now (except its limit)
Be precise about what your conditions are then. Have we constructed the reals yet? If not, what is $x$?
the limit of the sequence
So we do have the reals?
16:26
@MikeMiller how would you define?
@MeesdeVries but you do not have the fact that a rational exists between two reals
I'm with Mees on this. You should either tell us everything we need to know to answer your question, or not expect an answer.
Do we have the archimedean property of the reals?
I'm proving the existence of inverse
@MeesdeVries yes but you don't have inverse
No inverses of reals, but inverses of (non-zero) rationals, right?
yes
16:28
So, then, pick some $\epsilon$ in $(0,|x|/4)$.
By the Archimedean property.
wait
Then you get an $N$ out of the definition of Cauchy, and then comes some triangle inequality magic.
@MeesdeVries how to use Archimedean property here?
That... is precisely the Archimedean property? If $a > 0$ then there is an $n$ such that $\frac1n \in (0,a)$.
So take $\epsilon = \frac1n$.
wait
the form I know is that there is $n$ such that $n > \dfrac1a$
16:31
OK. Well, do we have ordered field axioms yet for $\mathbb R$? Because you can derive my version pretty easily then.
but we don't have the existence of $\dfrac1a$ for that matter
You do for rationals.
but $a$ is not rational
Then you need to formulate what it means to have the archimedean property for you, if you haven't assigned meaning to $\frac1a$ yet.
Maybe that there always exists an $n$ such that $an > 1$?
@MeesdeVries the thing is
we are proving that $\Bbb R$ is a field
so whence ordered field
16:34
Uh, OK. Ordered ring then.
I think that does not matter too much, probably.
We do have addition, subtraction, multiplication, right?
Also, side note: this is why I recommend defining $\mathbb R$ by Dedekind completion, and not via Cauchy sequences.
@MeesdeVries I believe so
OK. Then what is the Archemedean property that we have?
For any $a$ there exists $n>a$
That... doesn't sound like the Archimedean property to me. So we have to prove an "actually useful" version first?
my mind is now all over the place
16:39
what book are you learning this from, @DHMO
@MikeMiller the internet
so I'm going to suggest that if you want to learn analysis, find an analysis book
@MeesdeVries why isn't it obvious that there exists $N$ such that for all $n > N$ we have $|x_n|>0$
@MikeMiller sure
it is obvious, but you still need to write down a proof
yes
and how on earth am I supposed to prove that
16:40
It depends on what you mean by "obvious".
I mean "intuitive"
The difficulty with writing proofs of very basic things is often being very clear about the things you are allowed to assume/have already proved, and go from there.
OK, but you say I am not allowed to use (my version) of the Archimedean property. Is that not "obvious" for you?
alright, it wasn't a point.
Well, once you are allowed to pick $\epsilon$ some number in $(0,|x|/3)$, the proof becomes pretty easy. One or two applications of the triangle inequality.
yes
provided that you can pick
16:43
And you do not find this obvious?
I do
but I cannot
How do you induce $d$ to $\Bbb R$ anyway
What do you mean "I cannot"?
never mind
If you have defined $d$ on $\mathbb Q$ and $\mathbb R$ and limits properly, then you can define $d(x,y)$ for reals $x,y$ by taking representing Cauchy sequences $\langle x_n\rangle, \langle y_n\rangle$ and setting $d(x,y) = \lim_{n \to \infty} d(x_n,y_n)$.
But, if you're doing this to construct the reals, of course you cannot do that yet.
exactly
16:48
You can work around that, which is where we've been going. But, yeah: that is a lot of work.
Unsurprisingly, constructing the reals from first principles, a project which took historical mathematicians decades,is not trivial ;-)
indeed
@BalarkaSen What are you doing?
$5^x$ = -1 mod 27. How would you find the discrete log x?
17:04
Trial and error? :p
The answer is 9, if you are curious
17:15
What's a Ring?
In Discrete Math?
Probably the same thing as in algebra. A set of things you can add and multiply, and which obey some sensible rules about addition and multiplication.
Is Z18 a ring?
Z18 is a vague term
If you mean $\mathbb Z/18 \mathbb Z$, then yes, it is
Any $\mathbb Z/n \mathbb Z$ is
How do you know it's a ring?
Because we can define addition just as we do in $\mathbb Z$ and the same with multiplication
Then we check the axioms for a ring
17:28
By defining operations $+,*$ on it, and giving elements $0,1$ in it, and showing that the ring axioms are satisfied for these.
It's a bit tedious, but clearly doable
I just started learning it and am terribly confused.
Do you know what a group is
So you can see $\mathbb Z /18 \mathbb Z$ as an Abelian group under addition
Now a ring, you can see as a group with an extra operation: multiplication
It is probably clear to you how we should multiply two elements from $\mathbb Z/ 18\mathbb Z$
It is not immediatly clear why this is a ring, then, as it needs to satisfy some extra axioms
For some reason, the Dutch wikipedia article for Ring is linked to the English wikipedia article for Rng. Confusing
17:33
if i prove that injectivity and surjectivity of f,g implie inj./surj. of $g\circf$ is the same for bijectivity automaticly proven?
$g\circ f$
@DemCodeLines Wikipedia explains it a lot better then me, really
@saturatedexpo Not automatically, but easily, yes.
Hello I have an extremely stupid question regarding complex numbers. I always thought $i^2 = -1$. So how is the following possible:

$\frac{i}{i-0.5} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1^2 + 0.5^2}}$
Am I missing something?
@MikeMiller Schoolwork.
@privetDruzia The rule $\sqrt{a}\cdot\sqrt{b}=\sqrt{ab}$ holds for $a,b \in \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$, not in general
I wish there a place that showed step-by-step for these problems.
17:37
@Krijn I understood what you wrote but don't see how that relates to my question.
@privetDruzia Oh, sorry, I misunderstood your question, I thought you were doing something different
I don't see how you get that equation though?
@Krijn neither do I...
It's not true, is what I mean
Indeed but that's what is written here in front of my eyes.
Haven't smoked any weed as far as I know.
I can't help you with that, then
17:41
@privetDruzia Yeah, that equation's not true
@AkivaWeinberger that's what I think as well, but for some strange reason our teacher wrote that. It had to do with vector magnitudes.
$i/(i-0.5)=0.8-0.4i$
let me rephrase my question: if i, speratly, prove that injectivity of f,g implied injectivity of $g\circ f$. And then prove the same for surjectivity. Why dont i have proven the same for bijectivity already?
@privetDruzia Are you sure there aren't supposed to be absolute value bars around the left hand sign
Like,$$\left\lvert\frac i{i-0.5}\right\rvert$$
analyzing it...
cannot decypher it...
17:44
Do you know what absolute value means for complex numbers?
the magnitude of $\frac{i}{i-1/2} = 1,12$ ?
Does that make any sense?
Not to me.
@AkivaWeinberger No sorry, I am really not used to work with complex numbers in that way.
Do you know the complex plane?
The absolute value of a complex number (usually called its "magnitude") is defined to be the distance between it and $0$ on the complex plane.
Notice that that is the same as the absolute value you're used to when we're taking the absolute value of a real number.
ok makes sense, in other words the magnitude.
17:49
By the Pythagorean Theorem, we can show that $|a+bi|=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$.
Also, the rule $\lvert a\rvert\lvert b\rvert=|ab|$ still works, though it's not obvious why.
but in my case why are we only applying pythagoras theorem to the denominator?
to find the magnitude.
We also have $|a/b|=|a/b|$. Thus, $|1/z|=|1|/|z|=1/|z|$.
$\frac{i}{i-1/2}$ .... $\sqrt{1^2 + (1/2)^2} = 1.12$
17:51
It's the reciprocal of that
It ends up being $1/\sqrt{1.25}=2\sqrt5/5=.89443$
@AkivaWeinberger Could you please explain what happens at "..." ?
nothing more.
I know the length of the i vector = 1.
$ $\begin{align}\left|\frac i{i-0.5}\right|&=\frac{|i|}{|i-0.5|} \\&=\frac1{\sqrt{1^2+(-0.5)^2}}\\ &=\frac1{\sqrt{1.25}}\end{align}
One moment
There. Is it rendering now?
yes.
seems incorrect. The answer is 1,12
not 0.89
17:56
You sure?
yes
very sure.
That's the reciprocal…
Maybe it's supposed to be $|(i-0.5)/i|$
I don't want any side roads. Just the straight and immediate way to get 1,12.
@privetDruzia The right-side of the equation you wrote here is 0.89
No it is not because it s written twice the same. I wrote two times the same thing on different days.
17:58
23 mins ago, by privetDruzia
Hello I have an extremely stupid question regarding complex numbers. I always thought $i^2 = -1$. So how is the following possible:

$\frac{i}{i-0.5} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1^2 + 0.5^2}}$
Hm. Maybe you didn't do the last step of the division. I dunno, ask a classmate
I have another example based on the same principle. I think that might clarify it.
$H = \frac{1}{2}(1-i)$
$|H| = \sqrt{2}$
@AkivaWeinberger does that make sense to you?
Um. That's the reciprocal of the right answer again… or you forgot the $\frac12$
Hi can you look on my proofsketch? Already proven: f,g are injective$\to$ $g\circ f$ is injective. f,g are surjective$\to$ $g\circ f$ is surjective. To show: f,g are bijective$\to$ $g\circ f$ is bijective. Proof: f,g are bijective$\to$ (f,g are surjective) and (f,g are injective). Therefore $g\circ f$ is also injective AND surjective. Bijectivity follows from definition.
It's also twice the right answer
@AkivaWeinberger Could you please show me how you calculated it for the last one?
I tried $\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{1^2 - 1^2}$ but that obviously results in zero...
18:04
$|H|=|\frac12(1-i)|=|\frac12||1-i|=\frac12\sqrt{1^2+1^2}=\frac12\sqrt2$
Remember $(-1)^2=1$
oh ok I seem to mess that up every time
$1-i=(1)+(-1)i$. You add the squares of those.
Also $\frac12\sqrt2$ can also be written as $\frac1{\sqrt2}$
but people don't like roots in the denominator so the first is better
shouldnt the square root 2 be on top in stead of in the denominator?
Yeah
They're still equal though, $\frac12\sqrt2$ and the other thing
Maybe I'll write down a proof of the fundamental theorem of algebra in my school project.
18:10
@BalarkaSen do you explain it in Laymans terms to the class?
After further "analysis" I'd rather write it as: $'|\frac{1}{2}| |1-i| = \frac{1}{2}\sqrt{1^2 -(i)^2} $

$ = \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{1^2 -(-1)}$
$= \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{2}$
Do you concur?
@saturatedexpo The statement of the theorem is quite understandable.
the statement yes, the proof probably not @BalarkaSen
Someone tell me a bedtime story.
@MikeM: Strongly recommend Hedgehog In The Fog for a short, nonmathematical bedtime story.
18:14
@BalarkaSen Maybe write down six
@MikeMiller I've a doubt
@privetDruzia To see if you understand — compute $|3+4i|$ and $|3-4i|$
They should both be equal to $5$.
not the first one in my case...
$\sqrt{3^2 + 4^2(i)^2}$ = $\sqrt{9-16}$
for a fixed genus consider $S_g$ bundle over $S^1$. For given any element $f\in Mod(S_g)$ we can have a maping torus $M_f$ corresponds to this. Now It is easy to show that if %f,g$ are conjugate in $Mod(S_g)$ then they $M_f$ and $M_g$ are actually homeomorphic.
but is the converse true.
@privetDruzia You're not supposed to have $i$ in there.
18:19
Moreover can we classify all these $S_g$ bundle over $S^1$ by some speical class related to Mod(S_g)?
The first is computed as $\sqrt{3^2+4^2}$ and the second as $\sqrt{3^2+(-4)^2}$. @privetDruzia
It will help to draw them on the complex plane.
Remember that the magnitude is the distance to $0$.
@AkivaWeinberger why 6 in particular? (number of proofs)
@MikeMiller there was a latex typo in my last msg... As you can see if $f,g\in Mod(S_g)$ are conjugate then $M_f$ and $M_g$ are homeomorphic. So is the converse true?
@AkivaWeinberger Are you supposed to just neglect the 'i' ?
I found a book in a library once that was six proofs of the FTA and the necessary background to each proof @saturatedexpo
Two from algebra, analysis, and topology each (if I recall correctly)
@privetDruzia Yes. Drawing it will make it more clear
18:23
If not, can we give some more stronger restriction on $f,g$ s.t $M_f$ and $M_g$ are homeomorphic?
Gtg
@privetDruzia You might as well also neglect the $+$/$-$ sign, it changes nothing
Hello.
Hi, I am a lowly intruder who knows nearly nothing about mathematics. I hail from English Language and Usage with some questions regarding regarding the word vinculum I think you folk might know better than my peers: First would you please tell me if any of you would recognize the word vinculum offhand? Also, if you can recognize it, would you also give me a personal opinion as to whether it can be used as a synonym for fraction bar, or if it is restricted to binding the order of operations?
I recognise the word vinculum, but only know what it means after you've mentioned it. (But, I am an ESL speaker.)
Actually, on opening Wikipedia to be sure, I did not know what it meant. I thought you meant that it was a word for the symbol $\div$.
18:40
Use "fraction bar" instead @Tonepoet
Wait, no, that's not what vinculum means @Tonepoet
Use overbar.
Or just bar.
Is $y=f(x) \iff (x,y)\in f$ ?
For the common encoding of functions in ZFC, yes.
Does it mean that $f$ is the set of all possible pair constructed from the domain and range of the function ? @MeesdeVries
If you have $f : X \to Y$, then $f$ typically does not consist of all pairs $(x,y)$ where $x \in X, y \in Y$ (that would be $X \times Y$), it consists of all pairs $(x,y)$ for which $f(x) = y$.
So can we deduce that $f=\{(x,y) / f(x)=y\}$ ?
And please correct my symbol for ''Such that''
18:48
Hmm, the reason I'm asking is because I am getting some conflicting data from different sources. I'm not sure if I know any better now than I did before but I think your opinions will be helpful for my purpose regardless. Thank you @MeesdeVries and @AkivaWeinberger .
@Tonepoet, for what it's worth, at least two mathematicians do not know the word, so stay away from it in text that is supposed to be easy to understand, if you can.
@Anubhav I think so, but it's nontrivial.
@Mahmoud, sure, if you want. But really, in formal ZFC, $f(x) = y$ is just a shorthand for $(x,y) \in f$, so this is pretty trivial. Also, you can make the vertical bar in your set builder notation with \mid.
Or maybe I don't think so.
$\mid$ ^_^ Thank you @MeesdeVries But if $f$ is considered to be a set, why do we write $f(x)$ this way ?
18:53
For convenience. ZFC came after most of mathematics. It makes more sense to think of ZFC as a language in which we encode (already existing) mathematics, than to think we started from ZFC and built mathematics from there.
Thanks @MeesdeVries again $:)$
I think I'd prefer "overline" in text and "bar" in real life.
Everything is a set in ZFC but it's usually not very productive to think about mathematical objects in the way they are formalized there (also because there could be other formalization where, just to make an example, "function" is taken as primitive) @Mahmoud
Thank you @Alessandro $:)$
@Anubhav I think a discussion of the Thurston norm will show that you can have many different ways of fibering over the circle, even with fixed fiber. See eg here for an intro.
19:31
Why should it be "obvious" that a linear map between finite-dimensional normed spaces is bounded before one has discussed the operator norm or equivalence of norms?
What does it mean to be bounded without discussing the operator norm?
That is to say, I would say $F: V \to W$ is bounded if there is a constant $K \in \mathbb R$ such that for all $v \in V$ with $\| v \| \leq 1$ we have $\|F(v)\| \leq K$, but that is already basically the definition of the operator norm.
19:51
@MeesdeVries $||L(x)||\le c||x||$.
I mean, without knowing that the operator norm is the largest singular value
Did you know that scientists found the constant of the best duration to cook pasta ?
It's called the Euler-Macaroni constant
bye

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