Hey, guys, I have a quick question about matrices exponentials and eigenvalues. Why is it valid to do $\exp(U (-i\Lambda) U^H)=U \exp(-i\Lambda) U^H$ in the following answer? Is this correct for any matrix $A$ or just for hermitian and anti-hermitian $A$?
http://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/1234/matrix-exponential-of-a-skew-hermitian-matrix-with-fortran-95-and-lapack