@Ted I saw your message from a couple days ago and was hoping to find you online yesterday, but you logged in shortly after I went to sleep... the timezones aren't working in my favour here
I want to prove that if |z|=1 the sequence ${z^n}$ does not converge except z=1. Proof: if argument of z is rational multiple of π then it is periodic if it is irrational multiple then $z^n=e^{iqnπ}$ where n=natural q=irrational , and simply say that this goes to infinity as n goes to infinity?So it diverges.
Yeah, my idea is to identify $S^{n-1}$ with $S^{n-1} \times {0} \subset \mathbb{R}^n \times {0}$, and then it becomes easy to construct a path between any two points
@ManolisLyviakis The intuition is that if $z$ lies at some rational angle, it's a root of unity, so after every so many rotations, you end up back at z
So it can't converge, because no matter how far out you go, you're ending up somewhere different on the circle than $z$
If it's at an irrational angle, you will densely fill out the unit circle
@ManolisLyviakis you need some argument that if the arguments of your complex numbers differ by more than $\delta$, the modulus $|z^n-z^m|$ will be greater than $\epsilon$
Then take a converging sequence, which is always a Cauchy sequence. Then from some $N$ onwards, $\|(n+1)\theta - n\theta\| < \epsilon$ for all $n > N$.
you can solve a diophantine equation on a smaller ring instead of the "rich" C .where you dont have to investigate all the cases you may have in C
also you can see diophantine equations as curves and try find integer roots .but that is something algebraic geometry does. Im not close to that either.
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the fermats theorem was solve with a connection of elliptic curves and diophantine eq.
@ManolisLyviakis This sort of physical understanding has not been very helpful in my understanding of the real mathematics, but maybe I can say some things
@ManolisLyviakis There is this thing called the wedge product on forms $\wedge$, and you can construct $n$-forms by taking wedge products of lower degree forms
They are elements of the $n$-fold exterior product of $T^*M$. Aka, are alternating multilinear maps $TM \otimes \cdots \otimes TM \to \Bbb R$. That is, it eats $n$ vector fields, and spit out smoothly varying scalars.
The "alternating" thing can be interpreted as it encodes signed area of infinitesimal cubes ($n$ vectors) while eating them.
I guess this partially explains the attitude of some physics students who switch to math: They try to be very "rigorous" (end up being pedantic) as a sort of reaction to the years of vague explanations
@Semiclassical Do you know if the Jacobi theta function $\vartheta_{3}(0,q)$ has an asymptotic expansion as $q \to 1^{-}$ that would help explain why the integral $\int_{0}^{1}\vartheta_{3}(0,q) \, \mathrm{d}q $ converges?
@Danu Eh, I guess one needs to rigorously check that under all the identifications made, the relative cup product map is the same as the actual cup product on $H^1$. But that's not hard: the map $H^1(X) \times H^1(X) \to H^2(X, X)$ is just given by inclusion of $C^1(X) \times C^1(X)$ into $C^1(X, U) \times C^1(X, V)$, composed with the usual cup product map, to $C^1(X, U + V)$, with the inclusion to $C^1(X, U \cup V)$ (which is how the construction of rel. cup product goes).
The composition of the first two maps is clearly the same as the usual cup product. Postcomposing that with the third map doesn't matter, as it's an isomorphism on homology.