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01:00
@Jake1234: You might look at section 1.3 of my notes and read a little about the tangent indicatrix and Fenchel's Theorem and Fary-Milnor. Gauss-Bonnet is all about surfaces, not curves.
Hi @Ted. Did you see the question about degree and divergence?
Ah, great, you had a simple example. I had a picture but was having trouble writing down an honest function realizing it.
Working here, 04:15 am.
 
2 hours later…
03:04
Hello, off topic algebra. When constructing Galois automorphisms on a splitting field $\mathbb{Q}(a,b)$ by defining their image on the generators, how does one show that these maps extend to automorphisms of the Galois group?
 
2 hours later…
05:10
@user1618033 keep getting us updated with ur rss feeds
 
2 hours later…
07:34
@Agawa001 I'm exhausted. These days I submitted the most important papers in my all mathematical activity.
08:12
Hey, can someone assist me with transformations again?
It should be quite simple.
I'm trying to find the transformation matrix $A$ from a transformation: $T:R^{2} \rightarrow R^{2}$/
If $L/K$ is a field extension, is it automatically assumed that $L>K$ or is it also possible that $L=K$?
which definition is more widely accepted
All I'm given are two sets of vectors and their images.
Apparently I need to break down the images into what happens with the standard vectors. But I'm not sure what I do after that.
@Owatch What is given your specific case?
Is there an easy way to write vectors in latex?
It's whats making me avoid trying to write this in chat, since I use ugly ascii formatting.
Anyways, the transformations are:
{1,0} -> {2,5}. {0,1} -> {-1,6}
I would just say use points, like $(1,2,3)$. You can also use \langle and \rangle to get brackets or make a column matrix with \begin{pmatrix}, but this is probably easiest.
OK as for the question, I would say the best way to approach it if you're still learning the concepts is to first write out your matrix $\begin{pmatrix} a&b\\c&d \end{pmatrix}$.
08:20
I've tried writing out what happens to $e_{1}$ and $e_{2}$.
Then solving for:
$2e_{1} + 5e_{2}$ and $-e_{1} + 6e_{2}$.
But it got me nowhere.
Then multiply that general matrix by your two given vectors (1,0) and (0,1). You will get some expressions in a,b,c and d. Since you also know what the images are equal to, you have a system of equations. Then you can find the values of a,b,c,d.
I don't know what you mean.
I just get.
{a,c} = {2,5}. {b,d} = {-1,6}
What is there to solve?
Yeah you're almost done. So you have a=2, c=5, b=-1, d=6. That's your matrix.
You can double check by multiplying that this gives you your transformation.
But I've done no solving..
Probably because input is standard...
Exactly, if the input vectors were more "random" you would have to solve a linear system of equations.
08:30
So then what is the method with standard vectors supposed to do?
This one gives me them as input, but many do not. And I'm somehow to decompose it into standard vectors and then use that to find the transformation matrix.
Same method?
The same method works, yeah. You can try it with nonstandard input vectors. The system of linear equations won't be "trivial" anymore but you will get the matrix.
And as you are solving the system of linear equations, you will implicitly solving for the standard input vectors, which is what you were trying to do above.
So for ex if your problem is finding the transformation from (1,1)->(2,5) and (2,3)-> (-1,6) (no idea if this will end up ugly)
I'm going to try another with nonstandard input.
Yes do that, I think it will illustrate the process much better.
So I've got one for: $T: R^{3} \rightarrow R^{2}$/
With: T({0,-2,0}) = {6,2}. T({-1,2,0}) = {6,0}. T({1,2,3}) = {0,-1}
Not sure how to solve the system of linear equations.
08:58
Yeah I do not know.
It's: T({0,-2,0}) = $-2e_{2}$. T({-1,2,0}) = $-e_{1} + 2e_{2}$. And T({1,2,3}) = $e_{1} + 2e_{2} + 3e_{3}$/
But then what..
09:16
Good god this is the most frustrating thing ever.
@robjohn there is a question that bothers me these days. I'm not sure I can get more than I got lately.
 
1 hour later…
10:25
@user1618033 important papers in which sens ?
@Agawa001 In the sense to publish something never done before at such a level of simplicity - something very hard - I won't share the details at this point, but later.
Also some stuff that was not known so far - never published before in articles, papers.
In one of the proofs if $\sum_{k=1}^\infty = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ we consider an infinite polynomial and try to look at its roots and find some relation to the above sum using sum of roots. That made me think that does the fundamental theorem of algebra also apply to infinite polynomials. By infinite polynomials I mean polynomials of the form $a_0+a_1x^1+a_2x^2+\cdots$. I think so it might (I have tried a few examples) but is there any rigorous way to prove it?
@Agawa001 I don't think that I slept more than 3 hours this night. The point is that I still need energy to finalize some of my stuff which cannot wait.
My examples include Taylor series of functions such as $\sin,\cos$
@user1618033 are yu planning to quantify some abstract value in irrational field ?
10:32
@Agawa001 Now I plan nothing, let me sleep some more before making plans. :-)
or maybe bound an abstract limit
planning to sleep is the most famous and effective and wonderful plan in this lived world
3
:-))))))
Max
Max
11:08
Hi
does anyone know where i can find the source for this theorem?
Mean Value theorem for vectors (with integral)
postimg.org/image/ag37j6l3v/
I've got another question.
In computing the determinant, may I move row vectors to different locations?
Say I've got a second row of a matrix: 4,0,0,0,5
May I move that up to the first row, and compute with it instead?
Actually, I can just start with any row I want.
So never mind that.
11:32
hey, i've a question. e.g. i've several weather-stations (200) across the country.
But i want to assign the temperature to every municipalities (508).
thus, i want to calculate the average temperature of an unknown municipality based on the distance and their closest 4 neighbours.
for 2 municipality, this is quite easy -> α * temp_A + (1-α) * temp_B
whereby alpha α = temp_A / (temp_A + temp_B)

But i don't know how you can do something like this, for multiple C D E stations
@Owatch if you swap(one swap) rows of a matrix and calculate its determinant it will be negative of the determinant of the original matrix you started with
@Albas No, it doesn't. Euler's original proof was non-rigorous. You need Weierstrass' factorization theorem.
12:20
Can I apply $log_2$ on every member of equation? For example I have
$$2^{x^2}+2^x = 3$$
Can I wrap every member on logarithm to get:
$$x^2 + x = \log_2{3}$$
Or do I have to wrap sides of equation, to get:
$$\log_2{x^2+x} = log_2{3}$$
 
2 hours later…
13:55
@user1618033 which question is that?
@TomášZato You can do neither. You have to apply the logarithm to both sides in entirety. What you suggest would require that $\log(x+y)=\log(x)+\log(y)$, which is false in general.
@robjohn I wonder if I'm able to get something more extraordinary than the results I got so far. I need a considerable amount of imagination for that.
(referring mainly to some special theorems that allow me to do incredible things)
@robjohn Thanks. After posting this I also noticed that what I did had some consequences. But how to solve the equation then? Is there some formula I have missed?
14:35
log(x+y) is not equal to log(x) + log(y).
@Jake1234 Yes I realized already, but how do I solve it then? I really need help :(
14:57
I'm doing galois theory problems and ran across the following question that I don't understand: "Find two independent vectors in R as a vector space over Q." What on earth is this question asking?
I know that the field extension R/Q is not finite, which makes this even more confusing...
Are they just asking for a set like {1, \sqrt{2}} where they are a basis for a vector space over Q?
@TomášZato I don't know. Do you know if it is supposed to have a closed form answer? if you change the 2^(x^2) to , (2^x)^2, I think I can see it would be solvable, this way I don't know.
@Jake1234 It's a single choice question and you're supposed to select number of solutions in R for the equation
So no, you don't need to get exact numbers
But I'm not sure what else to do...
Calculating intersections with x axis also requires you to solve the qeuation...
@TomášZato asking to solve an equation and asking to count the number of solutions are two different problems.
should have been upfront about what the real problem was to begin with
Have you tried plotting it/looking at the functions behavior, looking at whether it's increasing /decreasing at certain intervals? The idea would be that if you have a function like say (x^2 - 10) (for simplicity), and you want to know where it's 0, you can look that it's lower than 0 for x=0, on (0,+oo) it's strictly increasing, and goes to infinity, so there's one solution there, analogously (but using that it's strictly decreasing) on (-oo, 0)
So you think the task was to guess what the function looks like and how many times it crosses x axis?
15:11
the task is to count the number of solutions, if I understand you correctly. the way to do that is to first look at the graph and let that inspire you to a proof idea.
for instance, it looks like the function 2^(x^2)+2^x is increasing until it hits an absolute minimum and then it is increasing
you can potentially prove that with some calculus (derivatives etc.)
that's a possible starting point
15:26
People passing this test are not supposed to know derivations. It's entry test to college from high school
Czech technical university's test in particular
The idea is, that if a function from [a,b] is continuous, it's lower than 0 at a, higher than than 0 at b, and it's strictly increasing, there will be exactly one point between a and b, where the function is 0.
15:42
Hi @MikeMiller
Hi @Danu
How are you doing?
I am ok. I was extremely lazy yesterday and expect to be extremely lazy again today.
Neat-o. Do you generally work on Saturdays? Do you come into uni?
work just means sitting down with paper and pen somewhere, which can be at home or a coffee shop or the beach
yeah, I try to. but the quarter just ended and I'm just going to kill the day hanging out with a buddy
15:49
That sounds nice.
recently I talked to my advisor about a paper I read, and after I finished, he was like "no, no, that's wrong, no". so I clarified and he told me that was even more wrong. :p so now I'm going to read a survey he recommended so I minimize wrongosity next time.
16:01
what are you up to?
Hi everyone.
16:16
$L$ be a line bundle, $X$ it's zero section. $L \setminus X$ def. rets. onto the unit $S^0$-bundle over $X$, i.e., a two fold cover. Saying $L \setminus X$ is disconnected means this $S^0$ bundle is the disconnected cover comprising of two disjoint copies $X \times {-1}$ and $X \times {1}$ in $L$. Isn't sending $x$ to $(x, 1)$ in $X \times 1$ a nonvanishing global section of $L$?
I am not sure if that's quite rigorous. I want to do something like that, at the very least.
@MikeMiller Me? Not much. Computing pullbacks of forms for now.
i.e., I think a section of the two fold cover, which exists by assumption, is also a nonvanishing global section of the line bundle.
@Danu Differential forms are good stuff.
@BalarkaSen Yes, that's correct. I also want to make it conscious that you used a metric here, which is not given on a line bundle (but I allowed).
Without invoking a metric, can you prove that an $L$ w $L \setminus X$ disconnected is orientable?
morning chat
@MikeMiller Right, I used a metric for saying "$L \setminus X$ defo rets onto the unit $S^0$ bundle"
16:26
You need a metric for saying the $S^0$ bundle.
It's always disturbing how hard it is to translate between physics and mathematics notation.
I agree, unit doesn't make sense otherwise.
I realized that.
If we choose to define formally the FT of a function by

$$\hat f(\xi) = {1 \over \sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-2\pi i \xi
x}dx$$

rather than

$$\hat f(\xi) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-2\pi i \xi x}dx$$

then formulas change. for example

$$\widehat{f \star g} (\xi) = \sqrt{2\pi} \hat f(\xi) \hat g(\xi)$$

rather than

$$\widehat{f \star g} (\xi) = \hat f(\xi) \hat g(\xi)$$

my question is do theorems change also? is the fourier transform still an isometry from $L^1(R) \cap L^2(R)$ to $L^2(R)$? or is their some constant that will pop up?
Forgot to say "Hey everybody"
I would appreciate it if someone can answer this for me. apparently I reached my daily limit for questions
Why don't you try it out?
@BalarkaSen So it's not hard to convince yourself there is a bijection between line bundles and $S^0$-bundles. How do you classify the latter?
16:30
@Danu I tried it with an example and apparently it is no more an isometry. it gave me two contradictory answers and now I'm confused
@MikeMiller Maps from $\pi_1$ to $\Bbb Z/2$. Aka, $H^1(X; \Bbb Z/2)$.
Whence your observation that simply connected spaces don't have line bundles.
Thanks! Now I understand why line bundles are classified by $H^1(X; \Bbb Z/2)$ -- I only "knew" that before.
Right.
Now you might try to prove that closed hypersurfaces in Euclidean space (not every space!) are orientable.
@TomášZato Have you figured out the problem or do you still need help with it?
16:43
@MikeMiller Hmm.
hi
Show that for any $n \not \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$ there exists a multiple of $n$ not containing the digit $0$ in its decimal expansion.
can someone explain the proof to this question
@Jake1234 Thanks for asking :)
Friend did help me, the solution was through substitution.
Eh, my natural instinct here is to Alexander dualize, but then it immediately says the surface has to be orientable and does not use any fact about line bundles at all.
Maybe I should translate that into the context of line bundles or something.
I'm going to ask you to generalize later, and this proof should be differential topological.
16:52
@Jake1234 Specifically:
$$2^{x^2}+2*\frac{1}{2^{x^2}} = 3$$
Then you solve the equation as if $2^{x*x}$ was some variable $y$, then you desubstitute
17:40
@MikeMiller Sorry, I was out. I'll think about it.
17:52
@TomášZato How is (2^x) = 2 (1/2^(x^2) ) ?
@DanielFischer If $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-(a+ib)x} \, dx = g(a+ib)$ for $a >0$ and $b \in \mathbb{R}$, and if $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-ibx} \, dx$ exists as an improper Riemann integral, can we conclude that $\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ibx} f(x) \, dx= \lim_{a \downarrow 0}g(a+ib)$?
18:09
@RandomVariable I think so. Maybe there are some problems if $f$ is unbounded at too many points, but if the set of points such that $f$ is unbounded on each neighbourhood of the point is discrete (as a subset of $(0,+\infty)$), everything should work out well.
@Balarka If you don't have any ideas in the next hour, just move on to the next seftion for now.
I have one, I just don't know how to make it work.
$M$ be a hypersurface inside $\Bbb R^n$. Take it's normal bundle. If it's trivial, I'm done because I can take the outward normal field as a section.
Suppose it's not, then $NM \setminus M$ is connected, and inside it lives a connected two fold cover of $M$ disjoint from $M$ (the unit S^0-bundle).
So take a point $x$ on $M$. Then on that unit two fold cover, because it's path connected, I can take a path going from $(x, -1)$ and $(x, 1)$ (connecting the ends of the two unit normals) inside the cover. That will be disjoint from $M$. This shouldn't happen.
I am trying to figure out why. Give me a few more minutes.
Remember that in all of this you don't just live in the normal bundle, you live in $\Bbb R^n$.
Ah, I got it, I think.
So I have a path going from $(x, -1)$ to $(x, 1)$ not hitting the surface. I can homotope by straightline homotopy to the path which hits the straightline going from $(x, -1)$ to $(x, 1)$ - that hits $M$ once. But homotopy shouldn't change the intersection number mod 2!
I would have preferred you just closed it off to get a loop that intwrsects once but is null-homologous, but that's my taste. :)
18:25
Right, that's a better parsing.
The $\Bbb R^n$ hint was helpful.
@DanielFischer Can you think of a particular example where the conclusion might not hold?
Prove that a closed hypersurface in a smooth manifold $M$ (not necessarily compact) determines a homomorphism $\pi_1(M) \to \Bbb Z/2$. Conclude both Jordan-Brauwer and that hypersurfacees are orientable in any manifold with $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2)=0$.
This is an iff. Jot the reverse implication down for another day.
Hi everyone
if you also have your thing about self-intersextion and normal bundles written down, ask me about it another time
Are real continuous functions of compact support uniformly continuous over R?
18:29
@Jake1234 that part was $2^{(1-x^2)}$ so you put the - from the exponent in order to get plus x^2
@Bananach Yes. You should try to prove it.
@MikeMiller many thanks!
@MikeMiller I don't have the habit of writing things. I'll note it down.
@TomášZato are you saying (2^x) = (2^(1-x^2) ) ?
@MikeMiller Suppose I have a hypersurface $S$ in $M$, then triangulate it to get a homology class in $H_{n-1}(M; \Bbb Z/2)$, dualize to get a class in $H^1(M; \Bbb Z/2)$ hence a homomorphism $\pi_1(M) \to \Bbb Z/2$ so that bit is obvious. I am trying to figure out the other bit.
Jordan Brouwer means $S$ disconnects $M$, right?
18:42
yeah
Take a path going from one side of $S$ to the other, without hitting $S$. Close it off like you did to get a loop hitting $S$ at one point. So I have two things intersecting at one point, one of them representing 0 in homology. This dualizes to "take cup product of something in $H^{n-1}$ with 0 in $H^1$ and you get the generator in $H^n$".. nonsense.
I am a bit afraid because I didn't use your $\pi_1 \to \Bbb Z/2$ description. Is this fine?
(by one of them representing 0 in homology I mean the dual of $[S]$, not the loop)
Also, side question. Every hypersurface $S$ in $M$ gives rise to a homomorphism $\pi_1(M) \to \Bbb Z/2$. Is there a direct way to see how hypersurfaces in $M$ are in one to one correspondence with line bundles over $M$?
Take a section of a line bundle and look at it's zero set (i.e., intersection of it with th zero section), maybe? I vaguely remember this from algebraic geometry, but I am not sure.
19:01
@RandomVariable No. Depending on what you allow as an "improper Riemann integral", things may get complicated when you have unboundedness at too many points, but I think even then it should work. Any $f$ one is likely to be actually interested in should be unproblematic to handle with integration by parts.
Hi @TedShifrin
Hi @Balarka, g'night @MikeM. Time for me to give you one of my favorite questions (that was given to me in grad school): Use intersection theory to prove that a compact hypersurface in a simply connected manifold is orientable.
Hi @Semiclassic
@TedShifrin Did something like that above. Take normal bundle of the hypersurface $X$ inside $M$. Assume the unit $S^0$ bundle (i.e., two fold cover) inside the normal bundle is connected - then I can take a path inside that cover going from $(x, 1)$ to $(x, -1)$ over any pt $x \in X$ not hitting $X$.
This is homotopic to the path going from $(x, 1)$ to $(x, -1)$ hitting $X$ once. But homotopy doesn't change intersection mod 2.
Contradiction. So the normal bundle is trivial, hence there exists a outward unit normal flow on $X$ - making it orientable.
19:08
OK. Cool. Except you really need closed paths to apply simple connectivity, don't you?
(for the unit S^0 thing I have assumed existence of a metric on the normal bundle)
@TedShifrin Well, if I have two paths with same endpts in a simply connected space, they are path-homotopy equivalent.
this question is a bit scattershot: math.stackexchange.com/q/1822421/137524
I fixed the retract proof yesterday, by the way.
Questions like that give me a headache and I ignore them, @Semiclassic.
How? @Balarka
19:11
a sensible policy
$r : M \to M$ be the smooth retract onto $A$. I proved that $Dr$ is of constant rank near $A \subset M$. So all that was required to do is to figure out when a map $f : M \to N$ of constant rank has image a manifold.
OK, that's one approach.
So assume $f : M \to N$ has constant rank everywhere. By constant rank theorem, for any point $x$, there exists charts around that and $f(x)$ where $f$ is locally $(x_1, \cdots, x_m) \mapsto (x_1, \cdots, x_k, 0, \cdot, 0)$.
If for any point $f(p) \in f(M)$, there is a chart $U$ around $p$ in $M$ such that $f(U) \cap f(M)$ is a neighborhood of $p$ in (the subspace topology of) $f(M)$, then we'd have that neighborhood of $p$ in $f(M)$ cut out by $x_{k+1} = \cdots = x_m = 0$, hence $f(M)$ would be locally level set thus a submanifold.
This excludes the figure eight example, where image of a chart in the circle is never a neighborhood of the bad point.
Oh, have you proved the rank theorem?
19:17
It's not in my book or in G&P. I added it as a graduate exercise the last time I taught the course.
I stumbled upon that when I was reading about the implicit function theorem.
It's not in your book, yep.
Right. The proof is a slight generalization thereof.
@Ted I just gave him that ;)
(just to finish what I was saying earlier, the retract $r$ satisfies this in a neighborhood of $A$ - 'cause retracts are open maps. It was a fairly straightforward condition, I was being dumb).
Not I, @MikeM.
Hmm, how do we prove a retraction is open?
19:23
@Jake1234
No no no. The original equation was actually more complicated and I wrote it incorrectly. It was in fact:
$$2^{(x^2)} + 2^{(1-x^2)} =3$$
Sorry for the confusion
I think Mike was referring to closed hypersurfaces in simply connected manifolds being orientable.
@TedShifrin Well, there is a left inverse so it's in fact a quotient map.
I forget which is left or right. I mean $r \circ i = 1$.
Oh, sorry, @MikeM. "Just gave him that" is ambiguous. :)
That's a right inverse.
If I write it as $A \stackrel{i}{\rightarrow} M \stackrel{r}{\rightarrow} A$ it becomes left, thus the confusion :P
Well, that explains why some algebraists write their functions on the right. Herstein, for example. To that I have to say only UGH.
19:28
@TedShifrin They did that in our reptheory course. Nightmare.
I and prof did an observation together that algebraists do a lot of things backwards. Proving the Noether normalization and then proving Nullstellensatz with it, for example.
Writing functions on the right adds to the list, then.
@MikeMiller I am not sure if you saw these messages, so pinging you with it just in case.
I'm busy right now, sorry. You can tell me about them later if you like.
Oh, sure. Thanks.
I should either do my schoolwork or get more stuff done from G-P then.
G'night, @Balarka.
I am not sleeping!
19:35
@Ted: DId you say stuff above? I missed it, sorry
I only apologized for confusion about what you were referring to with "just gave him that."
Oh, sorry for the lack of clarity myself
Whether you are sleeping and whether you should be sleeping are two different things :p @BalarkaSen
@TomášZato that can be solved. it's u+2/u=3, where u=2^(x^2).
with one root immediately obvious, in fact. (and the other is easy to find at that point)
19:39
@DanielFischer So basically it holds because $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-(a+ib)x} \, dx $ converges uniformly for $ a \in [0, \infty)$?
@TomášZato Oh right, no problem.
@Semiclassical fair enough
I covered thermal expansion yesterday. expansion coefficients, etc.
Solve the elementary equation
$$2^{\sin(x)}+2^{\cos(x)}=3$$
(without pen and paper - almost missed to mention it)
/me hides
o/
19:51
\o
@RandomVariable Yes.
@Agawa001 :-) It's a very nice equation, one needs no pen and paper for.
(just to notice something very simple)
i m sorry i am cheating now
i dont have a good brain pointer as my pen is
@Agawa001 OK OK, cheat then (but not too much) ;)
i found an equation of the form f(t)=f'(log(t)) which implicates omegawright
i ll post it in 10 mins after regathering my thoughts wait
20:05
Great
In the meantime, let's take a look at that
$$2^x \ge x^2+1, \ \forall x\in[0,1]$$ where we get equality for $x=0$ and $x=1$.
Q.E.D.
20:19
Hi @Anubhav.K
heyy @BalarkaSen
How are you doing?
I've a flight to catch in the morning but don't feel sleepy at all
Yikes.
so try to doing math as well as reading live commentary of football
what about you?
20:30
Learning smooth manifolds, mostly. Getting schoolwork done too.
Good,which books are you following?
for a long time I've not post any good answer in MSE
:P
@Anubhav.K Guillemin-Pollack. Occasionally Hirsch, but not much.
Ohh that's great
:)
How's your study of algebraic geometry coming along?
Last 1 week I've not get much time for studying, becasue I went to my home
And there it is very difficult for me to study in presence of my big family :P
20:35
Ah.
I think from tomorrow I'll again start it with full enthusiasm
So did you finish chapter 2 in G&P?
Halfway through.
Good
Did you read some Morse theory?
Only what's in G-P chapter 1.
There are a few problems in chapter 2 as well (I think if I remember correctly)
20:39
Haven't encountered them yet.
I think in that transversallity section
I have done a couple problems from that section. I will see if I get a Morse theory problem.
Hmmm...And I think in that section there is a typo in one problem
Ted has a list of typos in G-P, I think. I'll check it out.
2.3.7
20:43
Thanks.
I may be wrong with this number
just check it
It says if $X$ is a submanifold of R^n, almost every linear subspace of a fixed dimension intersects $X$ transversely. That seems right to me?
Yes it is not true ...we need some restriction on the codimension.
let me recall about my counter example
Hmm.
I think there should be ctrexamples if $X$ is noncompact.
suppose $X$ conatins 0. Then any vector subspace intersects it. If its dimension is less than the codim of $X$
it cannot be transversal.
20:48
Ah, right, fair enough.
Change what you said to affine subspace.
I can just take $X$ to be a line passing through $0$ in $\Bbb R^3$. Then a lot of planes intersects it.
@MikeMiller That's what I was thinking.
Guys I'm going off, other wise I'll miss my flight
I'll join you people tomorrow
good night
 
1 hour later…
22:07
Quiet chat.
22:22
Working very hard here, hence quiet.
(perhaps the same for the rest - but not sure)
22:33
Hi @TedShifrin
@Balarka: Here's an exercise for you. I usually presented Morse functions differently when I taught the course. Define $\text{grad}\,f$ as a section of $TX$ (by taking the vector field dual to $df$). Define a function to be Morse if $\text{grad}\,f$ is transverse to the zero section. Prove that agrees with the G&P definition.
This has the advantage that you can then apply all the genericity/stability results you're learning that relate to transversality.
And the problem mentioned above is most definitely on my typo list.
@TedShifrin Yeah.
Hrm, I have never worked with tangent spaces of the tangent bundle, having a hard time seeing it.
Well, first you should understand that at a point $(x,0)$ of the zero-section, $T_{(x,0)}(TX) = T_xX\oplus T_xX$ quite canonically.
So work it all out assuming $x=0\in\Bbb R^k$.
Oh oh ... Mike is here to spy.
22:47
@Ted He likes to do this thing wher he says he has a hard time seeing things so he doesn't have to think about them.
You seem to think I'm going to give him a private 10-hour lecture. I'm trying to get him on a reasonable track.
Nah, it's fine. I should think about it.
Somewhere in some later problem sets there should be a few exercises using this definition of Morse, too, @Balarka.
Noted. Thanks.
22:50
This is one of a number of things I chose to lecture differently from G&P.
23:05
Sorry, went to fetch something to eat. Let me think about it.
23:17
@TedShifrin Yeah, meh, this is obvious. I should have figured that out.
Most of math is obvious once you've figured it out.
6
When you learn about oriented intersection number, then you can figure out how that relates to Morse.
Hmm, alright.

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