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cap
cap
04:07
Why is the multiplicity of an eigenvalue the same as the largest corresponding Jordan block?
04:24
hi @AndrewThompson, @Huy
 
2 hours later…
Huy
Huy
06:01
morning @Mike
 
5 hours later…
10:38
@robjohn Do you know wether the $\zeta(4)$ accelerated series mencioned on section 7 of Alf van der poorten's paper A proof that Euler missed ..., transcribed at ega-math.narod.ru/Apery1.htm, can be obtain by similar techniques of those used in the same paper to derive the corresponding accelerated series for $\zeta (3),\zeta(2)$?
... There's a 1981 paper by Henri Cohen availble at numdam, where he used the Euler-Maclaurin summation formula to prove the accelerated formula for $\zeta(4)$.
Do you know whether the ...
 
3 hours later…
13:44
morning chat
hi @mike. how're things?
still feeling sick, but don't have time to just take a day off, unfortunately
that sucks
what kind of commitments do you have today?
teach my class, teach two of a colleagues' classes because he'll be in texas, but also need to do a bit more prep before my meeting tomorrow with my adviser
13:54
gotcha. so not a colossal amount but enough that being sick for it sucks.
I've seen the following:
Why does: $((f+g)^2)=2(f+g)\overbrace{(f'+g')}^{?}$
Huy
Huy
chain rule
but using the chain rule to prove the product rule?
@Huy Oh, yes. Usually, the chain rule is given after the product rule.
I wasn't expecting to see the chain rule in a more primitive level to prove the product rule.
Huy
Huy
that's why just stick with the usual proof of the product rule
there's nothing wrong with it. many steps in proofs are only unintuitive because many students haven't seen many proofs yet.
if you teach this proof, many students will also find "computing $((f+g)^2)'$ in two different ways" a very unintuitive thing to do
(I certainly would)
14:07
@user1618033 Sorry for the curiosity. But what book?
Huy
Huy
IMO, the normal proof is much more intuitive. you apply the definition and then try to "simplify" and get something you're already familiar with.
@Huy Yes. I think that too. I don't see why adding A and then subtracting A is counterintuitive.
Huy
Huy
@Voyska user1618033 is writing a book containing many challenging series and integrals.
hello Huy
Huy
Huy
hello Mike
14:17
Good. I know some.
-Irresistible integrals.
-Inside Interesting Integrals
-Edwards: Treatise on integral calculus.
Hey, could someone here give me a hint about a question I have to solve for a symplectic geometry homework?
Edwards book is an old (~1930) calculus book. You can find it for free on the internet.
14:33
i like to define the derivative by the product rule
Huy
Huy
can you define the integral in a similar way?
what integral? Lebesgue?
Huy
Huy
any
i doubt it, you will need to fix some values (on step functions or otherwise)
Integration is generally speaking much mroe subtle
than differentation
A while back I found a really weird characterization of differentiation, for polynomials
Consider the ring $\Bbb R[x,y]/\langle xy-yx=1\rangle$
14:40
the order of an ordered pair $(a,b)$ is just $(|a|,|b|)$ right?
Then we have $f'(x)=f(x)y-yf(x)$
you mean non commutative polynomials @Akiva
@Ward "Ask; don't ask to ask"
@JuanFran The ring is noncommutative, yeah
but the subring of everything of the form $f(x)$ is commutative
You need more than just the product rule to uniquely define a derivatice
14:44
Product rule, sum rule, and $x'=1$ are sufficient for polynomials, at least
that's sufficient for everything
that uniquely defines the derivative for all smooth functions
i agree
but this is obvious
can someone give me a hint for proving that the order of an ordered pair (formed by the direct product of two groups) is the lcm of the ordered pair?
oh wait it's the lcm of the orders of the two pairs
nvm let me think about it more
14:52
lul
Well, you want the smallest number $n$ such that $(a,b)^n=1_{A\times B}$, right?
So we want $(a^n,b^n)=(1,1)$, and we want $n$ to be the smallest possible
If $a^n=1$, does $n$ have to be a multiple of the order of $a$?
Using the Marsden-Weinstien Mayer reduction we can get a symplectic form on CP^n from the diagonal action by $U(1)$ on $C^{n+1}$. The question is to find the function $f(\lambda) = Vol(M_\lambda)/Vol(M_1)$ Where $Vol(M_x)$ is the symplectic volume of the reduction at value $x$ (I can't get the latex to work here, so im sorry if it doesn't render properly)
See LaTeX in chat on the right. What do you mean by symplectic volume at the value $x$?
@Akiva I see. it's not $a^n,b^m$ where there is two different orders for the order of $(a,b)$ it must be a common order and by definition it must be the least common
ugh, if i'd realized i'd be sitting next to the air conditioner in this lab room i'd have brought my (light) jacket with me
15:04
@Obliv Ya. For example, in $\Bbb Z_2\times\Bbb Z_3$ (switching to additive notation), the order of $(1,1)$ is $6$ because $6\cdot(1,1)=(1,1)+(1,1)+\dotsb+(1,1)=(0,0)$
@MikeMiller The latex works, thanks. I meant to say this from the Marden-Weinstien Mayer theorem we get a symplectic form $\omega_{red}$ on $M_x$. The volume of $M_x$ is then the integral of the volume form $\frac{\omega_{red}^n}{n!}$ (though the $n!$ doesn't matter here since we are interested in the fraction of volumes)
The multiples of $(1,1)$ are, in order, $(1,1)$, $(0,2)$, $(1,0)$, $(0,1)$, $(1,2)$, $(0,0)$
Where $x$ is a regular value of the moment map
(This also gives us an isomorphism between $\Bbb Z_2\times\Bbb Z_3$ and $\Bbb Z_6$, by the way @Obliv)
Ok, so $M_x$ is a submanifold of $\Bbb C^{n+1}$
15:07
@Akiva don't know what that is yet. Thank you though :)
No, it is the reduction of $\mathbb{C}^n$ at the regular value $x$
Oops i meant $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}$
Sure, I understand now. Have you tried explicitly computing it?
Im not sure how to get $\omega_{red}$, all i know is $i^*\omega = \pi^* \omega_{red}$. Where $i$ is the inclusion $\mu^-1(x) \to \mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ and $\pi$ the quotient map.
and $\omega$ the symplectic form on $\mathbb$
$\mathbb{C}^n+1$
Hey folks – in what way is the inverse differentiation rule (df/dx = 1/(dx/df)) applicable to multivariable calculus? When looking at spherical coordinates, I get ∂r/∂x (r,θ,φ) = ∂x/∂r (= sinθcosφ), which really confuses me.
pff $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}$
15:16
$b = a^{-1}$ $b^2 = a$ right? So $b^3 = 1$?
nvm it's $b^{-1} = a$
darn it
Quick question: If I want to say $\text{let}f(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}a_kx^k$ what would be a quick justification
Any proof of the reduction theorem should ezplicitly construct the form. But the way you probably want to do it is to get a volume form $\omega^n/n! \wedge dt$ on the fibers $S^{2n+1}$, where $dt$ is a 1-form that eats the tangent vector of the action and spits out 1. This should be moderately computable. The integral of this...
@NoahHarris Context?
...will be the same as the volume of the quotient. Then you just need to compare the volumes of these. I expect your answer is going to be "they differ by a factor of $\lambda$" or something like that.
In the middle of a proof about the taylor series of a differential.
15:20
If you want more details than that, you should post a question on the main site.
f(x) has some series, i'm trying to prove what it is
$f$ needs to be analytic to begin with, because otherwise you can't say it has a series expansion.
Then you can.
Should I say "by taylor's theorem" or just say nothing or something else
15:22
The justification is that analytic means, by definition, it has a power series expansion.
If your function is analytic, why do you need any theorem to say that it has a power series expansion? It's definitional that there is. (Mike beat me to it).
Taylor's theorem identified what the power series is and gets some control over its partial expansions for smooth functions, which is weaker than analytic.
I think I got it, thanks for the help
@MikeMiller Thanks, i will try to do that. Can you point to a theorem that would say why the integral of $\omega^n /n! \wedge dt$ would be the same as the volume of the quotient?
Because the volume of each fiber is 1. If you feel queasy about it, do it for trivial $S^1$ bundles and patch the results together for your case.
15:31
@MikeMiller Ok, thanks again
wait if you say $l = l^{-1}$ then $l^2 = 1$ but can't you also say $(l^{-1})^2 = 1$? Does it make sense to say an inverse times an inverse is 1?
turn around 180 degrees once, and then again. does it matter that i didn't say clockwise or counter-clockwise?
hmm i see your point
yeah they're the same value anyway
I have to prove that any finite group $G$ of even order contains an element of order $2$. Doesn't that require there to be an element that is its own inverse? If $G$ is of even order how am I supposed to deduce that such an element exists?
If it was of odd order that would be easy
It does require that, yes.
As for how to prove it, i don't know. But this bit of Wiki's article on Lagrange's theorem seems relevant: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
15:51
@semiclassical So if that always held then there would always be a subgroup of order 1 since any order of any group is always divisible by 1? Then I can deduce that if it's of order 1 the element must be its own inverse and so its order would be 2.
Saying let $t(G)$ be the set $\{g \in G~|~g \ne g^{-1}\}$ and then it's easy to show any nonidentity remaining elements of $G - t(G)$ must have order $2$. But, we're assuming $G$ to be even so $G - t(G)$ could technically result in an empty set.
hi. let $f(\alpha)=\sum_{\ell=1}^{\sqrt{K}} \ell^{\alpha-1}(\sqrt{K}-\ell)^2$. since $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ kind of have closed forms (the former involves the digamma function), I know that they are of (asymptotic) order $K \log K$ and $K^{3/2}$, respectively. what I would like to know is the exact (I can see bounds) order of $f$ for $0<\alpha<1$. are there some techniques for that?
@obliv well, there always is such a subgroup of order 1: the one generated by the identity.
but while the identity is always its own inverse, that doesn't mean it's of order 2.
@semiclassical true.
as i said above, though, i have no insight into how one proves the result. my group theory knowledge dates back to undergrad courses years ago.
since $i^2 = 1$ could mean $i\star i = 1$ whatever the operation is
16:03
$i^1=i$
@Obliv if you're going to ask the same question on more than one SE chat, i'd suggest it's courteous to say so...
I only asked it after you said you didn't know of any way to prove it. sorry
fair enough.
I figured it out anyway. Thanks for your help :)
16:30
Anybody here know what that symbol means?
proportional to
Ah thanks
$\propto$ latex is \propto
16:44
0
A: $X_r^s(X_1,\ldots,X_s,X^1,\ldots,X^r)$ is smooth iff component functions are.

SpottyI will write the full proof for $X^1_1$ in your notation (just to not get cray with indices). So we have that locally: $$ X_1^1(p)=\sum_{i,j} C^i_j(p) dx^j_p\otimes \partial x_i^p$$ Assume the $C^i_j$ are smooth functions. Pick $X,\alpha$ smooth sections of $TM,T^*M$ respectively. Which locally ...

Hello, Does anyone here know how $\partial x_{i_r}^p(X_p^r)$ can be defied on my question above?
17:34
tfw you immediately discover the answer to something as soon as you post it on main
17:46
You still need help on your order 2 group theory question ?
do you mean the one i posted above? @fourier
Yeah I was reading the chat history
well I figured that one out I'm having trouble with another now though
I think the guy recommended you use Lagrange but you don't need to use that
Order 2 means the element is self inverse like you said
it was just to show that since the order is even and there existed an identity element who is self invertible, there had to exist another element that was also self invertible
17:48
And every element has an inverse
What's the next one you need help with?
to be self invertible and not be the identity meant order 2
Well I just wanted to know if an element had an even order that it was 2
Sorry I don't completely follow what you are asking. If an element is self inverse and not the identity then yes it hs to be order 2
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in $G$. Prove that if $n = 2k$ and $1\leq i < n$, then $x^{i} = x^{-i}$ if and only if $i = k$ <-- is the exact thing i'm trying to prove
it's basically saying if the order is even, $x^i$ must be self invertible
not really sure about the whole iff $i = k$
brb gonna get food
Have you managed to prove either direction? If you assume i=k then you want to show that x^{k}=x^{-k}
A hint for this is that you know that the order of x is 2k.
18:06
@Semiclassical hey, I created some nice stuff today (sum + integral in the same cocktail problem)
@Voyska trying to write a book about pretty crazy integrals, series and limits.
For the converse suppose x^{i} = x^{-i}. You will find x^{2i}=1 and the next step is the tricky bit. Hopefully you have seen a result that tells you if x^{a}=1 then order (x) divides a. You then can use that and the bound on i in the question to deduce i=1. Hope this helps.
@Semiclassical let me put stuff in latex ...
I mean i= k
@user1618033 Have you already published?
@Voyska Books? No.
18:09
Hey guys, I just have a small question about birational equivalences, and it would be much appreciated if somebody could point me in the right direction.
Hello everyone
Let k = \mathbb{C}, be the ground field. So, if I have the set of nilpotent $2 \times 2$ matrices of order 2, then I can show that this has the structure of a variety $X = Z(x_1^2 - x_2x_3) \subset k^3$. I need to try and find a birational equivalence between this variety and k^2.
Does anybody have any idea what I should be thinking about?
For instance, I found a very nice way of writing
Hello Sebgr
$$1+\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{5^2}-\frac{1}{7^2}+\frac{1}{9^2}+\frac{1}{11^2}+ \cdots $$
using very simple results
18:20
@user1618033 nice.
not surprised that's doable, but good to know
do you have that for generic exponents?
@Semiclassical No
hmm
i'm going off of intuition of $\eta(s)$ being expressible in terms of $\zeta(s)$, though
so maybe i'm assuming too much
@Semiclassical auch ...
Ramanujan did it before me ... :-(
yes, well, he did a lot of things first :p
@Semiclassical My way has its beauty though :D
18:25
i think i see how it should work for generic exponents. ETA 2 minutes
@Semiclassical That one is expressed in terms of an integral btw
oh. i was trying to find it in terms of $\zeta(s)$
I don't think there is a known closed form to it.
This is off topic: How would you go about proving that an affine space $\Bbb{A}^m$ in $\Bbb{R}^n$ can be contained in a 'hypersphere' $\Bbb{S}^k, k\geq 2$, with $n-m\geq 2$?
Is that even true?
I think that the limiting case ($m=n-2$) is actually a 'hypercylinder', but these are all abstractions from the simple (which can be visualized) cases.
@Semiclassical I reached the same point as Ramanujan as soon as is shown that $$2\int_0^{\sqrt{2}-1} \frac{\arctan(x)}{x} \, dx=\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan(x)}{x \sqrt{x^2+1}} \, dx$$
18:31
interesting
the route i was trying to take goes like this: Suppose $A(s)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n n^{-s}$ for some sequence $\{a_n\}$. (not worrying about convergence)
BTW, I found some video lectures on Category Theory by Steven Roman (the author) on youtube youtube.com/… .
I think someone might consider them useful. I used to like his book on Linear Algebra
Then $2^{-s}A(s) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n (2n)^{-s} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n n^{-s}$ where $b_n=\{a_1,0,a_2,0,\cdots\}$
hmmm, I see.
plus, one also has that taking linear combinations of different generating functions produces linear combinations of their generating sequences
so the idea being to obtain the sequence $\{1,0,1,0,-1,0,-1,0,\cdots}$ using those kinds of tricks
haven't succeeded yet :/
@Semiclassical be careful at the signs though + + - - + + - -
18:37
yeah, that's the tricky part
judging by Wiki's discussion of the Dirichlet series, there's probably a known approach along those lines
hmm, this page has some interesting stuff: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet_character
with the character $\chi_3$ under modulus 8 being the case of interest
@Semiclassical yeah, but the point is that the closed form is related to a particular case of the inverse tangent integral which is not known to have a nice form in known constants.
These values are known for many years, and unknown in terms of known constants.
sure. i just mean to say that it seems to naturally lead to the number-theoretic aspects of the Riemann zeta function
@Semiclassical definitely
A little challenge for you (all here - if you care, of course)
Prove that $$2\int_0^{\sqrt{2}-1} \frac{\arctan(x)}{x} \, dx=\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan(x)}{x \sqrt{x^2+1}} \, dx$$ :D
18:49
@AlpArslan You want to prove $xy = z^2$ is birational to $\Bbb A^2$, right?
I don't know of a very rigorous proof off the top of my head, but consider this: $xy = z^2$ is the cone inside $\Bbb A^3$. Take the $xy$-plane inside $\Bbb A^3$, let $p$ be the cone point which also lies on that plane (we have chosen an implicit coordinate system while we do this, but whatever).
Back a bit later.
Consider a line $\ell$ tangent to $p$, which lies on the cone. Now you can start "projecting off" from the line $\ell$ by choosing a "pencil of circles" on the cone hitting $\ell$ at a unique point each, and then throwing lines from each point on $\ell$ which stereographically projects each of those circles off.
This should definitely be a rational function, with the singular locus $\ell$, projective the cone to the $xy$ plane (which is the copy of $\Bbb A^2$). I think it should not be hard to see what the inverse map is also.
@user1618033 wellll, following the direction I was taking gives the value of said series as $$\frac{1}{64}\left[\zeta(2,\frac18)+\zeta(2,\frac38)-\zeta(2,\frac58)-\zeta(2,\‌​frac78)\right]$$
where $\zeta(s,m)$ is the Hurwitz zeta function. which is probably valid but doesn't actually seem useful :/
so not very helpful
to clarify what I am saying: replace $xy = z^2$ by the isomorphic variety $C : x^2 + y^2 = z^2$ just because things are easier to write down. then consider the line $\ell : (x, y, z) = (t, t, t)$. The map eats a point $P$ on the cone $C$, spits out what you get when you project $P$ stereographically off from the point in $\ell$ which hits the circle $x^2 + y^2 = a^2$ which $P$ belongs to. @AlpArslan
I hope that makes sense.
one could instead use the digamma function $\psi(m)$ and write $\zeta(2,m)=\psi^{(1)}(m)$ but that doesn't obviously help
WA does give a few integral representations of said combination, interestingly: (bah, i broke the link)
in particular, one has $$\int_0^\infty t\frac{\cosh t}{\cosh 2t}\,dt$$ as an integral representation
19:08
i have a small question
does "disjoint collection" mean pairwise disjoint or the intersection over the collection is empty?
@hans- I'm pretty sure both of those statements are equivalent
@hans- For example, let's suppose that we have a finite pairwise disjoint collection of sets, say $A_1, \dots, A_n$
@Clarinetist intersection of {1, 2}, {1, 3}, {4, 5} is empty, whereas they are not pairwise disjoint.
@hans- Then for all $i \neq j$, $A_i \cap A_j = \varnothing$
@BalarkaSen Dang it
:P
if A_i = \varnothing
it fails
for some i
what is meant by "integral power of __"
19:12
@Obliv Could you provide more context?
if $x$ is an element of finite order $n$ in $G$, use the division algorithm to show that any integral power of $x$ is equal to one of the elements in the set $\{1,x,x^2,...,x^{n-1}\}$
@Obliv Some people use "integral" to mean "integer." It's been a while since I've seen group theory
@Obliv it just means $x^n$ for an integer $n$
so I'm not 100% sure
@Clarinetist the words integer and integral are related but not the same (one is a noun the other is an adjective)
19:15
@TobiasKildetoft Yes, I understand that
thats what I thought just making sure
kind of annoying the $\int$ is called an integral too
context matters
if you're doing calculus, it'll mean integration. if you're doing something involving discrete math instead, it may well mean integers. if you're not doing math, it probably just means 'important.'
19:33
Excuse me, are there any number theorists around?
@BernardMeurer try asking whatever it is. There is a good chance someone who is not a number theorist can answer it as well
@TobiasKildetoft Will do, thanks for the tip :)
I wrote a code that calculates Euler's Totient ($\phi(n)$) and I was wondering why is it that $\phi(958324857389475983274569823476558973245)$ calculates very fast, but $\phi(43649128734981236498122387)$ very slow and $\phi(985763284578345834)$ very fast again ?
Yes, those were generated by me smashing my keyboard
@BernardMeurer that probably depends on how you implement is
Well it does involve a Miller-Rabin primality test to try and apply Lehmer's conjecture to make it faster
@BernardMeurer not sure about the first, but the second has two large prime factors and the third just a single large one
19:41
Ah, there we go!
Generating primes takes a long time in my current implementation
so factoring naively while checking primality along the way by Miller Rabin will be fast for the last one and a lot slower for the second one
this is my code but it's filled with GMP-specific stuff so beware of strange stuff
19:56
Hey, I have one question, can someone looked it up on this link: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1792109/…
6 answers, but nobody mentions the $3\times 3$ (volume) determinant with an all-ones row.
@ccorn Actually, that is the same as the one by Martin-Blas
@TobiasKildetoft: I'd like it more explicit -- I just expected it to turn up amog so many answers
@ccorn then write an answer with it
@TobiasKildetoft Right suggestion... but then I feel it's too little an addition. Sigh.
20:03
it's probably short enough for a comment, namely that said 2-by-2 determinant is equivalent to a 3-by-3 one (and then with the interpretation in terms of linear dependence)
20:15
anything new?
@Semiclassical Thanks for the suggestion. Commented now, but without additional interpretation, so as not to change the spirit of Martin-Blas's answer.
@BalarkaSen Solved any major open problems today?
@MikeMiller How many times does one have to think they have solved a major open problem before actually solving it?
Someone asked if there are any invariants of links under ribbon moves. Do you Floer people know of any?
20:33
Is that the same thing as being preserved under ribbon concordance?
No because there can be higher genus ribbon cobordances.
e.g. if you take a knot then disconnect it using a ribbon move and then reconnect using another ribbon move, you've picked up genus.
I think Saveliev uses the term to refer strictly to genus 0. Anyway his book doesn't give any examples so I'm skeptical that there are some known.
Oh I see.
I really couldn't find stuff thinking about the higher genus case.
@Semiclassical Back. Yeah, I see that.
I'm not really a knot person though.
20:36
How do you think about 3-manifolds.
To me they are just S^3 where I cut out some tori and reglued them in.
This must be either known or known to be unknown.
I have a sort of wobbly picture of them. Maybe I think they look like Boy's surface. If forced to be more precise I think in terms of JSJ.
Computationally sure I think of them as surgeries.
@Semiclassical did you try my integral identity above?
(I hate when I receive call after call and cannot work on my stuff - speaking on the phone is not to me)
See Kirby 1.35. Maybe the mu-invariant there defined is invariant under ribbon moves.
The problem list or the book?
Problem list.
20:45
Ah nevermind this is trivial
Every link is ribbon cobordant to the unknot.
To get non-trivial knots you just use Seifert's algorithm
Eh I'll have to rewrite my answer.
Aforementioned colleague who always insults himself has yet another paper on the arXiv today.
I agree with your assessment from the last time we talked about this.
Yeah I don't think Ciprian will have to do much work helping him find a job.
@MikeMiller Not sure about major or open, but I think I did prove that homotopic map induce isomorphic map on de Rham cohomology.
Looks a lot like the chain homotopy proof in singular, but I cannot immediately correlate the operator I used with the prism operator.
20:57
I mean one is cohomology and the other is homology.
@MikeMiller I think this colleagues publishing rate might mean you will soon have more acknowledgements than I.
Well, one can still dualize the prism operator to get it working in singular cohomology, so I don't see how that makes a difference. But most of the time I cannot correlate what happens with forms with what happens with cochains, so I suppose it's fine.
I understand why 1/p surgery of a ribbon knot embeds into S^4.
If you still wanted to know that.
I wonder why I am feeling sleepy so early. There's something very wrong happening with my biological clock.
That's why I say it work, work, work ..., because if you held a class about calculus and a student asked you to prove the one below you wouldn't know ...
$$2\int_0^{\sqrt{2}-1} \frac{\arctan(x)}{x} \, dx=\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan(x)}{x \sqrt{x^2+1}} \, dx$$
Honestly speaking, what is the use of calculus hours if not able to prove such an identity? Just to go through the math stuff and learn new concepts? Then, in front of the practice the issues comes in front.
21:10
There is much more to calculus than solving a bunch of integrals.
I talk to myself only. Pretend you don't see me. I'm not sure if I'm right (100%), maybe my thinking here is flawed (to some extent).
What would I do though if I student asked me to solve that? I have to give him/her a cool answer, right? Such little questions make math beautiful and attractive for the students.
That's why I say it is important to know to answer them.
Tomorrow I'll give this question to all students I tutor (curious to see how many will give me the solution).
21:27
I respect this talking to oneself.
Hello all, I am trying to understand this section of the chapter on Polynomial Rings in (Fine, Gaglione, Rosenburger, *Introduction to Abstract Algebra*, (2014), pp.377-9)
http://docdro.id/jy8IJWN <- pdf scan of page
I don't understand the use of $r$ 2/3rds of the way down
I'm having a problem with https://qchu.wordpress.com/2015/11/04/the-categorical-exponential-formula/. In particular, that $|X^n/S^n|=|X|^n/|S_n|$. Is it correct that
-$X^n$ is the category with objects $x_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes x_n$ and morphisms $g_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes g_n$, where $g_i$ are morphisms in $X$ from $x_i$, and that
-$X^n/S^n$ has objects and morphisms the objects of $X^n$ modulo action of $S^n$ and the morphisms of $X^n$ modulo $S^n$, respectively?
@user1618033 was away working on my own stuff, talking with prof, etc.
@Semiclassical monologue here :-)
gotcha.
i wonder if/how the integral i gave earlier is related to that
21:42
I am just doing an project when I stopped to look Facebook where I saw a stupid gif. In the gif appear 2x2 which the result is the same as 2+2, the question is if there are more numbers that the multiplication result is the same as the sum. Sorry for the stupid question
@Semiclassical Which integral?
the u cosh u / cosh 2u one
@Semiclassical Ah!
i can't take credit for finding that representation (thank WA) but i can take credit for massaging it into that form :)
@adrian if you require only integers (as in the (2,2) case) then the answer is no
but if you allow things with fractional parts then yes
can u give an example of fractional parts?
21:46
for instance, 3+1.5=3*1.5 = 4.5
Also, if you allow more than two numbers it is possible: 1*2*3=1+2+3.
oh its true I didnt realise
more generally, if your first number is $x$ then taking $y=x/(x-1)$ gives a pair with $x+y=xy = x^2/(x-1)$
the above case was for x=3 -> y=3/2
Hmm, I wonder if there isn't a bigger lesson about AG to be learned from this question, since any answer is in the zero set of a 2-variable polynomial, but there are so few integral solutions...
you would wonder that :p
21:49
:P
Is there a way to only see favorite tags on main when I open the site?
Instead of clicking through each tag.
PVAL: Mike or Ted would know this, but they both seem to be away.
i thought there was
hmm
8
Q: Filtering by tag

GraphthI have seen on a similar site where you can filter by your favorite tags. It's one thing to have questions with your favorite tags highlighted, and it's another, and much better, to only see questions with your favorite tags. As of now, you can filter to see one tag by clicking the name in your...

which includes in the accepted answer a discussion of the "intags:mine" search feature
that's about as close as i can tell
@Semiclassical But I tell you what. I would like to see classes where the teachers come in place in expose themselves to the worst problems and then say: I don't know! I have no idea! It is very important for a student to understand that we all can fail without extremely much work.
21:54
That's pretty good.
i think it's also good to be able to say "I don't know how to solve this problem off the top of my head, but here is how i would approach it."
teach the process, not the problem
@PVAL I have a search bookmarked, intags:mike answers:0.
mine not mike.
@Semiclassical Precisely. I don't like that contrast between the teacher that knows all and the student that fails. It's not a true picture.
that's also how I tend to view grading
right
the real contrast is between an expert solver who knows how to approach a problem and an inexpert one who doesn't
@user1618033 This is a very wise idea.
21:58
@Semiclassical Yeah, but we all are vulnerable in front of the problems. Student shouldn't think he is more stupid than his teacher that KNOWS EVERYTHING TO SOLVE (at least how it might seem in a class).
(re: teachers in place, relieve students of the idea that they should just "get" it, and if not, are therefore deficient)
@PVAL He never asks me questions about what he's doing so that's less likely.
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