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01:05
@GridleyQuayle @TedShifrin Perhaps it's d/dy !
@Dr. Shifrin, sorry to hear about your friend :(
01:19
@BalarkaSen I only realized that your name worked for it halfway through writing the "algebra" post
I was watching something about Hopf algebras (taking a break from algebraic topology for a bit), and I was thinking that I'd call them Hopf algebrae
01:56
1. 1 ∈ X
2. (n ∈ X) ⇒ (4n+1 ∈ X)
3. (6n+1 ∈ X) ⇒ (4n-1 ∈ X)
4. (6n-1 ∈ X) ⇒ (8n+1 ∈ X)
Prove that X contains every odd number
:)
@AkivaWeinberger Hopf algebras are probably not so distant from algebraic topology. I think homology of an H-space has the structure of a Hopf algebra.
Sorry, I think I mean cohomology.
02:43
both of those statements are true, although for homology you need to work over a field
02:53
@QiaochuYuan Ah, yes, true.
All we need is to look at the map $X \times X \to X$ and the diagonal inclusion $X \to X \times X$ I suppose. In homology I get a map $H_*(X) \times H_*(X) \to H_*(X \times X) \to H_*(X)$ where the first map comes from Kunneth's theorem (this is where I need field coefficients, I believe).
And the coalgebra map $H_*(X) \to H_*(X) \times H_*(X)$ goes the other way around, induced from the diagonal inclusion.
I haven't studied a lot about this structure; I vaguely remember it mentioned in Hatcher somewhere. Thanks.
03:29
hi @ForeverMozart
What's up?
 
2 hours later…
05:01
6
Q: Prove that between any two roots of $f$ there exists at least one root of $g$

Jim Wilson $$f(x)= 1 - e^x\sin(x)$$ $$g(x)= 1 + e^x\cos(x)$$ Prove that between any two roots of $f$ there exists at least one root of $g$. I know Rolle's Theorem and the Intermediate Value Theorem (I think) need to be used. Can someone show a step by step proof for this?

Can anyone explain this to me a little further? The accepted answer is good. But I still don't know how to proceed.
@BalarkaSen I have been listening to that Tom Lehrer song Lobachevsky over and over again since you posted it here.
05:43
@MatsGranvik It's catchy isn't it?
06:26
@BalarkaSen Yes it is. I later read about Tom Lehrer. He does not have russian accent naturally, instead he practiced russian accent with the help of a real russian just for this song.
06:40
"Harvard University: Scientists Reportedly Meet at School Privately to Discuss Human Genome Synthesis" anyone following this topic?
@MatsGranvik native Russian accents can sound very ... coarse. Lehrer's is relatively pleasant, if artificial
Hi @Brody.
@MatsGranvik Yeah.
elo thar, balarka
What's up?
my serotonin levels
i think that's the stuff that makes you sleepy??
wbu?
06:52
tries to recall what that is/does from past life
lol
@Brody "nothing" is probably the appropriate answer to that.
@BalarkaSen often the only appropriate answer
likewise... it's a dull hour
hmm speaking of Russian, declension is god awful. makes learning the thing an endeavor
I don't know Russian, so admittedly have no opinions on that.
I don't know many languages either.
any language that requires you to inflect every single component of a sentence
should die
07:03
I take your word for it.
Is there any math we could discuss about? Mostly looking for conversations in which I can actively participate in :)
Language is not a fair topic of discussion for me.
i'm thinking i was too pressed on the russian thing, so moving to math would be ideal
@BalarkaSen Sure. Calculate in closed form $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_n^{(2)}H_n^{(3)}H_n^{(4)}}{n^2}$$
@BalarkaSen do you know even to start such a series?
now that we both agree on moving to math: what kind of math have you been learning lately?
@BalarkaSen the kind listed on my course syllabi, and not much else sadly
07:11
Anyway. Just be careful about what you wish. :-)
rote cookie cutter problems you'd find in rote cookie-cutter texts on basic ODEs and multivariate calc
though i peruse math.se to get some food for thought (not that it suffices)
:( multivariable calc can be fun; sad to hear your course does it in a dry way
maybe i can tell you something interesting if you tell me what you have learnt so far/find interesting.
if you want, that is
it was my uni's Calc IV class, which in reality covered only 2/3 of the projected course description
no mention of differential forms, lagrange multipliers, (generalized) stokes theorem, etc. etc.
@BalarkaSen I'm inclined to that
alright, let's see.
you know what a manifold is?
lol
I do not
07:18
great, then let's try to understand what they are.
hmm i've actually been anticipating this
yeah, I mean manifold are one of the things that originate from multivariable calculus and go a long way. it's worth knowing them.
it's a peculiar feeling having seen the word a billion times in many contexts, and having no clue what one really is
so, what is a manifold? It's a subset $M \subset \Bbb R^n$ such that at each point $p \in M$ there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ in $\Bbb R^n$ such that $U \cap M$ is graph of a function. That is, there is a function $\phi : A \subset \Bbb R^k \to \Bbb R^{n-k}$ from an open subset $A$ of $\Bbb R^k$ such that graph of $\phi$ is precisely $U \cap M$.
There's a fairly simple general description.
07:22
The $k$ here has to be fixed. For all point $p$. (we say $M$ is a "$k$-dimensional manifold").
The intuition is that a manifold is "locally graph of some function". (whenever I say function here, I mean smooth function)
It's a wide pipe (think "output") for which there are many pipes leading into it. You've seen one if you've ever opened up a car.
What is the meaning of the word graph in this context?
Exactly what it means. Subset of $A \times \phi(A)$ consisting of points $(x, \phi(x))$.
@BalarkaSen i've yet encountered "neighborhood" but I have the impression it's intuitively the "locality" around something?
A neighborhood around a point is just an open set around a point.
Open ball, if you prefer.
07:27
and the point need be center in $U$ huh
if $U$ is a ball, sure. for arbitrary open set $U$, "center" does not make sense: we just require $U$ to contain $p$.
ah that clarifies it
musing over the definition, will post thoughts...
You should try to think of some examples.
I claim that the unit circle (level set of $x^2 + y^2 - 1$) around $(0, 0)$ in $\Bbb R^2$ is a 1 dimensional manifold. Can you tell me why?
@Balarka I find it extremely unlikely that anyone would look at what you said and walk away inspired with what a manifold is. Nobody needs a formal definition right now; I doubt you would have benefited from that before you had any idea what a manjfold was.
I certainly would not have gotten anything from what you said.
because a circle looks like a line in a small enough ball around a point?
07:32
I wondered whether telling the definition of being locally diffeomorphic to $\Bbb R^k$ would be more intuitive - I believe it indeed is - but I don't know of @Brody knows and understands what a diffeomorphism is.
That's why I thought "locally graph of some smooth function" would have been more appropriate and accessible.
@MikeMiller might be a fair criticism but I personally don't mind it. formality is a refresh for me having come out of a computational factory of a semester
and it's a brain exercise nonetheless. it's constructive for me in some way
@idonutunderstand has a good intuition! listen to him.
i get his gist, it's just a matter of reconciling the intuition with the provided definition
this is honestly my first real encounter with anything formal-ish
Yes, one should definitely try to do that at some point.
Generalizing what @idonutunderstand said: a k dimensional manifold is a thing which locally looks like $\Bbb R^k$.
It's probably not immediately clear why this agrees with being locally graph of some function over $\Bbb R^k$ but it will clear up eventually, once you know what "locally looking like" means.
yeah, i don't see how the two correspond exactly
i.e. locally graph... and locally looks...
07:42
Think of graph of a function $\phi$ over $A \subset \Bbb R^k$ a the result of "distorting, without tearing or gluing" $A$ by $\phi$.
@BalarkaSen Do you need fancy words? "Locally looks like Euclidean space." When (and if) there is confusion about what this means, one then starts to provide further intuition for the meaning of 'looks like'; and if it seems like it's the best approach for providing understanding, then throw out some definitions.
But it's past my bedtime.
@MikeMiller Hmm, I suppose that is a good approach. Intuitions-first is probably more useful than a definitions-first learning. I was trying to simultaneously provide the intuition along with the definition; but I suppose that's not a good idea.
I got none of the first and only the latter.
ohhh my brain kept seeing cups instead of hats. hold up, reworking some thoughts lol
I googled a bit to find something helpful. Try reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/mfswi/….
But now I'm going to sleep. The local expert is here if you have further questions.
07:47
@BalarkaSen i claim the entire sine curve $y=\sin x$ is a manifold in $\mathbb{R}^2$
because why not the sine curve? >.>
I agree with you.
Can you give an example of something which is not a manifold?
if i'm not mistaken, it seems like many familiar objects are indeed manifolds
G'night, Mike. Also, lol at "local expert".
the integers in the real line are not a manifold i am guessing
Well, a point is a 0-dimensional manifold.
And $\Bbb Z$ is just a bunch of points :)
07:51
suppose n-M denotes a non-manifold...
n-M in $\mathbb{R}^2$ is some subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ such that for some point in n-M, there is no function mapping some subset of the real line to the real line, whose image is $U$ intersect n-M
mmm?
ok the unit interval is not a manifold?
But it's also worth keeping "locally looks like $\Bbb R$" intuition in mind, @Brody, if you want to find an example of a non-manifold.
@idonutunderstand Which unit interval? Open or closed?
07:54
closed
OK, you're correct (but not quite the example I wanted - there are much more obvious ones). Why not?
the set $\{-1,1\}$ perhaps
in the real line
It's still a bunch of points. Points are 0-dimensional manifolds.
I mean, tautologically. A point is $\Bbb R^0$.
OK, I'm going to give you an obvious example. Consider the figure eight curve. "8".
Why is it not a manifold?
i want to say the crossroads of the lemniscate is problematic
Yep. Around that self intersection point, it looks like an "X". That's very not like a line.
Intersection of any neighborhood around the self intersection point is like an "X".
08:01
why is that more obvious than the closed unit interval?
You still haven't told me why the closed unit interval is not a manifold :)
If you can tell me that, you'll see for yourself.
the endpoints are not very $\mathbb{R}$-like, whereas the open interval precludes this issue
@Brody Rigorously, why can't the shape "X" be graph of a function? More precisely, suppose I have $[0, 1]^2$, the unit square. Why can the union of the two diagonals in $[0, 1]^2$ be graph of a smooth function $[0, 1] \to [0, 1]$?
@Brody The neighborhood of the endpoints look like $\Bbb R^+$, yep, the positive half of the real line.
But it still looks like a "line". Whereas "X" is obviously not a line. That's why I said the latter is more obvious than the former.
do you mean "why can't the union..."?
Yeah, typo. Sorry about that.
08:07
i'm trying to go off your "distortion" advice, bear with me
Sure, no problem. Manifolds are not conceptually easy objects; but only as long as you don't understand them.
i mean it's trivial that the diagonals are non-functional. also, the interval $[0,1]$ cannot be "morphed" into the X-shape without injuring it quite a bit
Hello all
Yes, that is the intuition.
if that's along the lines of what you wanted, but i'm not sure
oh ok
08:13
It has been a while!
0
Q: Categorical Representation of the Set of All Strings

Julian RachmanLet $\mathcal{A}$ be a preordered category for set $A$ such that the objects are the elements of $A$ and the morphisms are given $x,y\in A$, then $x\to y$ iff $x\leqslant y$ where $\leqslant$ is the subword order. How would we define a preordered category for all strings over $A$ (e.g., Kleene Cl...

@Brody Well, it's still worth understanding a bit more rigorously why "X" cannot be graph of a function [0, 1] --> [0, 1]. If it was, then consider two points lying over the same point in the x-axis in the figure "X" (away from the self intersection point).
Those two gets mapped to different points. So your function eats something and spits out... two different things?
Doesn't sound like a function to me. Contradiction.
@BalarkaSen yes, that was the "trivial ... non-functional" part I mentioned. sorry for not being more explicit
that basically amounts to the "vertical line test" and I thought you were expecting more haha
No, I wasn't actually :) Glad that you have already figured it out.
OK, here's a bit less obvious example. Consider the shape "V". Is that a manifold?
08:16
mmm, tough one. the non-differentiability at the vertex is pausing me...
You noticed the right thing.
but i don't know the implication yet!
Think about the locally graph of a function definition. We required that in a manifold every point has a neighborhood which is graph of a [....] function. What was [...]?
It is a manifold, of course (intuitively speaking).
well it's continuous at least, so there's no issue. i agree with @user1618033
08:19
We required that it was graph of a smooth function...
"V" cannot be graph of a smooth function (why?).
we did?
oh, you did in the definition
it was a trailing remark, forgot about it ^^
No worries.
had to step away for a sec, i'm back
08:23
People in topology would call "V" a manifold, because they would drop the "smoothness" criteria. Continuity is enough. But people in differential topology/geometry would not call "V" a manifold, because they want smoothness. In fact you get different classes of manifolds by saying "locally graph of a C^k function" for different k's.
So "V" is an example of a C^0 manifold, but not a C^1 manifold (hence not a C^\infty manifold). Don't worry about this though. Just think smooth.
there's no smooth mapping from the open interval around the abscissa of the vertex to the V-graph around the vertex
following the distortion approach
I agree. More specifically: if there was a smooth function whose graph is like "V", then the derivative has to be discontinuous around "V" because the tangents approach different slopes approached from different directions towards the vertex.
Contradiction. It cannot even be differentiable.
i like the differential topologist's version. it's actually less trouble due to the stronger constraint
Yes. Smoothness is a useful constraint which actually makes life simpler in many ways.
So, seems like you now know and understand what a manifold is :)
I can so far determine if something is or isn't one
hesitant to say I already understand manifolds
but that was very neat and enlightening. thanks for that
08:31
yes indeed, thanks
No problem. Let me know when you learn implicit and inverse function theorem (or, if you already do, when you want to talk about them). Those are the key tools to work with manifolds.
If the integrals and series I daily do were so simple, it would be cool. I learned a long time ago the story with the manifolds, it was a matter of minutes, but I didn't care about it later.
Back to some serious stuff.
Balarka, haven't seen those yet but I will look into them
(I lied, it would not be cool - I actually like the very hard stuff)
Sure thing.
08:36
BBL
Slightly surprised that your course hasn't gotten to those yet. Those are probably the most important theorems in whole of multivariable calculus.
like I said, it was rote cookie-cutter computational stuff. no proofs or theory, just the application of theorems
and even the use of the few theorems was poor. never cared if the hypotheses were satisfied or what the theorem itself meant. they were basically reduced to crank formulas
Sorry to hear that: seems like a horrible course to me.
@BalarkaSen I almost forgot to ask. I see you talking about all kind of area in math, but I have a simple question to you: have you ever brought your contribution (say, a significant one) in any of these areas by publishing some stuff?
the course was decent for the engineer, mediocre for the (lazy) physicist, and underwhelming for the prospective mathematician
08:46
sounds like a multivariable course, yeah.
Understandably so.
scratch that. we barely covered real-world applications. just computing vanilla integrals and such, so even the engineers were scheisted in some sense
@BalarkaSen We know you don't ignore me, but it seems you don't like what I ask you ... (I see)
@EricStucky I know of multicalc course which I personally found are great. Is it generally the case that they are horrible?
I mean, I only speak from experience
But yeah I've seen four at this point and they were all bad.
08:47
@BalarkaSen Hope one day you might like to learn to do some elementary calculations of integrals and series.
Yikes.
if i were at UGA in some past year, I'd be taking Ted's class, which looks golden
yeah, Ted's course is awesome cool.
@BalarkaSen Or even some struff in middle school I'm sure you have no idea how to do it ...
(before talking about manifolds)
08:49
i recall his course description trying to solicit prospective lawyers and pharmacists to take it
which is fine I suppose. just sounded kinda funny
oh well
you should definitely have a look at inverse function theorem at some point. I find it quite fascinating and powerful tool, myself.
does the single variable case suffice? or should I look at higher dimensions as well?
Ideally the higher dimensional case. The single variable inverse function theorem is not very hard to prove.
Hello!!!

I have applied a lot of times the euclidean division of $x^6-1$ with $x^2- \alpha^{a+1}x+ \alpha^{2a+3}, a \geq 0$, $\alpha$ a primitive $6$-th root of unity.

We are over $\mathbb{F}_7$.

I got that $x^6-1=(x^2- \alpha^{a+1} x+ \alpha^{2a+3}) (x^4+ \alpha^{a+1} (\alpha+1) x^3+ \alpha^{2a+2}[(\alpha+1)^2- \alpha] x^2+ \alpha^{3a+3}(\alpha+1)[\alpha^2+1]x+ \alpha^{4a}[\alpha^4(\alpha+1)^2(\alpha^2+1)-[(\alpha+1)^2- \alpha]])+ \alpha^{5a}(\alpha+1)[\alpha^2+ \alpha+1+\alpha^5]x-2 \alpha^4-2\alpha^3-2 \alpha^8-\alpha^7+\alpha^4+\alpha^3-1$.
ok, that will take some time then. until then i'll meditate on our late convo
08:54
Calculus/analysis on $\Bbb R^n$ is generally harder than $\Bbb R$ because $\Bbb R$ has a natural order on it, whereas $\Bbb R^n$ doesn't.
Indeed, to prove the inverse function theorem on $\Bbb R$, you'd use that property.
That doesn't generalize to higher dimensions.
the statement alone seems to have a lot of vocabulary I don't know
so it's definitely gonna take some time before I get there
hmm, i actually know all the vocabulary. just not super comfortable w/ them yet
Really? It just says if $f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ is a $C^1$ function such that $Df(a)$ is invertible then there are nbhds $U$ of $a$ and $V$ of $f(a)$ such that $f : U \to V$ is a bijective $C^1$ function with $C^1$ inverse.
ah, wikipedia tripped me up mentioning Jacobians
Well $Df(a)$ is the Jacobian here.
oh no :(
09:02
Are you not familiar with derivative of multivariable functions?
That's what $Df(a)$ is. It's also known as the Jacobian.
was taught up to partial and directional derivatives
Ah, OK.
i hope you see more and more how incomplete my course was :P
no worries, I'll catch up on the preliminaries when I have time
09:05
I'd recommend grabbing hold of Ted's multivariable calculus book at some point and devouring through it but people complain about it being too expensive, so...
i essentially bought Spivak's Calculus twice, with the answer book, so you'd be surprised
09:19
@user1618033 i most easily find beauty in math when I associate its concepts with space/nature or by picturing some advanced space-faring civilization
@user1618033 but maybe this is more "feeling" beauty than perceiving the intrinsic beauty of math. it's a motivator. these textbook exercises I'm doing are driving spaceships across the galaxy
:)
I appreciate this picture, but I don't think she will XD
yes, i suspect the possibility that she deems it misguided lol
but I felt the need to bother them
there are more constructive ways to waste ones time...
maybe for you. when i waste time, i really waste time
behold, son of perdition. i am become death. i contain multitudes.
lol "i am become death"
09:28
indeed! to SLUMBER the weary traveler goes. silent and SINISTER, like a ghost. pHanTOm AWaAaaAayyyYyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyYyy
G'night.
night :)
i should develop a habit of posting captain america memes whenever i understand references
@Brody First, there is no guarantee that the math you described above will match the math you wanna work on. Initially, yes, you may say to yourself this is the math you wanna do, but after working a lot on it you might not like it that much. Only working much on an area you will realize its beauty. So, it's hard to have a big picture of a certain area from the very beginning.
Secondly, hope you'll meet people that will make nicer introductions to the math concept than the one you received today from @BalarkaSen (which seemed to me not even MikeMiller agreed with that much). The figure-8 you saw is from a link posted by Mike (just to know that).
Third, if you're interedted much in "math when I associate its concepts with space/nature or by picturing some advanced space-faring civilization" then you should try my math. :-)
:P
I'm surprised by you
09:43
Einstein had a nice word "If you can't explain it simply, you don't understand it well enough." You never ever make such introductions to the math concepts as I saw today (excepting the case you wanna be seen by others - that know much more math than the simple student that wanna learn the new concept).
Oh, lay off him, u16.
Balarka doesn't understand a typical student's path.
It's a fairly common affliction.
It's just a matter of being nice with new people in a certain math area.
Hey guys, can someone here explain to me how the result f'(x) = f(x)-g(x) will help me prove the question?
0
A: Prove that between any two roots of $f$ there exists at least one root of $g$

G CabYou can consider that $$ \eqalign{ & f(x) = 1 - e^{\,x} \sin (x) \cr & g(x) = 1 + e^{\,x} \cos (x) = 1 - e^{\,x} \sin (x - \pi /2) \cr} $$ so that$$ \eqalign{ & f(x) = 0\quad \to \quad \sin (x) = e^{\, - x} \cr & g(x) = 0\quad \to \quad \sin (x - \pi /2) = e^{\, - x} \cr} $$ and...

No, it's really much more than that, u.
Well, I don't describe my tutoring sessions, but here I find it enough to be nice.
09:49
What does $\mathbb{C}[G]$ mean if $G$ is a group?
Jest: You can think of it in two ways
Either, as complex-valued functions on $G$, that is, maps $G\to\Bbb C$
Or, as formal $\Bbb C$-linear combinations of elements in $G$
(Usually called the "group algebra" or "group ring" if you want to Google for other sources.)
Both ways of thinking are equivalent?
Many thanks!
09:52
@JesterTran just note that the first way might indicate the wrong multiplication, which in that case is convolution rather than pointwise
Ooh, ty tobias :)
Well, except that, you would have to be willing to extend the functions linearly right?
probably the comultiplication is a bit more natural to define in the first case though (even if it is easy enough in either)
@EricStucky Not sure what you mean
Actually, I'm not sure what I mean either.
How do you compose these functions?
Erm
Convolution :/
ignore me.
right, no composition of functions here
Lol I'm the only one that got ignored. But I don't blame anyone, analysis is ugly and I hate it
09:58
XD not the only one
Just the only one recently :P
(as an aside, always remember to write the group multiplicatively when using the second formulation, or you will confuse yourself a lot with two different plusses, say when considering $\mathbb{Z}[\mathbb{Z}]$).
After reading, though, I don't know what your question is, Jim.
Are you not satisfied with Steamy's second paragraph?
@JimWilson
It is a good explanation but I'm still unsure how to prove it
Hmm
The first paragraph is a little sketchy, but the second one seems pretty copy+pastable.
I think my usual method here is, to write down the thing I want to write, and then
start asking myself where reasonable doubts might happen
If I can't find anything specific, but just have a vague uneasiness about it, then I submit it anyway with a comment to the grader.
But if I can find some specific concern, I'll try to write down counter-arguments; rinse repeat.
10:15
Our professor did mention we'd need to use Rolle's theorem for that question
Hmm.
I think your professor had a different proof in mind.
Yea he said "(hint: use Rolle's theorem)" in an email he sent us
One thing I notice, when I look at the graph:
It seems that for $x>0$, the extrema of the graphs occur at their intersection points.
Perhaps if you try to expand this into a proof, it would use Rolle.
10:26
hello
Hi Eric I was just reading your blog
:D
I'm looking forward to really getting back into it this summer
Are you a post grad?
Nope, just a grad student.
Oh thats the same I think
10:36
okay :)
sorry I'm using British terms for these things
Ah, fair.
Are you doing a PhD in Maths?
I was reading your blog and I find the idea of qualifying exams interesting and very different to what we do here
So, yes, but
In US, it is typical for a student to go straight into a PhD program after undergrad.
So really, what I am doing right now, if I was doing it in Britain, would be a masters program.
Ah I see
Do you know what area you want to do your PhD in?
10:39
Nah
I spend a lot of time with combinatorialists, so that seems likely
But I want to give a good solid swing at analysis
user147690
Hey @EricStucky How is life?
And topology gets better and better
Haha Alex :D
user147690
Some tropical geometry quickly came up in something I was working on haha
I keep seeing you around, missing each other for by an hour on chat
user147690
Yeah I saw that too haha
10:40
:P
But yeah, life's good.
Easy to say after the semester ends :P
user147690
My adviser tropicalised something and said it was a bit of magic :P, didn't explain why it was a motivated choice :P
user147690
@EricStucky Definitely haha
@EricStucky Why so?
Bala weren't you going to sleep?
user147690
If anyone knows some AG: In AG we define the tangent space at the point $a$ on a variety $X$ as follows:

$T_aX : = V(f_1 : f\in I(X))\subset \Bbb A^n$ where $f_1$ is the linear part of $f$
10:42
No, I have already had sleep today.
But yeah I don't know what you're asking about, Balarka.
user147690
How exactly does this rely on $a$. This seems wrong
user147690
Seems only legit when $a=0$
Alex, "linear" means "linear at $a$", in this case.
@AlexClark You look at the linear part of $f(x - a)$.
user147690
10:43
@BalarkaSen So a translation
You scale it to origin.
Think Taylor expansion, and take the linear part.
That's right, @Alex.
@EricStucky "I'm surprised by you". No idea what you were referring to.
oh, wow that was a while ago
I was surprised that u16 agreed with the description of her work as so...
what's the word
Brody's description sounded to me like a "gorgeous trapping"
Oh I have been ignoring him/her, I thought that was directed to me.
10:46
Oh, no.
@user1618033 Bro, the figure 8 is a standard example of a non-manifold.
Also I don't really care for criticisms about how I explain someone something from someone who pretends to know that something but doesn't actually know that something. However I do agree with Mike that I probably didn't do a good job for an introduction.
In any case, dude, it was a casual discussion - I wasn't teaching anyone anything.
You lay can off too, Bala :/
u16 may be opinionated but she's also competent
I wasn't really replying to the stuff he/she said, so not sure why you're telling me to lay off. I just said what I had to.
user147690
I also have them on ignore, so I was confused by Eric above too :P
@EricStucky I am not contradicting that?
user147690
10:55
I thought he was surprised by your captain america memes :P
Yeah, me too.
I was thinking of a meme-reply to that, that's why I replied to it.
01:00 - 11:0011:00 - 00:00

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