« first day (2089 days earlier)      last day (3231 days later) » 

17:00
My idea is to let $f_n$ be $1$ on $(r - 1/n, r + 1/n)$ whenever $r$ is rational and $0$ for irrationals sufficiently away from $r$ and in the middle a segment joining $0$ and $1$ in the graph. This seems very doable.
@TedShifrin Yes. We have a Lie bracket in the latter set as $[X,Y] f = X(Yf) - Y(Xf) $. How do we relate our concrete Lie Bracket to this one ?
We just need $f_n$ to be $C^0$. In fact one shouldn't have much trouble applying the same idea for $C^\infty$ using bump function techniques either, if $C^0$ can be done.
Well, then you're certainly not believing the result I'm telling you to prove, @Balarka.
Hi Robjohn. Care to check my solution? math.stackexchange.com/questions/1745355/…
@Mambo: Differentiate $e^{tA}e^{tB}-e^{tB}e^{tA}$ at $t=0$.
17:02
@TedShifrin I admittedly don't see the correlation between the problem you asked and the result you told me.
I am saying the limit function must be continuous on some nonempty subset.
Well, the characteristic function of rationals is continuous on the rationals.
spanks @Balarka very hard
What? No, that's totally and obviously false...
Tell me at least how to find a basis of a space that $P_i:=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint\limits_{\mathcal{C}(c_i, \varepsilon)} (A-z I)^{-1}\,dz$ projects onto if the dimension is known?
17:04
@TedShifrin But how is that an operation on vector fields?
Op. I am confusing the popcorn function with this. I apologies.
@Mambo: $e^{tA}$ is the left-invariant vector field corresponding to $A$ in the Lie algebra.
You raise a more basic question, @Balarka. Can there be a function on $\Bbb R$ that is continuous precisely on the irrationals? precisely on the rationals?
And the popcorn function is not continuous on the rationals either. On the irrationals. Eesh.
(That's actually on my topology final I'm giving in a week or so.)
@TedShifrin Can you please elaborate on that ?
17:06
@TedShifrin Popcorn function is an answer to the first.
@TedShifrin Ah, now I see why I said such a thing.
I slightly lied, @Mambo. Given an $n\times n$ matrix $A$, we get a left-invariant vector field on $GL(n)$ by taking $X(M) = \dfrac d{dt}\big|_{t=0} Me^{tA} = MA$.
I thought by continuous on a nonempty set you meant continuous when restricted to the set with the subspace topology.
17:10
No, I meant points of continuity, @Balarka, which is what everyone means.
Of course this is true for the char function on the rationals - it is identity restricted to the rationals hence cont.
@TedShifrin Right, I figured.
“In 1987, the science community held a contest to rename the Doppler effect. The winner was ‘Doopler’s Ear-Scrambling Sensation,’ which was submitted by an Arkansas high school student, and he won the grand prize of a trip up to space on a supply shuttle NASA was sending to the ISS. It was a dream come true for this kid. Problem was, he had a weak gut, and when that shuttle blasted off, that boy got terribly sick. Just as the rocket left Earth’s orbit, the poor kid started barfing all over the inside of the shuttle. The audio recordings of their final moments are awful: the ship’s crew scre
3
ummmmm okay
Is any left invariant vector field on $GL(n)$ given this way? @TedShifrin
Yes, @Mambo.
Left- (or right-) invariant vector fields are in one-to-one correspondence with elements of the Lie algebra.
17:14
@MikeMiller (1) I didn't see the removed message. Did I say anything wrong? (2) "what?" I know, that's silly, but it didn't strike me at first that that's what Ted meant by continuous on a set.
Mike got first and second confused whilst accusing you of the same.
yeah
when i'm unnecessarily mean i try to do my best to also be right
sometimes it doesn't work so well
ADG
ADG
hello people, how to put n red and n blue balls into m bins with each bin having exactly same number of both coloured balls.
OK, then probably I am not as silly today as I am usually. One terminology misunderstanding - that's alright. Need to be more careful.
ADG
ADG
no one has any idea?
17:18
What do you mean by "how to put"?
@TedShifrin So, we can define the Lie algebra associated to any Lie group $G$ as the set of all left invariant vector fields on $G$.
Precisely, @Mambo.
ADG
ADG
number of ways of putting inside the bins @Ted
Are the bins distinguishable or not distinguishable?
@Ted I answered Alex M.'s question, though I don't know why he didn't do it himself.
17:20
@TedShifrin Then for a general Lie group $G$, what is the counterpart of exponential ?
ADG
ADG
@TedShifrin both are distinguishable
actually i'm working it out for every case (total 4)
Still called exponential, @Mambo. Comes from solving a differential equation.
Is it called one-parameter subgroups? @Ted
This is a standard counting problem, @ADG. I don't see why the two colors of balls are particularly relevant. Can you do it with just red balls?
Yes, @Mambo.
Yes, now I see why my construction of why $\chi_{\Bbb Q}$ cannot be limit of the $f_n$'s I proposed. Given any irrational $x$, there is a rational inside $[x, x+1/n]$. A $1/n$-nbhd of that rational will contain $x$, hence be $1$ on $x$. My $f_n$'s are all identically $1$, I think.
ADG
ADG
17:23
@TedShifrin I think you are taking this question casually. for n red balls into m boxed both distinguishable i know it's $m^n$
but it is difficult to include that each box must have same number of both coloured balls
also order inside box isnot important, that's also a problem
@ADG: I'm not really interested in working on the question. So, yes, I am taking it casually. So since I don't really want to think about it, I withdraw any comments.
ADG
ADG
@TedShifrin OK. And I am sorry for my rudeness. Thanks for helping.
No problem.
I am surprised I didn't note that my construction fails trivially.
What was I even expecting.
@TedShifrin Thank you
17:37
@TedShifrin Interesting. I am starting to believe your claims now. Cool.
I think this guy wants a brief and straightforward exposition of homology, probably so that he can get to work on Alexander polynomials. Not sure if there are any good references but just saying "read chs 1-2 of Hatcher".
Which is not very brief.
Why does he need to know chapter 1 to learn homology?
Ch 2 in Hatcher is quite independent of ch 1 in my opinion. For motivations and intuitions, probably needed. But not to get the job done, in my opinion.
Probably would be wise to know about fundamental groups if you're doing knot theory.
Fair enough, I thought OP already knows about those since he only mentioned homology.
I don't think that's a fair assumption.
18:08
How are you @TedShifrin? :)
18:34
Nice, I can integrate things just fine.
Except that I haven't really read spherical coordinates too much because it looks tedious to me.
Hi @Akiva
What's your favorite way of proving $\int_{0}^\infty e^{x^2} dx =\sqrt{\pi}/2$?
Uh, I haven't heard of very many
I think I might only know about the polar coordinates one.
Maybe I've seen another one, but I've since forgotten it
18:48
Nevermind then. What's up?
So, my not-Hatcher book quickly became too much for me
and I need to do some Hatcher exercises to have any hope of progressing there
Then slow down a few notches. Don't give up.
Chapter 3 section 1, by the way
Did you do chapter 2.2. problems?
18:50
How did you prove pasting two disks along S^1 by a degree 2 and degree 3 maps resp gives S^2?
Wait, no
Not the later ones
@BalarkaSen how r u?
alright
I think that one I looked up, actually.
Sorry to disappoint.
I don't think that has a right answer anywhere on the internet.
Well, right and elementary answer.
How is your algebraic geometry study going on?
Of course you can just Whitehead the shit out. That's probably on the internet.
I don't think I know about Whitehead
(except the book he wrote with Russel, which is very unrelated)
43 secs ago, by Anubhav.K
How is your algebraic geometry study going on?
Seconded
18:53
It says if $f :X \to Y$ is a based map between CW complexes which induces isomorphism on $\pi_n$ for all $n$, then $f$ is an htpy equivalence.
lol not that Whitehead.
I think this one's J. H. C. Whitehead.
Oh, hm.
How's algebraic geometry going for ya?
@Anubhav.K @Akiva Alright. Done with most of the material in Shafarevich chapter 1,2. Time to learn differential forms.
@Anubhav.K You know algebraic geometry?
I don't
@Akiva Gimme a map $f :X \to Y$ which is an isomorphism on $H_n$ for all $n$, but is not a homotopy equivalence.
$X, Y$ CW complex.
18:55
I don't, but I'll start after a few days...may be after 2 weeks...after my exam
But before starting AG, I want to do a few chapters of commutative algebra
Well, I know that $T^2$ and $S^1\vee S^1\vee S^2$ have the same homotopy, though I'm not sure how to use that
(I don't think I know commutative algebra, either. What is it?)
(Not as simple as just studying abelian groups, is it?)
@AkivaWeinberger Note that we have an explicitly map here. So just having two things with same homology groups is not helpful.
A bit more, where people do things over rings and modules
@AkivaWeinberger You study commutative rings.
@BalarkaSen And their modules
18:58
Aha
Hello, Toby
Can I call you Toby?
Sorry
@AkivaWeinberger Sure, though nobody usually calls me that, I don't mind
@TobiasKildetoft Right. Hi, by the way.
@BalarkaSen Hi
Right, so, remember how $S^1\vee S^1\vee S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to a solid torus minus a trivial loop?
Map the torus to the boundary of that. Does that work?
What is your qes??
19:02
7 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
@Akiva Gimme a map $f :X \to Y$ which is an isomorphism on $H_n$ for all $n$, but is not a homotopy equivalence.
ohhhh....
@AkivaWeinberger Not sure if I get your map.
@BalarkaSen Torus to boundary of solid torus minus loop in interior.
19:04
Sí, כן
but you need to get isomorphism in the homology group too
In any case, that's clearly not an isomorphism on $H_1$. :)
Right, because look at image of a meridian.
Oh
Right, yes
Hmmm.
Unrelated: There's a movie being made called Deeper
I just read the script. It's pretty great
I rather look forward to the new Captain America movie.
19:14
i just want good questions
Why does one need to blowup $y^2 = x^3$ ones but $y^2 = x^5$ twice to remove singularities? Given a curve, how do you know how many times we need to blow one singularity up to remove it? How do we know that number is finite at all?
Ok , recently I was thinking, how to prove that there exists no closed surface with $\pi_1= \mathbb Z$ , without using classification theorm?
How about that? That's something I have been wondering.
@BalarkaSen Didn't you just learn the answer to these?
Can someone please show me how 0 factorial is 1?
19:17
Someone told me "something something arithmetic genus", but I didn't get a satisfactory answer.
That is the answer.
But it's not clear to me geometrically what is happening :( I'd like an overview on that.
Sorry to interrupt what you were talking about
@Anubhav.K What am I allowed to use?
You are allowed to use Homology Co-homology...may be properties of homotopy, but not the classification theorem
19:19
One can use things Mike used in his recent blogpost. But more or less one really proves the classification theorem that way.
I think
@BalarkaSen Yeah, that's just a classification.
I mean you cannot use the fact that orientable manifold has eular characteristics 2-2g either
Ohh, Mike has a Blog...I didnt know that
send me the link
OK, so we may as well assume the surface is orientable, by passing to the double cover. One version of Poincare duality implies that the cup product pairing on $H^1(\Sigma;\Bbb Q)$ is nondegenerate. This implies it's even-dimensional.
So your surface does not exist.
@tylerl-uxai So
19:23
and $H_1$ torsion free implies it has to orientable
hey!
So 0 times anything is still zero.. not 1
@Anubhav.K That's true by classification, but it's not obviously true to me without it.
We know that 3!=6 because that's how many ways we can rearrange three objects:
(1 2 3), (1 3 2), (2 1 3), (2 3 1), (3 1 2), (3 2 1)
19:24
No, that's an application of non-deg of cup product only
That's six
Oh, no, I'm being silly.
that for an non-orientable closed manifold $H_{n-1}$ is not torsion free
Similaely, 2!=2 because we can rearrange two objects in two ways:
(1 2), (2 1)
That's not a cup product thing. That's just that $H_2 = \Bbb Z$ plus universal coefficients.
19:25
And 1!=1 because we can arrange one object in one way:
(1)
Now, for zero objects: How many ways can you rearrange that? Just one:
( )
Another argument:
You can imagine every product as having an infinite along of *1s at the end.
3! = 3 * 2 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
2! = 2 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
@MikeMiller send me your blog's link please
I don't know it.
1! = 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
I have to google for a while to find it every time I want to write.
assorted details following
that's the name
19:28
Thanks.
Okay back @AkivaWeinberger (I had to say hello to relatives)
@tylerl-uxai So, continuing the pattern:
No problem. It's a good blog, more people should know about it.
0! = 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
In particular, you should know about it, @MikeMiller ;D
19:29
that's really cool that you can think of multiples as... rearrangement
or factorials I mean
I need to figure out how to set it up so it only shows the first few paragraphs of a post.
So does that mean it's undefined since it goes to infinity?
There are no objects?
So there's an undefined number of arrangements
I gave two proofs; one for each definition
Factorials are usually defined in two ways: In terms of rearrangements, and in terms of multiplying stuff
@tylerl-uxai No, there's one arrangement.
sorry, but 1*1*1 is probably just 1 eventually
19:30
unless you multiply it by 0 eventually
@tylerl-uxai It is. That's why 0! = 1
not trying to sound arrogant by arguing, but I really don't think you can multiply 0 times something to get 1
why are you multiplying 1*1*1?
I'm not. Did I ever do that?
I was continuing the pattern.
4 mins ago, by Akiva Weinberger
3! = 3 * 2 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
so it stops at 1 and repeats
instead of counting back
4 mins ago, by Akiva Weinberger
2! = 2 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
4 mins ago, by Akiva Weinberger
1! = 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
3 mins ago, by Akiva Weinberger
0! = 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 * …
In the first, I multiply everything from 3 to 1 (three things), and then a bunch of ones
19:33
@Anubhav.K A more convoluted proof: Let $\pi_1 = \Bbb Z$. Then universal cover is noncompact. It has $\pi_1 = 0$, so by Hurewicz $\pi_2 = H_2$ which is also $0$ as it's a noncompact 2-fold. So $\pi_2$ of the base is also zero. Hurewicz + vanishing of higher homologies keeps getting continued, so $M$ is a $K(\Bbb Z, 1)$. That's $S^1$. No orientable 2-manifold can ever possibly be htpy eq to $S^1$, because of $H_2$.
In the second, I multiply everything from 2 to 1 (two things) and then a bunch of ones. In the third, I multiply everything from 1 to 1 (one thing), and then a bunch of ones. So, for 0!, I multiply everything from 0 to 1 (zero things) and then a bunch of ones.
thanks so much
(Where by "from 0 to 1" I mean everything less than 0 and more than 1; zero things satisfy that)
@tylerl-uxai Another argument:
but like, is that also
could you say 1*1*1*1*1*zero=0?
since there's a zero object?
19:35
ok cool
thank god someone is agreeing with this
It's just that, in 0!, we never multiply anything by zero
@BalarkaSen this is also good
Why do we always multiply by an infinite number of 1s in factorials?
In factorials, we never multiply by anything less than 1.
@tylerl-uxai I was just saying that you can consider every product to be like that.
It's always the same thing, with or without the ones.
It uses more tools than Mike's proof (namely, Hurewicz), so I thought against posting it. But then I changed my mind. This one can be modified appropriately to prove that no 3-manifold can have fundamental group $\Bbb Z$ either, IIRC.
19:36
@AkivaWeinberger Does this make sense to you?
var start,
result;

for ( var n = factorial; n > 1; n = n - 1 ) {
if ( n === factorial ) {
// n * ( n - 1 ) is a start...
start = n * ( n - 1 );
result = start;
} else {
// after it loops once, substitute 'result' for 'n'
result = result * ( n - 1 );
}
}
$\pi_2 = 0$ is problematic for 3-folds though. Hmm.
So, when we define what it means to multiply zero things together (called the "empty product"), we define it to be one
@BalarkaSen No 3-manifold can have fundamental group $\Bbb Z$, eh?
compact, connected, orientable.
19:37
closed
without boundary
I guess it's good that it doesn't keep multiplying by 1... Since that would cause it to loop until infinity
Here's what your program should do to also work with 0:
@BalarkaSen No compact, connected, orientable 3-manifold without boundary can have fundamental group $\Bbb Z$, eh?
Oh sure
S^1 times S^2
19:38
Well, I don't know what programming language that is, so I'll explain in words
blah
oh come on.
Let i be 0, and let factorial be 1
$Z^4$ be the case
@MikeMiller Ah, now I see what I need.
Sphere theorem. There's precisely two.
19:40
After each step, set i=i+1 (that is, increment it) and set factorial=factorial*i (multiply by the new i)
S1 \times S2 and it's nonorientable counterpart.
And, if i==n, stop.
Both bound embedded spheres representing nontrivial class in pi_2 but are prime.
So, essentially, at every stage, we have factorial equal to the factorial of i
Even at the very start
That's correct. What's the extra condition you wanted in your argument above to deal with $\pi_2$?
Also that's not the sphere theorem
19:42
So it starts by knowing that 0!=1. Then it multiplies by 1 to get 1!=1, and it multiplies by 2 to get 2!=2, and it multiplies by 3 to get 3!=6, and… etc.
Until it gets to n
@MikeMiller They have to be irreducible.
(Incidentally, != means "not equal" in many programming languages. So 0!=1 can either be read as "zero factorial equals one" or "zero does not equal one." And they're both true)
Good. So what general conclusion did you just prove about irreducible 3-manifolds?
(Just a little curiosity)
I think we already discussed this before, but I forgot. I proved that there are no irreducible closed compact connected 3-manifold with $\pi_1 = \Bbb Z$.
19:45
how did you prove this?
@MikeMiller Hmm... I don't think the prof. for gauge theory is that motivated to do very interesting/advanced stuff :\
what's he gonna do
I think he's choosing audience over content..
I'm not even sure he'll do anything beyond mathematically formulating the standard model (of physics)
He seemed very hesitant to make any "promises" when I asked him about what more we can do
19:47
Take the course & then read Salamon's notes on SW theory :)
So, I'm back (after discussing 0! with someone)
I still have that problem to do.
Look at universal cover. $\pi_1 = 0$. Since base 3-fold is irreducible, every embedded S^2 bounds a ball. If $\pi_2$ was nontrivial, some nontrivial element of it could be represented by an embedded sphere (this is sphere theorem, not?) which could not bound a ball by hypothesis, contradiction to assumption. So $\pi_2$ of base is $0$, hence so of the universal cover. $\pi_3 = 0$ by Hurewicz + noncompact Poincare duality. And so on. So base is a $K(\Bbb Z, 1)$.
Again $S^1$, nonsense.
Not sure if I am missing any condition.
@MikeMiller Hmm.. We'll see. I'm a bit disappointed :\
That's perfectly fine. Can you now tell me what you have proved for an arbitrary irreducible 3-manifold with the exact same argument...?
The exercises also seem very simple, so I guess nothing much will be covered
19:49
I'm sorry to hear that
I was very happy with myself after discovering that $\Bbb Z^2/(m\Bbb Z+n\Bbb Z)\cong \Bbb Z_{\gcd(m,n)}\oplus \Bbb Z$
@AkivaWeinberger I was helping a family friend. For whatever reason, if you change the minimum i from 2 to 1 or 0, it will ruin the factorial
One of the first times I was inspired to do something creative by mathematics
I can show you exactly the steps if you want, so you can see how computers do it
Check out what I was saying from here
19:52
@MikeMiller If an irreducible 3-fold (compact/connected/blah blah) manifold has infinite $\pi_1$, then it's a $K(G, 1)$, right?
Yes, that's what I was trying to get you to say. Whence a million results on 3-manifold groups.
omg this is tough haha
I hope it's okay that I did n = n - 1 (counting down instead of up)
I mean, they both work, for positive numbers
Right?
@Mike @Balarka
@MikeMiller So the upshot is that whenever you have an infinite group you can easily check if it's a 3-fold group by group cohomology, yeah?
19:54
It's just a simple way to deal with the 0 case
You have obstructions through group cohomology.
I would hardly say you can easily check it.
@PedroTamaroff How do you get blog posts on wordpress to only show the first few paragraphs before clicking?
Ah, you're correct.
@Pedro
@MikeMiller Explain?
This. It shows every post in the full length in its front page. Mike's asking how to get it to show all the posts, but shorten its length to a few paragraphs on the front page.
Guess yours doesn't do it either so nevermind.
19:57
Yeah, mine doesn't. I guess you can throw in some bucks to get it? Wouldn't know.
By the way, me and my friends have opened a blog to collect problems.
What were you just discussing, about three-manifolds?
It is not all algebra, I promise.
Nice, @Pedro.
We were discussing infinite 3-manifold groups.
@BalarkaSen Meaning?
"Which infinite groups are fundamental group of 3-manifolds?"
@BalarkaSen This one is down your alley. Classify all connected three fold covers of a wedge of three projective spaces of dimension two.

« first day (2089 days earlier)      last day (3231 days later) »