« first day (2077 days earlier)      last day (3241 days later) » 

06:01
at least, I can't think of a counterexample
06:33
@MikeMiller @BalarkaSen in dim 4 PL=Smooth
@MikeMiller Did you find the paper?
I haven't even read Smale's paper on the 2-dimensional case.
@PVAL I was talking about triangulable, not PL... One needs to know that the link of a vertex is still a sphere. I guess it's a simply connected homology manifold which in dim 3 is probably now known to be a sphere, hence automatically PL.
I did find the paper. I can link it if you want.
There's a complex analysis proof. I didn't really understand Smale's paper.
Ayooooooooooooo.
@MikeMiller Can you link it.
I'll probably go over it with google translate or something at some point.
I think its only a page or two.
Thanks
06:44
Sure. What's in it?
@MikeMiller Apparently he proved that the map from convex CR-structures to coorientable contact structures is a homotopy equivalence.
I think theres probably only $C^\infty$ assumptions on the CR structures
and they might not necessairly come from a germ of an honest complex structure on M^3 \times I
(this is all only for compact-oriented 3-mflds)
I have seen notes of a talk which was obviously given long after the paper claiming that the map was a surjection (in the case where the CR structure comes from a complex str.) which would be implied by this already.
It's possible this person didn't know that this was well known, but its more likely the older paper proved something weaker.
I'd like to look at this proof and see if theres an obvious way of lifting a deformation of the CR structure to some deformation of the complex str. induced in a small neighborhood.
Makes sense
If I could do this, I'd have everything I wanted.
Well I can already guess who М. Л. Громов is.
Does this mean I can read Russian?
06:55
Lol
hhh
hhh
07:12
How do you understand toric ideal?
How is toric ideal different from ideal?
@hhh Hmm, so toric would mean that there is an action of the torus, so toric ideal probably meas one that is invariant under this action
hhh
hhh
Suppose an ideal I. Now is $I/\langle Ax \rangle$ a toric ideal? I have found toric ideals in the context of homogenous equations, kernel of a map such as here -- but I haven't found a specific definition.
Sturmfels introduced the topic here, perhaps I need to learn toric geometry to find the definition?
07:51
R composition S symmetric relation iff R composition S=S composition R?
@LifeOfPai No
@LifeOfPai Because you can find examples where it fails
You have counterexample
take an injective but not surjective function and its left inverse for example
07:54
I tried to find
ohhh sorry
@LifeOfPai please don't shout :P
R and S are symmetric relation
@LifeOfPai Then the composition will always be symmetric. But they need not commute
@LifeOfPai Actually, disregard that last bit
I was thinking reflexive somehow
So if R and S are symmetric relation,
R composition S symmetric relation iff R composition S=S composition R?
Right, because taking opposite relation switches the order of composition
07:59
ya!
thank you :)
 
2 hours later…
user174558
10:38
@robjohn I am back, LOL.
11:01
Could someone of you take a look at my question:
0
Q: Do we have to show that there is an ideal that satifies the conditions?

Mary StarLet $p$ be a prime. We define $$R=\{m/n\in \mathbb{Q}\mid m,n\in \mathbb{Z} \text{ and } p\not\mid n\}$$ I want to show that $R$ is a local subring of $\mathbb{Q}$. To show that, do we have to show that there is a $I\subseteq R$ which satisfies the following conditions? $I$ is the only m...

?
@MaryStar Is that really the definition of local you have been given?
I was just told in the TeX - LaTeX chat that I shouldn't be using "math operator" styles to denote categories in tex. However, they have not suggested what I should be doing: Anyone have any idea what is standard?
@Danu Did they say why?
Ohh, never mind, it is due to te way spacing works
@TobiasKildetoft Probably, yes.
any font would be fine, just note that math operator is not a font, so it should not be used for objects (but, as the name suggests, for operators)
11:08
At an other exercise I had to prove these conditions and at the end of that exercise there is the note:
Rings that satisfy these conditions are called local.
I haven't found anything else about local rings in my notes.
Can we not show it in that way? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar What do you mean you had to prove these conditions? That you had to prove them for some specific ring?
I was given that $R$ is a ring and $I\subset R$ is the only maximum right ideal of $R$.
I had to prove the following:
- $I$ is an ideal
- each element $a\in R-I$ is invertible
- $I$ is the only maximum left ideal of $R$
@TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar So do you see why you do not need to prove all those things?
also, it is maximal, not maximum (as that means something stronger)
@TobiasKildetoft Not really... Why do we not have to prove all these conditions?
@TobiasKildetoft Ah ok...
@MaryStar Because you just did an exercise telling you this
11:14
So, do I have to find the only maximal right ideal of $R$ ? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Well, you have to show that it has a unique one (so finding it seems like a good idea)
So, to find the right ideal we have to find an additve subgroup of $R$, say $I$, that satisifes the condition $ar\in I, \forall r\in R, \forall a\in I$, right?
@TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Yes, that is what it means to be a right ideal
With x = (x_1, x_2), is the supremum with ||x||_2 = 1 of some expression f(x_1, x_2) just the expression alone since there is only one thing to consider?
The third of the properties should help you see which elements to pick
@JesterTran No, that means the supremum over all values of the function on vectors of length 1
11:18
Do you mean that it must be also a left ideal? @TobiasKildetoft
there are certainly more than one of those unless you make some more restrictions
@MaryStar I meant the one involving invertible elements
@TobiasKildetoft I get it now lol
Ah ok... I will think about it... Thank you!! :-) @TobiasKildetoft
11:47
Aren't all elements of $R$ invertible besides of $0$ ? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Only if $R$ is a field, which it was not in the linked question
The elements of $R$ are of the form $\frac{m}{n}$. So, aren't the inverses the elements of the form $\frac{n}{m}$, when $m,n\neq 0$ ? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar What is $n$ allowed to be?
$n\in\mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\}$, right? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar no, read the question again
11:53
Ah and it is not divisible by a prime. @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Ok, so what does a non-invertible element look like?
It is of the form $\frac{m}{n}$ where $m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\}$ and $m$ is divisible by a prime, or not? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar what do you mean by "or not?"?
If it is correct...
rather than just immediately ask, try to verify it yourself
11:59
I believe that it is correct since then the inverse wouldn't be an element of the ring. @TobiasKildetoft
Good. So what would be your guess as to what the maximal ideal $I$ should be?
$I=\{\frac{m}{n}\in \mathbb{Q} \mid m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\not\mid m,n\}$
@TobiasKildetoft
Do we have to prove know that it is maximal?
@MaryStar That is the set of invertible elements.
Oh sorry...
$I=\{\frac{m}{n}\in \mathbb{Q} \mid m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\mid m, p\not\mid n\}$ @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Ok, now you need to show that this is indeed an ideal
12:15
$I=\{\frac{m}{n}\in \mathbb{Q} \mid m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\mid m, p\not\mid n\}$

If $a\in I$ then $a=\frac{m}{n}$ for $m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\mid m, p\not\mid n$.

Then $-a=-\frac{m}{n}$ for $m,n\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\mid m, p\not\mid n$. That means that $-a\in I$.

If $a,b\in I$ then $a=\frac{m_1}{n_1}, b=\frac{m_2}{n_2}$. Then $a+b=\frac{m_1}{n_1}+\frac{m_2}{n_2}=\frac{m_1n_2+n_1m_2}{n_1n_2}$. We have that $m_1n_2+n_1m_2, n_1n_2\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\} \text{ and } p\mid m_1n_2+n_1m_2 (\text{ since } p\mid m_1,m_2),
@MaryStar Not quite. You should not be restricting the numerator to be non-zero (clearly). Other than that it looks ok.
well, also apart from the use of $\implies$
@MaryStar Both
So, now we have to show that this right ideal is maximal and unique, right? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar the unique maximal ideal you mean (unique does not make sense on its own)
i.e. you need to show that if $J$ is any proper ideal, then $J\subseteq I$.
12:34
Let $J$ is any proper ideal with $I\subset J\subset R$.

We have that every element of $R-I$ is invertible. So, some of the elements of $J$ are invertible and some are non-invertible.
We take an element of $R-J$, which is invertible, say $x$ and an element of $J$ that is non-invertible, say $y$.
Then $yx$ is non-invertible, so it is an element of $I$.
Is this correct? @TobiasKildetoft
user174558
@evinda Aha!
@TobiasKildetoft Are there any well-known results on when a f.g projective module has a free factor in the noncommutative case? I know Serre gave a sufficient condition in terms of the dimension of the maximal spectrum of a commutative ring (in the case it is connected as a topological space so that the rank of the projectives are constant), however I have been unable to find anything useful when the ground ring is not commutative.
Hi @JasonBourne
Hey @robjohn
@robjohn I want to find $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \left( \ln{|x|} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}}- \frac{\phi}{|x|}\right) dS$, where $\phi$ is a test function and $|x|=\sqrt{x_1^2+ x_2^2}$.

$\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \ln{|x|} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS= \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \ln{\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS= \ln{\epsilon }\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS $

and

$\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\phi}{|x|} dS= \frac{1}{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi dS$
@robjohn Have I done something wrong? Because the last integral does not depend on $\epsilon$ ...
@Evinda Didn't I show that that was $-2\pi \phi(0)$?
@robjohn You just told me that the result would be this and I try to prove it...
12:49
@AndrewThompson No idea
@MaryStar It is not enough to show this for ideals $J$ containing $I$. To show it is the unique maximal, you need to show that an arbitrary proper ideal is contained in it.
@Evinda No, I also asked you what $$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\log|x|\,\mathrm{d}S$$ and $$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\frac1{|x|}\,\mathrm{d}S$$ were
And you really ought to know that you should not be needing to say something like "some of them are invertible", as none of them will be
user174558
My underwear is invertible.
Apr 4 at 14:41, by robjohn
@Evinda what is $\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\log|x|\,\mathrm{d}S$? $\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\frac1{|x|}\,\mathrm{d}S$?
user174558
My new movie will be out in July this year. The title is Jason Bourne.
12:55
$$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\log|x|\,\mathrm{d}S=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\log{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} dS=0$$ and $$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\frac1{|x|}\,\mathrm{d}S=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} dS \to \infty$$

@robjohn right?
No. What is $\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\mathrm{d}S$?
Does it hold that $\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\mathrm{d}S=\frac{4}{3} \pi \epsilon^3$? @robjohn
@Evinda That is the formula for the volume of a sphere in $\mathbb{R}^3$. We are looking at the circumference of a circle in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
So $\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\mathrm{d}S=2 \pi \epsilon$, right? @robjohn
@Evinda yes. Why are you posing your answers as questions?
13:05
Is there a name for the Dirichlet problem where we take away a point $z_0$ in the domain $\Omega$ and then add the condition that a solution $u$ should also have that $u(z) + \log |z - z_0|$ remains bounded as $z \to z_0$ ?
I don't know... :) Then we have the following:

$$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\log|x|\,\mathrm{d}S=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\log{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} dS=0$$ and $$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon}\frac1{|x|}\,\mathrm{d}S=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} dS= 2 \pi$$
@robjohn
But the one limit in our case is: $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \ln{|x|} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS= \lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\ln{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS$.

How can we find the value of $\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS$ ? @robjohn
So, we have to show that every proper ideal must contain only non-invertible elements, right? @TobiasKildetoft
13:24
It holds that $\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS=\phi(x)$ for $x$ such that $|x|=\epsilon$.
But can we find something about the value of x? @robjohn
But how could we do that? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar This is a completely basic exercise in ring theory
if an ideal contains an invertible element, then it is the entire ring
Because then the ideal contains also the identity $1$, and then by the definition of a right/left ideal we have that $r\in I, \forall r\in R$, right? @TobiasKildetoft
Do we have the unique maximal because every other ideal must be the entire ring? @TobiasKildetoft
13:38
@MaryStar No, there are other ideals. They are just contained in $I$
Is it because when an ideal contains only non-invertible elements, then it must be a subset of $I$, since $I$ contains all the non-invertible elements? @TobiasKildetoft
@MaryStar Yes
Please what are we talking about?? I just came in now
What is the point of saying $a,b \in \mathbb{Z} - \{0\}$? is there any point in subtracting a set by the null set?
Huy
Huy
@Obliv: that means that $a$ and $b$ can be any integer except for $0$
13:51
nvm i thought 0 was the null set but it's just a set containing 0.
thanks :p
user174558
14:02
@Huy Or you can say any nonzero integer.
$\dfrac{d i}{dx}=?$, where $i$ is $\sqrt{-1}$
It's constant, so...
@Krijn Yes, this has a name. I forget what it is.
Mike: then derivative is $0$ or not?
Hey @UserX
hey @evinda
14:13
Where are you from? @UserX
A small town in Greece.
Ok.
user174558
I am from Antarctica.
@TobiasKildetoft Ah ok... Thank you very much for your help!! :-)
From Ioannina where you study? @UserX
14:16
@Evinda nope. My hometown is about 300 km away. Small towns don't have universities in them anyway.
user174558
Greece seems a mysterious place to me.
Aha @UserX
user174558
I don't hear anything about Greece in the news.
Which is your field? @UserX
@JasonBourne The capital controls make it seem like north korea if you live here. It sucks.
user174558
14:20
@UserX Wait till you come to Antarctica.
@Evinda I don't have a field yet. I major in mathematics. We have the option to choose no field at all but I'm thinking of going into engineering math later because of the job opportunities.
user174558
There is engineering and there is math, but can you go into engineering math?
In which semester are you? @UserX
I didn't phrase that correctly. We can choose one of the following fields; analysis, algebra/geometry, engineering, computer science. Or choose no field at all.
@Evinda 2nd.
Kinda like american minors.
user174558
I think they should not let undergrads choose a subfield of math.
14:25
Thing is, no matter what field you choose you end up with a math degree. Not a CS one, or an engineering one if you chose those ones. So it's just a way to be more picky on classes.
@ramsay One subtlety is that there's a number of things you might mean by the derivative of a complex-valued function. But no matter what you're thinking about, the derivatice of a fonstant is 0.
@Evinda why do you need to find it? $\phi$ is a test function, so $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial\eta}$ is bounded. We are multiplying it by something that vanishes.
Huy
Huy
is a fonstant both function and constant?
@Huy then a cariable is both a constant and a variable?
hehe
user174558
14:27
A liger is born from a lion and a tiger.
@JasonBourne I have seen one of those.
user174558
A tigon is born from a tiger and a lion.
user174558
@robjohn Sometimes, I think I am born of a god, not a human.
The liger is a hybrid cross between a male lion (Panthera leo) and a female tiger, a tigress (Panthera tigris). The liger has parents in the same genus but of different species. The liger is distinct from the similar hybrid tigon. The liger is the largest of all known extant felines. Ligers enjoy swimming, which is a characteristic of tigers, and are very sociable like lions. Ligers exist only in captivity because the habitats of the parental species do not overlap in the wild. Historically, when the Asiatic lion was prolific, the territories of lions and tigers did overlap and there are legends...
That was fast
user174558
14:28
There has been speculation if a chimpanzee and a human can mate.
user174558
But any such experiment is bound to be banned by the politicians.
@JasonBourne feel free.
user174558
Perhaps there is a chimp and human offspring in top secret underground bunkers.
user174558
Now supposedly cats and dogs cannot mate, but there are reports that they have produced offspring.
I think the weirdest one I've heard is a horse mating with a zebra.
14:32
@UserX Have you passed all the subjects so far?
user174558
@robjohn It seems that very often these hybrids are not fertile though.
how to integrate....
@Evinda Nope, not a single one. I skipped the whole first semester's exam period because I was heavily sick. And the profs won't let me give the june exams for the 4+ year students :(
@Huy baby in avatar is cute :-D
user174558
@UserX If you are sick, best to redo.
Huy
Huy
14:33
@ramsay: that's not a baby. Asians look younger.
@JasonBourne It's ok, I got the september exams to make up for the lost semester. I studied for the subjects for the january exams so a revision would be enough to pass them in september.
Huy
Huy
@ramsay: do you know any function that almost results in itself again after differentiating twice?
user174558
@UserX In Sep, not on Sep.
oh well
@ramsay Do you mean how to solve?
14:35
@Huy yes
Huy
Huy
@ramsay: name some
@robjohn yes, i mean to solve:P
@Huy 0
4
Huy
Huy
@ramsay: maybe a more interesting one
@ramsay Do you know about integrating factors?
@robjohn yup!
@Huy no idea!
user174558
14:37
Can we integrate multiples?
user174558
Why do we have differentiating factors?
@ramsay Can you solve $\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{\mathrm{d}t}+i\sqrt{\frac km}\,x=0$
@ramsay Make the Ansatz that $x(t)=e^{\lambda t}$. I think you'll be able to solve the rest by yourself.
@UserX it can be done in a more systematic way without happening to know the solution ahead of time.
@robjohn no it has a complex function, if you remove it i may be able to solve
14:41
And is an integral of a bounded function always bounded?

Also $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{\phi}{|x|} dx=-\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\frac{1}{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi dS$.

Do we use now the dominated convergence theorem?
@Evinda no... $\int_Df(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\le\max\limits_{x\in D}f(x)\int_D1\,\mathrm{d}x$
@ramsay how about $\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{\mathrm{d}t}+\lambda x=0$
Hello @arctictern !!
I thought again about what we were talking about yesterday...
When $I$ is a right ideal of $R$, why is $xI, x\in R$ also a right ideal?
So that it holds it must be: $ar\in xI, \forall r\in R, \forall a\in xI$.
But why does this hold?
Huy
Huy
@MikeMiller: any idea what $K(\pi_1(S),1)$ stands for?
(S being a surface with $\chi(S) \leq 0$)
well(*first derivative behaves like a fraction*) , so
$\dfrac{dx}{x}=-\lambda dt$
am i correct?
then i will integrate
@ramsay yes. Have you not had any complex analysis?
Huy
Huy
14:50
spotted the physics student
@robjohn hmm, not so far :(
@Huy are you pointing me?
Huy
Huy
;)
:-D
@ramsay Oh, so you have not seen that $e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$. I guess then you might need to use the method that UserX was indicating. Looking for functions which are the same when you differentiate them twice.
user174558
Such as 0, lol.
14:52
@Huy $K(G,1)$ means an Eilenberg-MacLane space, a space with all homotopy groups zero except $\pi_1$, which is $G$.
This is equivalent to saying that $\pi_1 = G$ and the universal cover is contractible.
Any two $K(G,1)$s are homotopy equivalent.
$\frac{1}{\epsilon}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi dS \leq \frac{1}{\epsilon} \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi(x) \int_{|x|=\epsilon} 1 dS=2 \pi \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi(x) $ @robjohn

Is it right? Do we have to find now also an lower bound? @robjohn
@robjohn haha. but i have see that $e^{ix}$ thing and i have used but i don't know complex numbers + calculus
Huy
Huy
@Mike thanks, I'll look up these spaces
@JasonBourne hhehe:)
I assume they're about to use some long exact sequences in homotopy groups like Birman's to understand the space of diffeomorphisms of the surface, which has the mapping class group as $\pi_0$.
14:54
@Evinda why are you changing problems in the middle. we were working on $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial\eta}$ which is multiplied by $\log|x|$
Huy
Huy
@MikeMiller: these are preparations in Farb & Margalit to prove Dehn-Nielsen-Baer (the extended mapping class group of a surface is isomorphic to the outer automorphism group of its fundamental group)
Makes sense.
Extended?
Huy
Huy
with orientation-reversing homeos
Oh, sure. I would probably just call that the mapping class group.
@UserX still i don't know how to proceed
15:00
@ramsay Consider differentiating $\sin(\lambda t)$ and $\cos(\lambda t)$ twice
user174558
@robjohn I forgot how to do that.
@JasonBourne was I talking to you? ;-p
user174558
=) no need to add the smiley
Oh :-D
:(
user174558
Where is the great Chris?
15:06
Oh sorry... I thought that you meant that we do not use the dominated onvergence theorem for the other limit...

So in this case $\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS$ is bounded above since it is $\leq 2 \pi \epsilon \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}}$ . Is it also bounded below?
thank you robjohn, Huy
With homology, homotopy, homogeneity, and homomorphism…
why are there so many homos in math?
(Wait. That sounds like something else.
The question there would be "Why are there so few homos in math?".)
user174558
@ramsay You are welcome, lol.
15:21
@JasonBourne but i never mentioned you, ;)
user174558
@ramsay Hence the lol, lol.
hahahaaaaa:P
user174558
LOL
Or is the above inequality maybe true for the absolute value, i.e.
$\left|\frac{1}{\epsilon}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi dS \right| \leq \frac{1}{\epsilon} \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi(x) \int_{|x|=\epsilon} 1 dS=2 \pi \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi(x) $ ? @robjohn
LOLLLL$\to \infty$
15:34
@Akiva studying various notions of sameness is a natural thing to do
@Evinda But $\epsilon\to0$, no?
@Evinda no, use the fact that $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\phi(x)=\phi(0)$
15:53
@robjohn Yes. So we get that $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS \leq 0$.
@robjohn At which point do we use this?
@Evinda put absolute values on the integrand even though it is multiplied by $\log|x|$, it still goes to $0$
How would I go about creating a function that would create different permutations of a string, but some chars have many options. For example: 'hello', the h can be either h or H but the o can be one of ['o', 'O', '0'], my initial thinking is to compute how many bits each char is and then loop from 1 to the max bits and do something like a base2 convert algorithm with the dividend being the proper bit. Does that make sense?
0 === 'hello'
1 === 'hellO'
2 === 'hell0'
3 === 'helLo'
...
@qwertymk I might be wrong, but I think this belongs better on the programming site than here
16:09
$\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS$ $\leq 2 \pi \epsilon \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} \Rightarrow \left| \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS\right| \leq 2 \pi \epsilon \max_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} \to 0$

That's what you mean? @robjohn
16:24
Hello :)
A={1,2,3,4}
B={0,1,2}
Find an equivalence relation on sets of functions $B^A$ that all the equivalence classes have the same size...
I am really dont understand the question...
@Evinda yes, except there is a $\log|x|$ in there, but does not change the limit
@LifeOfPai If every function is only equivalent to itself, then all equivalence classes have size 1
But $B^A={f:A->B}$
Why they equivalent to itself?
16:40
You mean that it is like that: $\left|\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \ln{|x|} \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS\right| \leq \left| 2 \pi \epsilon \ln{\epsilon} \max_{|x|=\epsilon}{\frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}}} \right| \to 0$ while $\epsilon \to 0$ ? @robjohn
$2\pi\epsilon\log(\epsilon)\max\limits_{|x|=\epsilon} \left|\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial\eta}\right|$
How do you invite a user to a chat?
I've had people do it to me.
I want to do it to another user to move a discussion out of a comment thread.
16:56
@Axoren is he now in any chat room
@ramsay Couldn't say. I have no way to determining that, as far as I'm aware.
well.... then i don't know to? sorry!
Side note, @ramsay, your response to Huy looks like it has 10 times as many stars as it actually has upon first glance.
@robjohn Nice... As for the other limit, can we calculate it as follows?

$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\phi}{|x|} dS=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\epsilon} \cdot \lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_{|x|=\epsilon} \phi dS=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\epsilon} \int_{|x|=0} \phi dS=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\epsilon} \phi(0) \int_{|x|=0} 1 dS $.

But $\int_{|x|=0} 1 dS$ is equal to 0, isn't it?
It's fairly surprising that the proof of the Jordan curve theorem has basically no $\epsilon-\delta$.
17:08
"The" proof?
The homology one.
Ever since my e-mail address was included in a published article, I've been getting more and more spam. Pfft...
Maybe the existence of a Lebesgue number counts
@J.M. I know the feeling. I'm getting emails from people who think I'm already a doctor.
It's not terribly surprising. We've built a big machine to get away from point-set problems.
17:08
which is used somewhere, I think
@Axoren Exactly my problem! :D "Dear Dr. J.M. ..." - dummkopf, I haven't even considered getting a doctorate yet!
But it's, like, used once, and never brought up in the rest of homology theory again.
I ended up 3rd author on a journal paper in TKDE during my undergraduate and people have been doing it ever since.
@J.M. I think mine is somewhere, but it's an address I no longer use, so it all works out.
@MikeMiller :D Ostensibly, you're expecting correspondence from people who are curious about your ideas, not the girth of what's between your thighs...
17:17
Luckily, I have no ideas.
@J.M. Isn't it everyone's desire to want correspondence about both?
Personally, I enjoy my conversations with the Nigerian prince.
"desire to want" Good lord, I need to sleep more.
@Axoren well, not in the address reserved for professional correspondence! :P
But taking the piss out of the prince is occasionally fun.
Hey guys, I am looking for some clarification on Lipschitz functions. I have two functions $f_1(x) = x*\cos(\frac{1}{x})$ and $f_2(x) = x^2 \cos(\frac{1}{x})$ and $f_i(x) = 0$ defined on $(-1, 1)$. Initially I thought that $f_1$ is Lipschitz, but after taking the derivatives, I see that $f_1$ derivative blows up at $|x|->0$.
Any thoughts?
@robjohn Or could we use somehow the dominanated convergence theorem?
17:39
@MikeMiller Welp, then I'm gonna keep on searching for it
Hey @Alessandro :)
good evening @evinda!
How are you? @Alessandro
it's been quite some time since we last talked, how are you?
Try Conway's complex analysis book in his section on uniformization. This might be in the sequel, I don't remember.
It's going to be something in potential theory, I just forget the name.
17:40
Yes... I am fine, thanks... And you? @Alessandro
good thanks! I had a few exams last week but now I'm free for a while
Has your semester ended? @Alessandro
no, it will end in June, but we have some so called "partial exams" in the middle of it
Ah I see...
@Krijn Conway 1, page 277, definition 5.1 $G$ a region in the plane, $a \in G$, a Green's function with singularity at $a$ is a function $g_a: G \to \Bbb R$ that's harmonic away from $a$, has $g_a(z)+\log |z-a|$ harmonic near $a$, and $g_a(z) \to 0$ as $z \to \partial G$.
Usually you then assemble these Green's functions into one big Green's function $g: G \times G \to \Bbb R$.
Blame Conway for naming the region $G$, not me.
18:13
symplectic question for you, @mike
are action-angle variables a thing you've run into much?
Hmm, a symplectic question. I wonder what those look like :)
nuts.
i'm trying to remember how Hamilton-Jacobi theory works at a level which isn't bullshit :)
i suspect there's a natural description of it in terms of symplectic geometry, but that don't mean i know it
Huy
Huy
what's bullshit-level
Huy
Huy
18:26
ETHZ.ch
I know that one
hhh
hhh
I am trying to understand the antichains, {1,2,3}, {12,13,23} -- what is the third?
${\emptyset,123}$ or only {123}?
Suppose poset has the largest chain of size r. Then the poset can be partitioned to r antichains.
@hhh why third? There are 4 antichains there
hhh
hhh
${\emptyset,1,12,123}$ is a chain of size 4 or of size 3?
@TobiasKildetoft Thank you, that explained!
...of size 4 :)
I am trying to understand this oeis.org/A000372
the number of antichains of subsets of n-set, what does it mean?
Elements vs subsets

0 --> 2: \emptyset, no set
1 --> 3: \emptyset, no set, 1
2 --> 6: ...
I find it interesting that emptyset has the Dedekind size 2, can someone explain this?
18:42
@Semiclassic: Do you know Abraham-Marsden? Excellent reference for physics-y folks.
18:54
Man, category theory is so awesome---I'm learning the basic basics of it, and it's so supremely enlightening to me!
@Danu Yeah, it is a great topic
I love how it allows one to e.g. precisely state the goals of alg. top. as "finding functors from a top. cat. to some alg. cat." :)
It provides both a more general picture of why certain things should be considered "the same" (via universal objects for example)
And it also provides new interesting structures to study in their own right, which has lead to interesting results in other areas as well
I am looking forward to its use in (co)homology.
@ted i should take a look at that
@ted the other i should borrow from the library is Arnold's book on classical mech
19:15
@robjohn Ok... I got that it is equal to $-2\pi \delta$.
If we would have $G(\overline{x},\overline{y})=-\frac{1}{4 \pi} \frac{1}{||\overline{x}-\overline{y}||}$, I wanted to find in the same way $\Delta G$.

I got that $\langle \Delta G, \phi \rangle=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} G(|x|) \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{\eta}} dS-\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \int_{|x|=\epsilon} \frac{\phi}{4 \pi |x|^2} dS$

Am I right? But the first limit isn't equal to 0. Is it?
19:30
hello
@IdiotfromPrinceton Hi
@TobiasKildetoft is every group of order 4 abelian?
@IdiotfromPrinceton Yes
oh alright
also, if the kernel of a homomorphism is the identity, then do we say it is one to one? it this correct?
@IdiotfromPrinceton Yes, a homomorphism is injective iff the kernel is trivial
19:37
thanks a lot for your time, i see now. these are not in my textbook thats why i am struggling
How odd. This is usually one of the first things covered about homomorphisms
when i think abt it, it makes sense, but 'tis hard kinda.i use gallian
@Evinda You can't take the limit in one occurrence of a variable and not in another
It has to be in Gallian. That is such a standard text
hhh
hhh
How can I use the Binomial package in Macaulay2?
19:46
Yes, I see that it can't be right... @robjohn
Did you see my other question?
hhh
hhh
I solved it, sorry disturbance, solution: loadPackage "Binomials";
@TedShifrin fyi---i was over by the math library for other reasons, so i grabbed A&M
so we'll see if I like it :P

« first day (2077 days earlier)      last day (3241 days later) »