By the way, I went through the proof you gave yesterday that $\text{dim} T_x X \geq \text{dim} X$. Note that an essential step of the proof that the collection of smooth points, namely, points such that $\text{dim} T_x X = \text{dim} X$, is open. I don't think this is trivial, because it's not clear why singularities are going to be the same as manifold singularities (at least in $\Bbb C$. and if you try to do it by rank the proof goes circular).
I have a fix for this though: just pick a hypersurface birational to $X$, for which it's clear. Then you can show that the set of smooth points in $X$ contain an open set. Now you do the same proof: look at all the points for which the Jacobian has rank $\leq d$ (that's closed). So you have a closed set which contains an open set, giving you a reduction of $X$ breaking irreducibility.
But probably you already knew this. In that case nevermind.
Would it be worth the effort to construct a matrix such that the row sums of it sum to the reciprocal of a Riemann zeta zero, trivial or non-trivial, when feeding in the same zeta zero? In other words, zeta zero as input, and zeta zero as output.
Now on second thought I don't know if it is possible.
For a function $f$ to be defined at say $a$ you just need $f(a)$ to make sense, that is, that value needs to exist. No limit condition is required.
When $f$ is defined at $a$ and $\lim_{x \to a} f(x)$ exist and is $ = f(a)$, then $f$ is said to be continuous at $a$. To be continuous at $a$ you need to be defined at $a$, but not the other way around.
hi, limit condition is required, take greatest integer function and limit doesn't exist at integral points (take $n$)but $f(n)$ still exists, and you know GIF is not continous (*at integral points*), so limit condition is neccesary. make sense?
Suppose $X$ is an algebraic variety. Then any rational function $f$ on $X$ regular at a smooth point $p$ as a Taylor series - more precisely, there is an injective map of local rings $\mathcal{O}_{X, p} \to k[[t_1, \cdots, t_k]]$ defined as follows: $f - f(p)$ vanishes at $p$, hence is in $m_p$.
Thus choose a set of local parameters (generators of the cotangent space) at $p$, say $t_1, \cdots, t_k$, and choose $a_i$'s such that $f - f(p) - \sum_{i = 1}^k a_i t_i \in m_p^2$. Similarly choose $b_i$ so that $f - f(p) - \sum_{i = 1}^k a_i t_i - \sum_{i, j = 1}^k b_i t_i t_j \in m_p^3$. The map is defined by $f \mapsto f(p) + \sum_{i = 1}^k a_i t_i + \sum_{i, j = 1}^k b_i t_i t_j + \cdots$.
Now, if $X$ is a complex variety, there is a concrete characterization of the embedded copy of $\mathcal{O}_{X, p}$ in $\Bbb C[[t_1, \cdots, t_k]]$ - it's the ring of convergent Taylor series ring of rational functions regular at $p$.
But if my base field is arbitrary, there is no such notion of convergence. Can I still characterize $\mathcal{O}_{X, p}$ out of all the formal power series?
how about "how can I characterize taylor series of rational function regular at smooth pt $p$ of $X$ from all the formal power series in the local coordinates at $p$? for varieties over $\Bbb C$ we have a notion of convergence which helps. what about arbitrary fields?"
I should also probably note that by that exact sequence there Mike really means the long exact sequence which repeats that bit again and again, in case it's confusing (thus the $"*"$ in the indices). If you knew this, nevermind.
@Danu I think you're being too broad. There is indeed a common theme in all of these, but it's not exceptionally deep or whatever. It's "Cut the space into smaller, easier pieces and work with those"
In the Leray covering you're cutting it into the simplest possible pieces. Now note that Mayer-Vietoris, as stated, doesn't involve more than two open sets.
@DanielFischer if $f$ is a holomorphic (and vanish as $\Re(z) \to + \infty$) can we say $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(x) - f(\lambda x)}{x} = f(0) \operatorname{Log} (\lambda)$ where, $\Re (\lambda) > 0$? (something like a frullani for complex parameter)
@AkivaWeinberger Assuming the statement that given a collection of sets $X=\{A_i\}$, one can construct a set $B$ with the property that $\lvert B\cap A_i\rvert =1$ for every $A_i$ is equivalent to AC
@r9m It holds for $\lambda >0$. And the function on the right side is analytic on the half-plane $\text{Re}(\lambda) >0$. So I guess we would need to argue that the integral is analytic on the same half-plane.
@AkivaWeinberger Let $X'$ be the finite set that has for standard elements the standard elements of $X$. Because it's finite, there exists a $B'$ such that $\lvert B'\cap A_i\rvert =1$ for all standard $A_i$. Define $B={^\mathsf{s}\{}x\in\bigcup A_i :x\in B' \}$
@BalarkaSen hah .. got it .. till level 5 after that I decided to shake hand with the trolls :P (apparently you can hold back the unicorn with enough gun fire :P)
hello, writing $\sqrt{-2}=\sqrt{2}i$ is a valid step, *right*? then why can't we write: $$\frac{1}{i}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}}=\sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}}=\sqrt{-1}=i$$ and this is completely wrong, wikipedia article on square roots confused me :(
As Akiva said, for $a, b> 0$, $\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ has to be the root $+\sqrt{ab}$ because square root of positive number is positive, and thus it cannot be a negative number $-\sqrt{ab}$.
$(+\sqrt{a})(+\sqrt{b})$ is a positive number, as $a, b > 0$. Also we know $(+\sqrt{a})(+\sqrt{b})$ can be either $+\sqrt{ab}$ or $-\sqrt{ab}$. But the latter of these is negative, and a positive number cannot be equal to something negative.
So the only possibility is $(+\sqrt{a})(+\sqrt{b}) = +\sqrt{ab}$.
@DeNiSkA Note that whenever you say $\sqrt{\cdot}$ and $-\sqrt{\cdot}$, you are inherently making a choice. Why is this choice well-defined? How do you define $+\sqrt{\cdot}$ and $-\sqrt{\cdot}$ when your arguments are negative numbers? This is the point Tobias is making. This is not a well-defined concept, so you make a choice as you move along.
@DeNiSkA The point I am trying to make is this. If $a$ is a positive number, $x^2 - a = 0$ has two solutions. One is negative, one is positive. The positive one you call $\sqrt{a}$, the negative one $-\sqrt{a}$. Fine, that's well defined and everyone is happy.
But the minute $a$ is a negative (e.g., $-1$), the two solutions of $x^2 - a = 0$ are indistinguishable. I can choose one of the solutions to be $i$, and call it $i$ and work with it. But I can never choose is canonically. There is no unique choice (the "fancy math" reason is that $\Bbb R$ has an order on it, $\Bbb C$ doesn't).
E.g, if $a$ and $b$ are solutions of $x^2 + 1 = 0$, we know we have $a = -b$. So you say we can choose $a$ to be $i$? Wrong. We also know that $b = -a$, why can't I choose $b$ to be $i$? That seems equally sensible.
So it's like having two completely identical objects one after another, and then flipping the order the two objects are in and asking which order is "nicer". This has no canonical answer- any order works, because the objects are identical.
There are is a "mathy" ways to word this ("Galois groups acts on roots transitively"), but this is what it comes down to.
Hey @DanielFischer Suppose that we are looking for a limit $\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} g(x,y)$.
If we find the limit along the line x=0 and the limit along the line y=0, and they are equal does this mean that the orginal limit is also equal to these ones?
A Hilbert space is a vector space with an inner product satisfying a list of properties. What is your proposed inner product? If I understand you right, that thing is not even a real vector space. It'd be a good idea to have some familiarity with vector spaces before trying to learn about Hilbert spaces.
Hey! Can anyone please give a simplified explanation how Gödel's first Incompleteness theorem shows us that there are infinitely many true statements which are unprovable within a formal system? Is it a case of "the more we know, the more questions we create"?
@AkivaWeinberger I have this definition in my text:
There exists no formal proof system satisfying all of the following conditions. (i) There is an algorithm for telling whether or not a given sequence of sentences constitutes a formal proof of a given sentence. (ii) Every true sentence is formally provable. (iii) Every formally provable sentence is true.
(iii) is said to be the consistency condition and (i) is known as the completeness condition. By a formal system Akiva really means a consistent and complete proof system which is enriched over the Peano axioms.
Apply the theorem to the system to get one unprovable statement, add it to your list of axioms, apply the theorem to that to get another unprovable statement, add that to your list of axioms, etc. No?
@AkivaWeinberger Well, first I want to understand why there are infinitely many because then I have to understand how we could get a "perfect" formal language if there where only a finite number of true statements that are unprovable
If you had a formal language with only finitely many true-unprovable statements, then you could add those statements to your list of axioms, and you'd get a formal system that satisfies (i), (ii), and (iii). Contradiction. (If you try this where there's an infinite number of true-unprovable statements, you could break (i), I think, because there wouldn't be an algorithm telling you if something is on your list of axioms or not.)
similarly to what others have said: start with a system, use GIT to get an unprovably true result, then add it to your axioms and use GIT again to get a different unprobably true statement. What's the status of this second statement in your original system?
@AkivaWeinberger thanks, it is starting to make sense now. But how does having a finite number of true sentences which are unprovable solve conditions (ii) and (iii)?
@BalarkaSen hmm, but what do you mean by 'enriched' over PA?
@AkivaWeinberger Let $X'$ be the finite set that has for standard elements the standard elements of $X$. Because it's finite, there exists a $B'$ such that $\lvert B'\cap A_i\rvert =1$ for all standard $A_i$. Define $B={^\mathsf{s}\{}x\in\bigcup A_i :x\in B' \}$
@Semiclassical So basically to create a "perfect" formal system, IF there are only a finite number of unprovable true sentences, all I have to do is to modify the PA- sytem by adding axioms until i have proven all true sentences?
good point @AkivaWeinberger, let me examine to see if I can fix it (really, I was being lazy to make it look like the others; I should know by now to not be lazy with IST....)
@AkivaWeinberger I think it is fine maybe still, because you can guarantee it is standard by relativizing the statement used to construct it
Thought: while bounded harmonic functions on $\Bbb R^2$ are constant, there is a massive number of bounded harmonic functions on the unit disc w/ hyperbolic metric (the Laplacian is a conformal invariant, and it's conformally equivalent to the Euclidean metric on the unit disc). Can you make some sort of growth condition that will let you get a finite-dimensional space of harmonic functions?
Note that you can't demand they vanish at infinity, because the maximum principle would imply they would all be zero. Maybe something silly like sub-linear growth.
2nd question: is there an appropriate such thing so that you can recover hodge theory on noncompact, complete manifolds?
Let $M$ be a field and $G$ the multiplicative group of matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & x & y \\ 0 & 1 & z \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ with $x,y,z\in M$.
I have shown that all the elements of the center $Z(G)$ are the matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & \tilde{y} \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$.
How could I show that $G/Z(G)$ is abelian?
We have that $G/Z(G)=\{gZ(G)\mid g\in G\}$.
Do we have to take $A=g_1Z(G)$ and $B=g_2Z(G)$ and show that $AB=BA$ ? Or do we have to take the same $g$ just an other element of the center?
@AkivaWeinberger could you pls help me understand something you said: "As for (iii), if you start off with a consistent system, adding true statements can't make it inconsistent." What does it mean when a system is consistent and inconsistent? Is it that it will always give the same truth-value to the same sentence?
i.e. something that is true continues to be true even if we add axioms (to include the finitely many true unproven sentences)?
@Semiclassical but how will i know that the newly added axioms will not ruin my "perfect" system by including false statements? or can i solve this by condition (i), i.e. by algorithmically checking ?
@litmus If, assuming $x_0$, you could prove a false statement, then that's the same as proving $x_0\implies\rm False$ in the original system. That's equivalent to $\lnot x_0$
There is a noetherian version of Higman's Lemma which says
If $X$ is a noetherian poset, then $X^*$ is noetherian.
Now I was thinking, given $X=\{1\}$ we get $X^*=\{1,11,111,\cdots\}$ by the concatenation of $X$. In addition, say $X=\mathbb{N}$; however $\mathbb{N}$ is not noetherian with t...
@bwDraco Please don't ask to ask; if you simply ask your actual question, we will help you if we know the answer or can help you find it. This is much faster and simpler than asking if it's OK to ask. As a rule, it is always OK to ask in this channel. Please go ahead.