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16:00
quote from MSE: "the proof is very, very long. Continues over two pages."
debating whether or not to bring my laptop on this trip. it's a bit bulkt
@anush anyways, i hope that wasn't too much information overload :)
where are you heading? @MikeMiller
@MikeMiller maybe sell your current laptop and buy a lighter one.
conference in the bay area
my current laptop is old enough that it's got essentially no value. I'm going to buy a chromebook (again) sometime
time cube appears to be permanently offline. rip
16:13
in honor of that kind of crazy, a conspiracy theory: Wikipedia says the domain expired in August 2015, in the midst of the enduring crazy train that is Donald Trump
@MikeM: Don't you know a one-line proof of the Riemann Mapping Theorem? Geez.
oh, Balarka is still alive ...
Hello@TedShifrin
@TedShifrin Hello.
hi, @Semiclassic, DogAteMy, @Albas.
Yes, but only barely.
16:15
@Ted Yes, of course, assuming uniformization.
Talk about putting the carriage ahead of the horse, @MikeM.
obviously, then, Time Cube was a secret NWO plot to subconciously prepare us for the coming of the Trump, and had thus served its purpose.
Hey everyone!
#TrumpCube
@Ted: I try.
This reminds me of my favorite construction of the Lebesge measure.
16:16
hi @Logan
(this is one of those instances where i am far more amused by my joke than anyone else.)
I find the whole thing way too depressing, @Semiclassic.
fair enough. farce comes after tragedy, after all, and i doubt we've reached rock bottom yet :/
No, we surely have not.
What exactly is time cube? I heard about it a while back but was too lazy to spend any time looking at it.
16:18
@Balarka: Have you been sequestered in an asylum?
Riemann integration defines a positive linear functional $C_c(\Bbb R^n) \to \Bbb R$. So by the Riesz representation theorem, this is given by integration against a regular Borel measure. :)
@Logan: I linked to the webpage.
Yes, that would be a good carriage, as well, @MikeM.
i do like the phrase #TrumpCube, though
@MikeMiller Oh, thanks!
Reminds me of Nissan Cube.
16:20
@TedShifrin Much worse. I have been semi-forced to study something I don't think I have the mathematical maturity for. Namely, Shafarevich part I.
@Ted: It's probably not circular. :)
Forced? @Balarka
Obviously, there are people who think it's more important to learn second-year graduate courses before learning the important undergraduate material. I'm not one of those.
Well, told to, at least. But the stuff's hard.
Is the implied claim that Shaferevich is second-year graduate material?
@TedShifrin I don't know I find myself seeking the higher level stuff out because I think its more interesting; I'm in high school and it's not that I find the curriculum easy but it's so god damned boring.
16:23
Assuming one takes graduate algebra and commutative algebra first year, yes, @MikeM.
How does anyone in algebraic geometry get a PhD in five years?
@Logan: I don't think Balarka has been talking to us about high school math in, say, 5 years.
@TedShifrin Oops, read it out of context!
I have a problem for you guys.
I don't see that as impossible, @MikeM. But not everyone can go to top research universities as an undergrad and take two years of graduate courses as an undergrad.
mr @Pedro !
16:26
Give $S_n$ uniform distribution. The expected number of $k$-cycles in a permutation is $1/k$ for $k\leqslant n$.
@Balarka: In all seriousness, it's no harder than the recondite topology you've been wrestling with. But I still don't like it.
@TedShifrin On a brighter note, I'll probably be learning real analysis (1st Rudin then Stein Shakharchi or something) from an analyst after this is over (I don't think I can cope with Shafarevich anyway, probably would drop out soon).
I don't like it either, to be honest.
Given any elliptic linear operator $D$, does D-flow ($d/dt-D$) always produce smooth solutions? I guess so, but it's not obvious why.
You still should finish what we were doing, @Balarka, and I don't see any reason you can't do differential topology, finally. There's not that much left in Rudin for you to learn. Skipping multivariable and his crummy chapter on Lebesgue, that leaves the first 8 chapters. You might need to do a month of exercises, but that's it.
Topology qual here is in a few days.
16:29
Excitement.
I'm confused, @MikeM: On what Banach space are we working?
@Pedro: I find that hard to believe. Are you talking about a minimal representation, for starters? I can put in an awful lot of 2-cycles.
I mean, a permutation can be written uniquely as a product of cycles: order the cycles first in size and then putting the largest element of the cycle first, order the cycles.
I dunno, whatever space of functions you want. If one needs help at the start of bootstrapping up, the minimal $L^2_k(\Bbb R^n \times \Bbb R)$ such that functions are continuous.
@Pedro: Uniquely? Really?
@TedShifrin Yes.
@TedShifrin I actually peeked at G-P when I got stuck and frustrated with Shafarevich. The first 6 chapters looked nice, I like the material: the exposition runs quite smooth. I can probably do a couple exercises too.
16:32
(disjoint cycles)
I mean that this representation is unique, Ted.
Speaking of, I looked and Rudin's multivariable exercises are easy.
But why can't I throw in arbitrarily many $(1\,2)(1\, 2)$?
Admittedly most of the exercises are in your book.
Balarka the exercises in the special function chapter are very difficult. I saw a few of them
16:34
His treatment of multivariable sucks, @Balarka. And you're learning a lot of analysis if you do the exercises I've asked you to do.
@TedShifrin Disjoint cycles.
Ohhhhhh, disjoint cycles :P
Write $\sigma$ in disjoint cycles, and order them by length first and then by the largest element inside the cycle.
Still very strange that the expected number of cycles should be that tiny. So what is the expected cycle-length, then?
calculate the # of permutations with a given k-cycle and count the number of k-cycles, multiply and divide by n!
16:35
@TedShifrin I probably did most of the exercises you asked me to do, give or take a few. I hope I did learn analysis.
@Semiclassical thanks very much!
Well, I haven't heard anything from you about the chapter 7 stuff, @Balarka, and there's still plenty of chapter 8.
I didn't get the chance to talk. Admittedly I did not study chapter 8.
Since we spend more time and effort on you than these other people, @Balarka, why are they giving you all the orders?
Well, they spent some time teaching me some topology, so I can't say right away that I don't want to study Shafarevich right now whereas they want me to learn it. But I don't think I need to, as it's not going well. I keep getting stuck. Probably they'll agree that it's too early for me and put me on differential topology or something.
Or at least that's what they said when I said it's too hard for me.
16:43
@TedShifrin assuming I've understood correctly, $\frac{1}{n!}\sum_{\sigma}\sum_{\rm cycles}{\rm size(cycle)} = n$ because the inner sums are $n$, and the total # of cycles in the list of all cycle representations of all permutations will be $\sum_k n!/k$, so the expected cycle size of a cycle drawn from the list of all cycle representations of all permutations uniformly at random will be $n/H_n$ where $H_n=1+1/2+\cdots+1/n$.
which is about $\pi(n)$. there are analogies between prime statistics and random permutations, qiaochu has a blog post or two about it, and andrew granville I believe wrote a thing on it
Well, expected cycle length should be $\sum k P(\text{length }k)$? Am I missing something?
what do you mean by P(length k)?
the probability that a given permutation has a length $k$ cycle in it?
I freely admit this is stuff I never think about ... unlike Granville, my former colleague and good friend :)
so would two permutations with different #s of k-cycles >1 contribute the same to kth summand there?
oh, what I wrote isn't right.
16:47
@TedShifrin Granville was your colleague? Cool.
the formula will of course depend on how we are drawing our k-cycles. I've pretended we've written down the disjoint cycle representation of all permutations on paper, then circled all the k-cycles present, and drawn from that collection uniformly at random.
Yup, for many years before he left UGA to escape the gun culture of the US. And now look ...
When did he leave UGA?
Hmm, over 10 years ago, @Balarka. I don't remember precisely, but one can find it on the web easily enough.
16:49
Ah, ok.
@TedShifrin Yes. The point is to obtain a combinatorial proof.
Now the whole question is confusing me, so I'm not going to think about it any more ... :)
@TedShifrin: Here's the point of the question, rephrased. Heat flow is a smoothing operator (that is, solutions to the heat equation for $t \geq 0$ with boundary value at $t=0$ are smooth for $t>0$). Put more elementarily but with less power, solutions to the heat equation on $\Bbb R^n \times \Bbb R$, the second term the time variable, are smooth.
Is this special to the heat equation? Or is it just because it's the flow of the Laplacian, which is elliptic in ever sense?
@MikeM: Surely what works for the Laplacian should work for any elliptic operator. Not that I remember my PDEs from grad school ...
@TedShifrin: That's how I feel. Unortunately I also can't remember why heat flow is smoothing, other than "I can construct the unique sol'n"
Maybe something something convolution with heat kernel.
16:52
Hola
Yes, I was about to say convolve with the fundamental solution.
I got a gig tutoring people. I just taught someone the Pythagorean theorem and how to prove it
Presumably you can use the symbol of the elliptic operator to tweak it.
DogAteMy: How many different proofs? :D
doesn't heat flow have a conserved quantity?
Just one, but I mentioned that there are at least four hundred
16:53
@AkivaWeinberger which proof?
So, what's special to ellipticity here? The existence of a fundamental solution?
though i may well be confusing that with something else. my formal PDE background isn't great either.
oh, @ted, did you see the horrible PDE i cited earlier? :P
I guess someday I should just sit my ass down and read Evans. Sigh. Too much to do.
No, @MikeM, you always have a fundamental solution in the appropriate sense, don't you? Ellipticity gives you nice exponential decay or something.
No, @Semiclassic.
16:54
I don't know much about the theory of fundamental solutions. I'l believe you.
@arctictern (Nice name, by the way)
you familiar with the joke?
Who's Line reference?
2 hours ago, by Semiclassical
\begin{align} \partial_t h - \partial_{xx} h &= p-\frac12 (\partial_x h)^2,\\ \partial_t p+\partial_{xx}p &= -\partial_x(h\partial_x p),\\ p(x,1)&=\Lambda \delta(x),\\p(x,0)&=\Lambda \delta(x)-2\partial_{xx}h(x,0)\end{align}
@AkivaWeinberger :D
16:55
DogAteMy: I guess I'm fondest of the similar triangle proof. But I don't know the age/level of your tutee.
it kind've sucks :/
@TedShifrin Garfield's proof is cool.
i'm not trying to solve it exactly, mind, just numerically in mathematica
@Semiclassic: This looks like the PDE you wrote down a week ago re Mathematica. I have no clue.
it is, yeah
16:56
We went over similar triangles just last week… I wouldn't want to use something that she might still have problems with
@Semiclassical: Oh my, I hadn't realized without TeX on just how nonlinear your equation is.
to make life easier i'm working with periodic BCs in the $x$ direction but still
Are yuou sure that's legal in the state of Michigan?
I actually put that in my answer sheet on the board exams. It asked to give a proof of Pythagoras' theorem. I put up the similar triangle proof, and for extra credits, Garfield's. :P
don't know, but I don't live in Michigan
16:57
He's in Minnesota, @MikeM.
I'm fond of the 'visual proofs', though they're really not
Knew it started with Mi.
This one's an interesting one:
main thing I need to remind myself is how certain things look when I periodize them, e.g. gaussians
(Though it's substantially less rigorous and intuitive than the others)
16:59
which amusingly is related to the Riemann Theta function discussion i had earlier, since perioidization is basically just poisson summation
Whatever floats your boat, buddy.
well, if i periodize them, that both gets rid of any discontinuities in boundary conditions and gives me some knobs to play with
how many fourier modes i use, what size interval i restrict to, etc.
@MikeMiller That has become a signature idiom of yours.
(I refer to goats, myself)
@Huy sorry for not being around. there is a 2-1 (hence "spin") homomorphism ${\rm SL}_2(\Bbb K)\to{\rm SO}(1,n+1)$ for $\Bbb K=\Bbb R,\Bbb C,\Bbb H$ and $n=\dim\Bbb K=1,2,4$ respectively (plus probably $\Bbb O$ too with definition shopping). ${\rm SL}_2(\Bbb K)$ acts on hermitian matrices $h_2(\Bbb K)$ by similarity transformations $A\cdot M:=AMA^\dagger$, preserving the determinant form of signature $(1,n+1)$: $$\det\begin{pmatrix} t+x & \bar{u} \\ u & t-x \end{pmatrix}=t^2-x^2-|u|^2 $$
17:05
But whatever floats your goat
If that floats your goat, that's fine by me.
whatever floats your goat on a boat in a moat
That's less funny, because it doesn't make too much sense.
pfff, you people and your "jokes actually have to make sense"
hello, who can help me on path connectedness
?
17:09
@Semiclassical This is far from Balarka's position.
I don't think I have made nonsensical jokes, if not good ones.
mine really wasn't a joke so much as pointless rhyming for my own amusement
@TedShifrin pouvez vous m'aider sur la connexité par arcs ? s'il vous plait
17:23
@MikeMiller As a side note, I remember I annoyed you by saying I understood why injective proper immersions and embeddings once when I didn't really understand it. I believe I do now, along with the first few chapters on Guillemin-Pollack. (just to make up for that).
I meant first few sections, not chapters, oops.
I believe borh statements.
There's one thing that bugs me though. I remember G-P mentioning there are smooth manifolds in $\Bbb R^n$ which are not globally cut out by smooth real functions $g_1, \cdots, g_k$. What would be an example?
Obviously locally this is true, as inclusion map $M \to \Bbb R^n$ of any manifold is a immersion and thus locally at each point is of the form $(x_1, \cdots, x_k) \to (x_1, \cdots, x_k, 0, \cdots, 0)$ upto setting the correct parametrization by immersion theorem, so given by $x_{k+1} = \cdots = x_n = 0$.
someone knows path connected set ?
The reason this statement bugs me is that I vaguely remember hearing that smooth manifolds are all real algebraic varieties. I am worried whether I misremembered the theorem.
17:47
hi
@BalarkaSen would you like to see my elliptic curve project ?
@BalarkaSen: There's two points here. One is subtle, the other is not.
1) Pick a smooth manifold that's not closed as a subset of $\Bbb R^n$. This is the not subtle one.
1 sec
I will upload it
one is beamer file presentation
and the other is the write up
let me know what do you think
17:51
@MikeMiller You're right. I was not looking for those.
2) The subtle part is when something can never be cut out transversely by smooth functions, even if you re-embed. So suppose $M \subset \Bbb R^n$ is cut out transversely by $k$ smooth functions; then its normal bundle is trivial of rank $k$. $TM \oplus NM$ is trivial, so we see that $TM$ is stably trivial. In particular, it can't be orientable; so eg it's not possible for $\Bbb{RP}^2$.
Think too much about this you start thinking about framed bordism. I'm not going to do that here.
So your result, where things are algebraic varieties (IIRC it's actually just that they're components of smooth algebraic varieties? you may not be able to get something by itself, I think), they're being cut out by the equations, but not transversely. $x^2+y^2=0$ type stuff.
Being cut out transversely essentially means $Dg_1, \cdots, Dg_k$ are linearly independent, correct? Just to confirm.
so degenerations of algebraic varieties?
You have the wrong number there, $n$ instead of $k$. But yes.
or something more subtle than that
17:56
It means they span the tangent space of the image, aka that you're a regular value.
Thanks.
Right.
@Semiclassical: I gues so.
@MikeMiller Ah, alright. I see now. Good point.
It's extremely gross.
though i guess the example you cited doesn't quite fit with the canonical example i have in my head (namely the legendre family $y^2=x(x-1)(x-\lambda)$ as $\lambda\to0,1,$ or $\infty$)
that'd be stuff like $y^2=x^2(x-1)$.
17:59
@Semiclassical: This is a very, very bad type of degeneration. The dimension of what I cut out is smaller than what I expect it to be.
Think again $x^2+y^2=\varepsilon$.
@MikeMiller I don't have the background to understand the reasoning there (probably I would when I get to ch 2), but that's certainly very interesting. Thanks.
It's sickening, I'm telling you.
$y^2=x(x-\lambda)(x+\lambda)$ is probably closer to the mark, but hrm
probably still not enough.
18:01
@BalarkaSen: Take it as an exercise to prove that if $M$ is a regular value, its tangent bundle is stably trivial, using what's above.
Why so?
Smooth manifolds being cut out non-transversely?
I mean, why is it sickening?
what i find interesting in general is the question of how the periods of that algebraic variety behave. as an example
Since when have you ever cut out a smooth manifold non-transversely?
18:02
Oh. Heh. Ok.
I get you.
@MikeMiller I have to probably get more familiar with the tangent bundle before I can prove that. I take it as a future exercise.
suppose i take the family of algebraic varieties $y^2+x^2=\epsilon$ for $\epsilon\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ and consider the integral $\oint_C \dfrac{dx}{y}$ over some nice cycle on the surface
there we go
No! No $\Bbb C$!
most definitely $\mathbb{C}$
$x^2+y^2=0$ is still 1-dim there!
in $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$?
i'm specifically excluding the point where things become bad.
18:06
@Semiclassical Mike means $x^2 + y^2 = 0$ is a 1-dimensional variety over $\Bbb C$.
Indeed, $\Bbb C$ is algebraically closed, so nothing bad can happen. Degree and dimension doesn't behave badly.
It's a good thing that I'm doing these for free, since there's no way anyone would pay to get tutored by me.
i'm not following you.
$x^2 + y^2 = 0$ has a buckload of solutions on $\Bbb C$.
While the real locus is just a point.
yes, but i'm specifically not talking about $\epsilon =0$.
That's all we are saying.
18:08
There's really a big difference between knowing something and being able to teach it… It's a lot easier if they come in with a sheet of exercises, because you know what to do, and more-or-less what they have and haven't learned
alrighty then.
@Semiclassical: I mean, you're now talking about something unrelated to what I was talking about before. I was talking about how you can get smooth manifolds as real algebraic varieties by cutting them out with fewer polynomials than their codimension. This isn't something that could happen over $\Bbb C$.
@Semiclassical I am confused. So you're talking about something unrelated, then?
The last two people who came in just had textbooks with them
One was learning exponential growth/decay, his brother was learning piecewise functions
That's all I was saying. Anything discussed now is an unrelated phenom.
Exponential decay is still a mystery to me.
18:10
(I assume they were brothers)
where i was going was: suppose i pick some $\epsilon>0$ and compute that integral. i then take $\epsilon\to \epsilon e^{2\pi i}$, smoothly deforming my cycle of integration along the way to avoid any jumps
$a(1-r)^t$, that sort of thing
ugh, this connection
Hey @BalarkaSen the reason we have $Im j_{*} \subset ker(\partial)$ is because in the definition of the map $\partial$ we have $c \mapsto b$, $b \mapsto \partial(b)$ and $a \mapsto \partial(b)$. In the definition though of the image though we must have that particular b being element of the $ker$, so we have $a$ gets mapped to 0, so the equivalence class of $[a] = 0$
i'm talking about something related. namely, how does that period behave if we smoothly change $\epsilon$ in such a way that it returns to its initial value but encircles the point $\epsilon=0$
18:12
I am talking about the proof of the exact sequence $H_n(A) \rightarrow H_n(B) \rightarrow H_n(C) \rightarrow H_{n - 1}(A) \rightarrow H_{n - 1}(B)$ etc
@BalarkaSen
@MikeMiller ah. hrm.
@Adeek I have no idea what you're talking about, but that's fine.
to the extent that i have any comfort with algebraic varieties, its in the complex setting not the real one
Real algebraic varieties are very strange.
18:15
@MikeMiller Do you want to elaborate on that?
If not, I understand. Otherwise I am interested.
well, i take the $x^2+y^2=\epsilon$ example as indicative of that
in the complex setting, $\epsilon\to0$ gives you $x/y=\pm i$ (a pair of Riemann spheres, i should think)
$x^2 + y^2 = 0$ phenomenon is nothing special. It happens in many non-alg closed fields, not just $\Bbb R$.
eh, fair enough.
I think Mike had something else in mind when he said they are strange.
I'd consider that an example of their weirdness relative to complex algebraic varieties, at least.
18:20
@Balarka: It's the only field you can visualize it happens in. ;)
...
@SemiC wins.
wooooo-wait what did i win at
That $x^2 + y^2 = 0$ was what Mike was referring to when he said weird, apparently. I was looking for a better and exciting explanation, but oh well.
Don't be greedy.
I should have gotten a haircut before traveling. Oh well.
18:41
I'm probably being short-sighted, but in a metric space, how can I show that a singleton set is closed?
I'm trying to prove that if we have a general metric space $(M,d)$, a subset $F$ of $M$ being finite means that it's closed.
What does it mean to be closed?
That the complement of the set is open!
So what does it mean to be open?
For every point in the set, to be able to find an open ball within the set that's centred at that point with radius that depends on the point in question.
Ok, so pick a point in the complement of x, right? And you want to show there's an open ball around that point that doesn't contain x.
18:47
Oh, so for a point $r \in M\setminus \{x\}$, we can just choose a radius that's less than $d(x,r)$.
So $r$ being arbitrary means that the complement is open and so the singleton is closed?
Well, we just proved the complement is open using the definition, so yea.
Awesome!
Thank you, @MikeMiller!
Hey @DanielFischer
Which set does $L^1(\mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^m)$ represent?
Thank the definition, @Ephemeral - it did all the work for us.
@SemiC I went back through it a bit and I think the key detail in understanding the time cube is that the four corners of the four-cornered day are the vertical edges of the cube.
That's the essential detail.
really? i figured the essential detail was that the guy was batshit crazy
18:59
Wait, you don't believe in the four cornered day?
nah. five corners, all the way
A time dodecagedron? Don't kid around.
what is the time cube?
psh, you sound like my parents. no respect for the Natural 20.
@Evinda When no measure is specified, for subsets of an $\mathbb{R}^d$ the Lebesgue measure is implied (except if a different measure is implied from the context). So it's most likely the set of equivalence classes (modulo being equal almost everywhere) of (Lebsegue) integrable (with respect to the Lebesgue measure) functions on $\mathbb{R}^{n+m}$.
19:06
@Balarka: I have a link somewhere above. Just search time cube, possibly archive if that doesn't work.
Essentially, it (as of the time of its writing) was a new way of understanding the passage of time. It's now long-accepted.
@SemiC You got an audible laugh out of me
What the ...
i'm trying to think of what some good cultish devotionals would be for the time dodecahedron. " 'May the Natural 20 be with you.' 'And also with you.'"
This is even worse than the Cicada 3301 webpage.
i still like the conspiracy theory i came up with earlier
oops
3 hours ago, by Semiclassical
in honor of that kind of crazy, a conspiracy theory: Wikipedia says the domain expired in August 2015, in the midst of the enduring crazy train that is Donald Trump
3 hours ago, by Semiclassical
obviously, then, Time Cube was a secret NWO plot to subconciously prepare us for the coming of the Trump, and had thus served its purpose.
#TrumpCube
oddly enough, trumpcubes are actual things apparently
19:51
A ok.. I have to formulate Fubini's theorem for $L^1(\mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^m)$ functions and use it to calculate the integral $\int_0^{+\infty} \frac{\sin x}{x} \left( \frac{1-e^{-x}}{x}-e^{-x}\right) dx$.

There is a hint that one should apply Fubini's theorem for the calculation of $\int_{(0, \infty) \times (0,1)} y \sin x e^{-xy} dx dy$.

Why do we have to calculate the last integral?

Also it holds that $\int_{(0,\infty) \times (0,1)} y \sin x e^{-xy} dx dy=\int_0^{\infty} \int_0^1 y \sin x e^{-xy} dx dy=\int_0^1 \int_0^{\infty} y \sin x e^{-xy} dy dx$, right?
@Evinda What happens if you calculate that integral? Use both orders of integration.
@DanielFischer I found that $\int_0^{\infty} y e^{-xy} dy=\frac{1}{x^2}$. Am I right?
If so, then the integral gets $\int_0^1 \frac{\sin x}{x^2} dx$.

How can we continue?
So have I done something wrong? @DanielFischer
20:09
@Evinda The integral with respect to $y$ extends only over the interval $(0,1)$.
I wonder if there's a less horrid way to show that Grassmannians are projective algebraic varieties.
Shafarevich does it by realizing $Grass(r, n)$ as a subspace of $\Bbb P(\bigwedge V)$ where $V$ is an $n+1$ dimensional vector space, by sending a $r$ dimensional subspace of $V$ to $e_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge e_r$ where $e_1, \cdots, e_r$ is some basis of that subspace, and noting this is well-defined as any change of basis multiplies that thing with a nonzero constant (namely the det of the basechange matrix).
And then he writes out an equation for the subset using a complicated operation he calls "convolution". Convoluted!
Realize it as the space of matrices that are rank r orthogonal projections.
Oh, wait, that's the Stiefel manifold. Hmm.
Let $F^*$ be the multiplicative group of nonzero elements of the field $F$. Consider the subgroup $H=\{x^2:x \in F^*\}$. Why is it that any element $x^2 \in H$ is the square of only $x$ and $-x$? Why can't $x^2=y^2$ for some $y \notin \{x, -x\}$?
I dunno, figure out of my idea is workable and if so fix it.
Thanks, I'll try.
20:32
@DanielFischer hello, can you help me on path connectedness ?
please
@MikeMiller I haven't thought about it, but I am not sure if it's helpful to realize them as subset of some matrix space. Because then you only know that it's an affine variety: how can you guarantee it's cone over some projective variety? This is all hypothetical blabber though, I haven't done any computation at all.
@DanielFischer You mean that x goes from 0 to $+\infty$ and $y$ from 0 to $1$ ?
@Evinda That's what the hint says.
@Balarka: Oh, projective algebraic variety.
Ask Ted.
Hmm, I guess I will. Thanks though.
20:50
Oh yes, right...Then $\int_0^1 y e^{-xy} dy=-\frac{e^{-x}}{x}-\frac{e^{-x}}{x^2}+\frac{1}{x^2}$, right?

And then the integral gets $\int_0^{\infty} \sin x \left( -\frac{e^{-x}}{x}-\frac{e^{-x}}{x^2}+\frac{1}{x^2} \right)$.

How do we continue? @DanielFischer
There are quasiprojective varieties with non-finitely generated global section of the sheaf of regular functions to $k$! Ugh!.
Guess that's why Shafarevich calls this ring of regular functions to $k$ as $k[X]$ but doesn't give it a name for non-affine things. Not at all the right coordinate ring.

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