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01:42
hi
 
2 hours later…
04:03
How do you see which chat messages were starred for outspoken? I don't remember ever being starred before, let alone by 9 other people.
hiiiiiiiiii
Yo.
Also, jeez. I just found all my past starred messages. From dark times, those.
do you know real analysis
I know it exists, but I'm likely not very helpful in that regard.
04:14
If you ask a question, I can be better sure of my uselessness.
And someone else might chime in.
Looking through the topics of real analysis, I seem to know more than I expected. I haven't taken the class at the university, yet, however.
I might be able to help.
o rly?
Suppose $f : D \rightarrow R$ has a limit at $x_{0}$. Prove that $\mid f \mid : D \rightarrow R$ has a limit at $x_{0}$ and that $\lim_{x \to x_{0}} \mid f(x) \mid = \mid \lim_{x \to x_{0}} f(x) \mid$ \\
Is $R$ supposed to be $\mathbb R$?
yup
where R is the real numbers and D is the domain
I'm supposed to use this theorem

hold on
Theorem: Let $f : D \rightarrow R$ with $x_{0}$ an accumulation point of D. Then f has a limit at $x_{0}$ iff for each sequence $\{x_{n} \}$ n = 1 to infinity converging to $x_{0}$ with $x_{n} \in D$ and $x_{n} \neq x_{0} $ for all n, the sequence$ f(x_{n})$ n = 1 to infinity converges
so that would mean that we have a limit x_0 which is the accumulation point of D and as limit of x approaches that point the absolute value of f(x) is going to be equal to that lim as x approaches x_o f(x) . It's like I have to use that theorem twice
so that absolute value f has that sequence absolute value of x_n
?
I'm still trying to interpret unfamiliar jargon. The use of sequences here is what's throwing me off.
oh yeah because the book intro to analysis by gaughan uses shxx notation for sequences
04:30
Okay, I see what's going on.
$(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty$
that's better
Theorem: Let $f : D \rightarrow R$ with $x_{0}$ an accumulation point of D. Then f has a limit at $x_{0}$ iff for each sequence $(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ converging to $x_{0}$ with $x_{n} \in D$ and $x_{n} \neq x_{0}$ for all n, the sequence $(f(x_n))_{n=1}^\infty$ converges
So, if $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $D$, then $f$ converges to as we approach $x_0$ from any direction in the neighborhood.
So, if those sequences converge, so do their absolute value sequences.
but isn't the absolute value of f : D - > R also converge as well if the original f: D-> R converges
I was getting there... I'm kind of slow at this...but at least I got 3 out of 4 proofs done early by myself ^_^
04:34
Could you repeat that? The phrasing's throwing me off.
Were you agreeing with what I said or finding fault in it?
if f: D -> R which is a function mapped from the DOmain to the set of all reals converges, then the absolute value of f : D-> R converges too.. I was agreeing with you
Okay, sorry. It's pretty late and I've spent today doing nothing useful.
So the brain's not been primed.
but then how do we go beyond that point though
besides we know the statement is true x.x
The absolute value of the sequences converge to $|f(x_0)|$ because the original converged to $f(x_0)$
And since the other sequences converged to $f(x_0)$, taking the absolute value of that limit gives you $|f(x_0)|$
so since the original f converged to $f(x_{0})$ then the $\mid f \mid$ converged to $ \mid f(x_{0}) \mid $
take absolute value of the limit? like a $\mid \mid f \mid \mid$ ?
04:39
$| \lim f |$ converges to $|f(x_0)|$
Yeah
so... when our original lim f converged to $f(x_{0})$ the $\mid lim f \mid$ converged to $ \mid f(x_{0}) \mid $
Right.
ah..ok... now how do I clean this up lol XD
There's two parts. First prove that $|f|$ has a limit.
04:48
Then, prove that its limit is the same as $|\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) |$
ragequits sorry I have a migraine .......... so if there's a limit then it's
To clean up the proof, do these parts in order.
absolute value f has a limit...hmmm
Like ...
By the Theorem, if $x_{0}$ is an accumulation point of D, then f converges as we approach $x_{0}$ from any direction in the neighborhood. So, if $ f: D \rightarrow R$ converges then $ \mid f \mid : D \rightarrow R$ also converges. Since the original sequence converged to $f(x_{0})$, the absolute value of the sequence also converges to $ \mid f(x_{0}) \mid$. ????
Remember, if we take the absolute value of the elements of all the sequences that converge at $x_0$ to $f(x_0)$, we have a new set of sequences that all converge at $x_0$ to $|f(x_0)|$.
Yeah.
hi
can someone help me with a geometry question
04:51
That means the limit at $x_0$ exists for $|f(x_0)|$.
that does that even sound like a proof or am I just goofing off? :/
How you wrote it? It's fine.
Like ...
By the Theorem, if $x_{0}$ is an accumulation point of D, then f converges as we approach $x_{0}$ from any direction in the neighborhood. So, if $ f: D \rightarrow R$ converges then $ \mid f \mid : D \rightarrow R$ also converges. Since the original sequence converged to $f(x_{0})$, the absolute value of the sequence also converges to $ \mid f(x_{0}) \mid$. Therefore, the limit at $x_{0}$ exists for $\mid f(x) \mid$.
The dreaded missing \$
04:52
ikr
Therefore, the limit at $x0$ exists for $|f(x)|$.*
XD. maybe it's because I'm still doubting myself at whether or not I'm at the right track T_T. I know proofs are hard but on some problems I can see right through them and know what to do while others takes time
Some proofs are simply presentable by drawing, and it's great.
Makes graph theory tolerable.
so now we need to prove that the limit is the same as $|\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) |$
@user19405892 That's one hell of a question.
@usukidoll Correct.
04:54
whistles damnnnnnnn
errr... so we need to use the theorem again
Do you? At that point it's just equality.
I'm not sure how streamlined you can get at this point. Again, I haven't taken the class yet.
so it's equal to each other...
$\lim_{x \to x_{0}} \mid f(x) \mid = \mid \lim_{x \to x_{0}} f(x) \mid$
but how?!
But if $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = y$, then all the sequences that converge at $x_0$ converge to $y$.
When you took those sequences and took their absolute value, you get $|y|$.
04:58
so for some reason when I took the absolute value of f(x) then I get the absolute value of whatever that thing was
So, $\lim_{x \to x_0} |f(x)| = |y|$
And since $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = y$, take absolute value of both sides.
$|\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x)| = |y|$
Both of them are equal to $|y|$, so it's proved.
oh.. like

I was getting there -_-

$\lim_{x \to x_0} |f(x)| = |y|$

$\mid \lim_{x \to x_0} |f(x)| \mid = \mid |y| \mid $ like that?
errrr why y? htough
Not 100%. I can't tell where all those bars are going, there's so many.
*though
I just called it $y$
Just to separate it and show that they were the same value at the limit point $x_0$
05:45
Ya'll hear about AlphaGo's latest victory?
user174558
06:37
@mreyeglasses
Hmm this version of chat us pretty nice!!
ikr ... all silence crickets
07:18
@idonutunderstand Yeah.
07:32
I think abstract mathematics will be the last bastion of homo-sapiens ability to be conquered by A.I. @Axoren what is your reaction to the news?
@idonutunderstand I, for one, welcome our new computer overlords.
Haha you're a computer science graduate student so yeah.
I also don't suspect abstract mathematics to be that hard.
For the A.I. of course.
I can already think of a way to model and train a Deep network to solve proofs.
In the same way that we taught it how to play Go, we can model proofs as a game
Where we simply stack well-formed formulas as "moves" and a victory state is the original claim.
You mean using rules of inference to transition from one to the next?
Yeah.
07:40
Are you going to pursue this way of thinking and actually try to implement it?
I'd rather not, actually.
In theory, I like the idea.
In practice, I hate the idea.
Let someone else do it...
Okay, you do it.
Haha no not me either.
I often tell people ways to improve their methods when I can't be bothered to write the paper myself.
It's a bad habit of mine.
I could have written so many papers.
07:45
How about music? You have a way to do that with deep neural nets?
Oh yeah, already formalized that a while back.
Poor Lee Sedol looks so stressed out.
any links to rsa encryption proof?
 
4 hours later…
11:40
@Jasper
11:59
Hi guys
@Axoren You know you sound kind of arrogant saying that, right?
user174558
@Danu Not to me.
user174558
@Axoren Sometimes, when one tries to write it all down, he discovers that he made a mistake in his thinking. It's always good to write things down to make sure it really works.
user174558
@idonutunderstand I prefer chess to weiqi.
12:33
So if we have an arithmetic progression with first element 4 and common difference 3. What's the sum of the first 20 elements?
I'm using this formula to find the 20 element:

\ a_n = a_1 + (n - 1)d
How do I easily format expressions?
Is there some online program?
For this site.
$\ a_n = a_1 + (n - 1)d,$
@Jasper I like Go better than Chess
Any help please - I'm noob here?
How do I format formulas here?
Or is it only possible on the questions?
and not in chat?
I solved my problem anyway. Thanks for the help
13:11
@FISOCPP you need this for the chat math.ucla.edu/~robjohn/math/mathjax.html
user116211
1
Q: How proper is it to turn an ODE into a wave equation?

SlereahI have seen the following method used a few times for finding solutions of wave equations. Take an ODE with a known solution, of the form $y''(x) + g(y(x), x) = 0$ Switch it to a wave equation of the form $\Box y(x) + g(y(x), x) = 0$, where $x = (t, x, y, z, ...)$ Make the substitution in the k...

user116211
Can anyone give a reasonable answer to this unanswered question?
Huy
Huy
13:47
@s.harp I'm not quite sure what you mean by that. Can you explain or give a reference?
Hi!!! I have a question...
I want to find the volume of the parallelepiped that has as vertices the (0,1,0), (1,1,1), (0,2,0), (3,1,2).

If we would have three linearly indepedendent vectors, the volume would be their triple product.
What do we do in this case? @DanielFischer
14:19
@Huy I was thinking about this kind of thing en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modular_curve#Compactified_modular_curves
Huy
Huy
@s.harp: It appears to me this requires me to add points on the real line.
yeah, thats right
Huy
Huy
@s.harp: I'm looking for something like this, but compact.
14:50
I have a question related to moderation. Basically, what are the intended circumstances for posting an answer to meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/19042/… ? There are a few things I might want to post there, but I really want to make sure I understand the purpose before inadvertently abusing it.
whoops, that should probably go in the mods office
@evinda that's four vertices. a parallelpiped has 8. (it may be the case that four vertices are enough to determine a parallelpiped, but that's not obvious to me off the bat.)
(five definitely do, but i'm skeptical about 4)
15:08
Ok, I will think about... If we are given a parallelogram , how can we find the point at which the diagonals intersect? @Semiclassical
depends in what sense you're 'given' a parallelogram, i suppose
if you're given the vertices, then that point should be the midpoint from both pairs of opposite vertices
e.g. if you're given a parallelogram ABCD, then that point should be the midpoint both of AC and of BD
hi
i need help wit this
here is the solution
what doesn't make sense to me is how 'no three elements from E can have distinct $x$-coordinates and distinct $y$-coordinates'
15:26
what's the definition of the centroid?
It is the barycenter so it would be $(\frac{x_a+x_b+x_c}{3}, \frac{y_a+y_b+y_c}{3})$
it is the intersection of the medians of the triangle
doesn't $(3,6),(4,7),(1,0)$ in their $E$ violate that?
15:43
do they mean something else by that?
@Semiclassical Could you give me a specific exercise?
sure, that's simple enough. "Suppose that a parallelogram $ABCD$ has vertices $A=(0,0)$ and $B=(1,0)$. In terms of $C=(x,y)$, find the position of $D$ and where the two diagonals will intersect."
anyone know about my question
16:11
morning
@Semiclassical So we will have something like that:
@Semiclassical How could we explain formally that C and D have to have the same y-coordinate?
Huy
Huy
parallel postulate & geodesics in $R^2$ are straight lines
@MikeMiller: any idea what I have to quotient $\mathbb{H}$ by to get the two-holed-torus? I think it should be a group generated only by hyperbolic isometries (not elliptic or parabolic), but which elements do I take to see best that the quotient is what I want?
16:27
do elliptic and parabolic fix points
Huy
Huy
@MikeMiller: wat?
do elliptic and parabolic isometries fix points on the plane
Huy
Huy
I understand all those words but not what you're saying
I read that if I have parabolic isometries, the quotient won't be compact
I don't know what to clarify. Does a parabolic isometry have a fixed point?
That's what I'm asking. I do not know the answer. This is not a trick question.
Huy
Huy
on $\partial \mathbb{H}$, yes
I thought you were telling me how to proceed
16:31
Eh, I meant on the interior.
Huy
Huy
no
Huy
Huy
only elliptic have on the interior
So elliptic are garbage and parabolic are possibly ok
since there should be a unique transformation that takes each circle to the appropriate circle, I think that's it
Huy
Huy
yeah I've encountered the construction with the octagon as an exercise in a different text but I was trying to come up with something directly in the upper half-plane
but I guess I'll just take that then
16:34
@Evinda $A$ and $B$ both lie on the line $y=0$, and $CD$ must be parallel to $AB$.
Huy
Huy
@MikeMiller: btw I didn't understand your previous questions because you didn't write a question-mark so I mistook it for an answer
Thanks for the clarification
Huy
Huy
I need a larger flat for a larger desk for more monitors to have more windows open simultaneously
So both $C$ and $D$ must lie on the same horizontal line. Since C=(x,y) , D is of the form D=(x',y). Is the justification right? @Semiclassical
sure, that works.
not going to be paying attention for a bit
16:48
Are the edges of the parallelogram vectors? @Semiclassical
user174558
@evinda Aha!
Hi @Jasper
The length of AB is 1. Since AB and CD have to be equal , it has to hold $|CD|=1 \Rightarrow |x'-x|=1 \Rightarrow x'=x \pm 1$.

Thus $D=(x+1,y)$ or $D=(x-1,y)$.

Right? @Semiclassical
17:06
@Danu Arrogant telling people how to improve their methods? or arrogant saying that I tell people how to improve their methods?
@Axoren Never mind it---I was being grumpy :-)
Hi @Danu.
@Danu It's all good.
Hi Mike
Is it standard terminology to call all holomorphic maps between Riemann surfaces coverings, and to designate the ones I know from topology (i.p. the ones that are loc. homeo's) as "unbranched"?
Whose terminology is this?
17:11
Forster - Lectures on Riemann Surfaces
Not all holomorphic maps between Riemann surfaces are what you describe ("branched coverings").
They should have the word branched next to the word.
But a nonconstant holomorphic map is a branched covering.
He says all of them are coverings, some are branched and some are unbranched.
That just means it's a covering map away from a finite set of points.
Hey @DanielFischer
Did you see my question above?
@MikeMiller Right, that's true
17:49
@AkivaWeinberger Hey!!! Could I ask you something?
I want to find $\phi=arc \tan{\left( \frac{1}{0}\right)}$. How can I find the $\phi$ ? @AkivaWeinberger
Huy
Huy
18:00
@MikeMiller: silly question, in the notes you linked, the proof of prop. 2.9, why is $d(z,z_0) < d(z, T^{-1}(z_0))$? why is equality impossible? I suspect it has something to do with $T$ being nontrivial but there must be an additional property necessary to get the inequality.
@Evinda I'll assume you mean $\arctan(\infty)$, which would be shorthand for:$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\arctan(x)$$
And how do we find this value? @AkivaWeinberger
Do you know what the graph of the arctan looks like?
Also, note that $\frac10$ could mean $\pm\infty$, but $\arctan(\infty)\ne\arctan(-\infty)$ (using the shorthand again) so it doesn't make sense
Here's one way to do it:
\begin{align}\arctan(\infty)&=x\\\infty&=\tan x\\\infty&=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}\end{align}
So it would make sense to look for values of $x$ where $\cos x=0$
On second thought, I take back what I said about it not making sense
18:27
Hi, DogAteMy @Akiva
What're you learning in linear algebra these days?
I'm not sure I recall exactly what we did most recently, but we were doing orthogonal matrices and related things
Cool. Well, I can always pass along some interesting exercises if you need some ... :)
At the moment I have quite a lot of things on my plate (including a fairly large history paper due Monday), but thanks
18:33
LOL ... The offer has no expiration date. Good luck with the history paper :)
I'm learning about that time when millions of people died
@Huy: I can think about it if you email that to me so I can star it or if you ask me again late tonight
Not that one, the other one
Well, that was an explicit conversation with yourself, DogAteMy :D
good night @MikeM @Huy
Morning
Huy
Huy
18:35
night @Ted
sent you a mail @Mike
Thanks, starred it
Will respond when I get a chance
(It's on the Holodomor, kinda like the USSR's version of the Holocaust, @TedShifrin)
Ah ... and we could go all the way back to the Crusades, too, but adjusting for population growth. ... Hope the elections don't lead us to massive world war ...
18:50
yo
@MikeMiller well, I think i figured out a simple reason why the Hamiltonian flow problem we've talked about shouldn't have a direct physical interpretation
namely: while there's no problem talking about how solutions behave on subsets of phase space, it's not very typical in physics to consider canonical transformations that leave boundaries fixed
for instance, one could pick the Hamiltonian $H=(x^2+p^2)/2$. this induces a rotation of the phase space, and this would map the disc $D^2$ to itself (along with its boundary)
Really? The most natural automorphism groups of manifolds with boundary are those that fix the boundary.
I gotta go tho.
but it doesn't leave the boundary fixed
mmkay. later
Jim
Jim
1
Q: Construction of Isomorphism from sets of Local Isomorphism(Graph Isomorphism)

JimGiven two graphs $G, H$ (each has $n$ vertices). We, split $G$ into subgraphs $G_1, G_2... G_x$ (total $x$ vertex set). Similarly,assume $H$ has subgraphs $H_1, H_2... H_x$ (total $x$ vertex set). Consider,$\forall k \leq x$, a permutation $\pi_k \in \beta_k$ where $H_k^{\pi_k}=G_k$ such that ...

18:59
@mike for your later interest: What I think might still be 'physical' is to consider two different flows $\phi_1,\phi_2$ which both act as $f:\partial D^2\to \partial D^2$ but don't behave the same inside of $D^2$. In that case, $\phi_2^{-1} \phi_1$ should act as the identity on the boundary.
in that case i'd expect not that the relevant integral would vanish, but that it would give the same result for the two flows.
19:56
Hi guys
I did p-test and t-test. My prof. told me do anova analysis. What does he mean?
@AbhishekBhatia Ask him
I have unbalanced data from 2 observation. Which additional test should I do?
@AbhishekBhatia The one your prof wants you to
What does someone mean why he says do anova?
@AbhishekBhatia How many times do I have to tell you to ask him?
20:07
haha sry.. thx
20:43
please how to find what the $f\in \mathcal{C}([0,1],\mathbb{R})$ which satisfy $$\int_0^1|f(x)-2|dx<1$$ ?
@Vrouvrou What sort of description are you looking for?
i'm surching a ball
What do you mean by a ball?
i have $E=\mathcal{C}([0,1],\mathbb{R})$ and $$d(f,g)=\int_0^1|f(x)-g(x)|dx$$
i want to find $B_d(2,1)$
@Vrouvrou Again, what sort of a description are you hoping for?
20:47
i don't understand how description ?
@Vrouvrou What form would a satisfactory description take? So far you have one description, in terms o that integral
You can rearrange stuff a bit, taking into account where the functions are smaller of greater than $2$, to make it look different, but I am not sure how much nicer it will look
i don't know i just want to find f such that the integral be less then 1
@Vrouvrou There are obviously infinitely many such $f$. I still don't see why the current description is not fine
in the sotion of the book they say that the ball is rectangle
@Vrouvrou How does that even make sense in something which is not just the euclidean plane?
20:54
i don't know
What i can do when i have $\int_0^1 |f(x)-2| dx<2$
@Vrouvrou So you decided that even after my questions, it was a fine formulation to just throw on the main site?
i really don't understand your question
i found this question in a book
i just want to find f
@Vrouvrou No, you want to find all such $f$
and you have no idea what a proper answer would look like
what is the chance that the guy who asks and the guy who answers have the same Gravatar picture? math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692085/…
i thought gravatar was based on your e-mail
I am looking at the following exercise:

Let the finite group $G$ act transitively on the set $\Omega$. Then the action of $G$ and on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is defined as follows $(a,b)\cdot x=(a\cdot x, b\cdot x)$.
Let $a\in \Omega$.
Show that the number of orbits of $G$ on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is equal to the number of orbits of $G_a$ on $\Omega$.

I have done the following:

From the fact that the finite group $G$ acts transitively on the set $\Omega$, we have that there is just one orbit on $\Omega$.
Hey @TobiasKildetoft
Could I ask you something?
@Evinda Is it something I am usually interested in answering questions about?
Hmm... I don't know... Is it known that diagonals in a parallelogram are divided in half by the intersection point or do we have to show it? @TobiasKildetoft
21:18
@Evinda No idea. And no, basic geometry is not generally something I am interested in
user174558
I am interested in basic geometry, but it is something I know nothing about.
Huy
Huy
how you doing @Jasper?
user174558
@Huy So so. I am going to try learn some English, French, German, and LaTeX this year.
Huy
Huy
did you start on any of it yet?
user174558
Not yet. I have my first 6 holy math books planned, final list.
Huy
Huy
21:25
can I see?
With use of algebra I want to prove the Lagrange property:
For any real numbers $x_1, \dots, x_n$ and $y_1, \dots, y_n$, $$\left( \sum_{i=1}^n x_i y_i\right)^2=\left(\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2 \right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n y_i^2 \right)- \sum_{i<j} (x_i y_j-x_j y_i)^2$$
Can you give me a hint what I could do?
user174558
@Huy Petersen's Linear Algebra; Jacobson's Basic Algebra I and II; Kaplan and Lewis's Calculus and Linear Algebra I and II; Protter and Morrey's A First Course in Real Analysis
@DanielFischer Do you maybe have an idea?
Huy
Huy
is the PDF showing up as first google result an officially freely available version of Petersen's Linear Algebra?
user174558
@Huy It has been published as a book. Not the set of lecture notes. As usual, all can be obtained from Russian sites...
Huy
Huy
21:28
ah, I see
books of what topics are still missing for your holy list?
user174558
Too many to list here. The list will probably go up to 18.
@MaryStar Hmm, if you take some the orbit of some $(b,c)$ and inside that take all elements of the form $(a,d)$ will these $d$'s not be an orbit of $G_a$?
user174558
I discovered that Springer sometimes sells cheaper than Amazon.
Huy
Huy
and most of content found on Springer is freely available for me
user174558
I watched Saw 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 and Wrong Turn 1,2,3,4,5,6. Extreme violence.
Huy
Huy
21:33
Only Saw 1 and 2 are watch-worthy from those movies.
user174558
I think I am going to watch Scream 1,2,3,4 and Final Desination 1,2,3,4,5.
user174558
I also watched Hostel 1,2,3.
Huy
Huy
normally I'd ask if you're mentally ill but
=(
on a more serious note, I'm really liking Marvel's Agents of SHIELD atm.
user174558
Don't worry. I am not a killer.
@Jasper lol
user174558
21:35
@MickLH Hi!!!
@Jasper Hey :) How's things?
user174558
The usual, which means bad.
Shit!
user174558
But as usual, I am trying to make some progress with my OCD themes.
Why will these $d$'s be an orbit of $G_a$ ? @TobiasKildetoft
21:38
@Jasper I know it's cliche, but I started on psych meds recently and I've been... well I don't know how to explain the trade-off but it's better for me
@MaryStar Given such two, they have the form $(x.g,y.g)$ and $(x.h,y.h)$ where $x.g = x.h = a$. This should tell you how to find an element in $G_a$ that sends $y.g$ to $y.h$
user174558
@MickLH I have been taking them the past few years as well.
user174558
This is an announcement that the fifth edition of More Math into LaTeX has been published. Buy your copy today!
What will go wrong if I were to build a group by removing the number $0$ from $\Bbb{R}$ and replacing with a symbol $0 = \frac{1}{\infty}$ ?
@MickLH A group under addition or multiplication?
21:46
I think I mean multiplication
@MickLH what would the be the inverse of you new element?
The symbol $\infty$
@MickLH But you didn't add that
sorry, I meant to also add that
@MickLH Ok, and how do you define all the rest of the multiplications?
21:48
@TobiasKildetoft This one is most surprising and I think conveys the theme I'm after: $0\cdot 0 = 0^2$
@MickLH You had removed $0$
But I meant the symbol $0$ not the number. So what I mean is that $\infty^{-1}\cdot \infty^{-1}=\infty^{-2}$
@MickLH Yes, multiplying an element with itself squares it, that is the definition of square
Huy
Huy
so you get one new infinite cyclic group
I am curious why I do not see this convention used, is there something fundamentally wrong with it?
Huy
Huy
21:51
why do you suspect it to be useful?
@MickLH What convention? So far you have not actually defined anything
Huy
Huy
yeah, what happens if you multiply $\infty$ with some other real number?
and what happens if you multiply $1/\infty$ with one?
I treat it somewhat like an imaginary component
@MickLH That does not answer what it should be
I mean that for real $x$ I simply define $x\cdot\infty = x\infty$
21:54
@MickLH But then you need to further add these symbols
It leads to what (to me) is an intuitive interpretation of infinitesimals
So it seems that you have really just taken the direct product of $\mathbb{R}$ with the infinite cyclic group (generated by $\infty$)
Huy
Huy
yeah this "R with one more element" is getting quite a few new elements
@MickLH infinitesimals are only interesting if you can also add and subtract stuff (and more importantly, compare stuff)
I'm not sure what to make of this, I am getting the impression that it's not necessarily broken yet, but not considered a useful path to explore?
21:58
@MickLH There are formal ways to add infinitely large and infinitesimal elements to the reals. For example the surreals do this. But it will quickly become apparent, that no element should be named $\infty$ as there is no good candidate for this
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